A 38-year-old woman makes an appointment with her family physician for a routine check-up after being away due to travel for 1 year. She recently had a screening Pap smear, which was negative for malignancy. Her past medical history is significant for a Pap smear 2 years ago that reported a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL). A subsequent colposcopy diagnosed high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2). The patient is surprised by the differences in her diagnostic tests. You explain to her the basis for the difference and reassure her. With this in mind, which of the following HPV serotypes is most likely to be present in the patient?
AHPV 33
BHPV 16
CHPV 6
DHPV 31
EHPV 18
A 58-year-old woman presents to the physician for a routine gynecological visit. She denies any acute issues and remarks that she has not been sexually active for the past year. Her last Pap test was negative for any abnormal cytology. A pelvic examination and Pap test is performed at the current visit with no remarkable findings. Which of the following approaches to cervical cancer screening is most appropriate for this patient?
AColposcopy in 3 years
BPap test and HPV test in 5 years
CPap test only in 5 years
DDiscontinue screening until the patient becomes sexually active
EColposcopy at the current visit to verify Pap test results
A 27-year-old female presents to her OB/GYN for a check-up. During her visit, a pelvic exam and Pap smear are performed. The patient does not have any past medical issues and has had routine gynecologic care with normal pap smears every 3 years since age 21. The results of the Pap smear demonstrate atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
ARepeat Pap smear in 1 year
BPerform colposcopy
CPerform an HPV DNA test
DPerform a Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure (LEEP)
ERepeat Pap smear in 3 years
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