A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents because of a dull persistent headache beginning that morning. He has nausea and has vomited twice. During the past four days, the patient has had left-sided ear pain and fever, but his parents did not seek medical attention. He is from Thailand and is visiting his relatives in the United States for the summer. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. He is at the 45th percentile for height and 40th percentile for weight. He appears irritable. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg. The pupils are equal and reactive to light. Lateral gaze of the left eye is limited. The left tympanic membrane is erythematous with purulent discharge. There is no nuchal rigidity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
AIntravenous ceftriaxone and clindamycin therapy
BLumbar puncture
CMRI of the brain
DIntravenous cefazolin and metronidazole therapy
ECranial burr hole evacuation
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance from school. He started the day with some body aches and joint pain but then had several episodes of vomiting and started complaining of a terrible headache. The school nurse called for emergency services. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Past medical history is noncontributory. He is a good student and enjoys sports. At the hospital, his blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 105/min, respiratory rate is 21/min, and his temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F). On physical exam, he appears drowsy with neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. Kernig’s sign is positive. An ophthalmic exam is performed followed by a lumbar puncture. An aliquot of cerebrospinal fluid is sent to microbiology. A gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci. A smear is prepared on blood agar and grows round, smooth, convex colonies with clearly defined edges. Which of the following would identify the described pathogen?
AOxidase-positive and ferments glucose and maltose
BOxidase-positive test and ferments glucose only
CCatalase-negative and oxidase-positive
DNo growth on Thayer-Martin medium
EGrowth in anaerobic conditions
A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his friends in a confused state. He was doing fine 5 days ago when he started to complain of fever and flu-like symptoms. His fever was low-grade and associated with a headache. For the past 2 days, he has become increasingly irritable, confused, and was getting angry at trivial things. Past medical history is unremarkable. He is a college student and is physically active. He smokes cigarettes occasionally. He drinks alcohol socially. He is sexually active with his girlfriend and they use condoms inconsistently. Physical examination reveals: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate 108/min, respiratory rate 10/min, and temperature 37.4°C (99.4°F). He is confused and disoriented. Pupils are 3 mm in diameter and respond to light sluggishly. He is moving all his limbs spontaneously. His neck is supple. MRI of the brain is shown in the picture. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) reveals an opening pressure of 16 cm of H20, a total leukocyte count of 112/mm3 with 85% lymphocytes, the protein of 42 mg/dL, and glucose of 58 mg/dL. What is the best treatment for this condition?
AIntravenous immunoglobulin
BHigh-dose steroids
CRituximab
DAcyclovir
ECeftriaxone
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