A 60-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with chest pain that started 20 minutes ago while watching television at home. The pain is substernal and squeezing in nature. She rates the pain as 6/10 and admits to having similar pain in the past with exertion. Her past medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus that is controlled with metformin. The physical examination is unremarkable. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression in the lateral leads. She is started on aspirin, nitroglycerin, metoprolol, unfractionated heparin, and insulin. She is asked not to take metformin while at the hospital. Three sets of cardiac enzymes are negative. Lab results are given below: Serum glucose 88 mg/dL Sodium 142 mEq/L Potassium 3.9 mEq/L Chloride 101 mEq/L Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL Blood urea nitrogen 22 mg/dL Cholesterol, total 170 mg/dL HDL-cholesterol 40 mg/dL LDL-cholesterol 80 mg/dL Triglycerides 170 mg/dL Hematocrit 38% Hemoglobin 13 g/dL Leucocyte count 7,500/mm3 Platelet count 185,000 /mm3 Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 30 seconds Prothrombin time (PT) 12 seconds Urinalysis Glucose negative Ketones negative Leucocytes negative Nitrites negative Red blood cells (RBC) negative Casts negative An echocardiogram reveals left ventricular wall motion abnormalities. With the pain subsiding, she was admitted and the medications were continued. A coronary angiography is planned in 4 days. In addition to regular blood glucose testing, which of the following should be closely monitored in this patient?
AActivated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) alone
BProthrombin time alone
CaPTT and platelet count
DPlatelet count alone
EProthrombin time and platelet count
A 59-year-old man with angina pectoris comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of shortness of breath on exertion that improves with rest. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include aspirin, metoprolol, and nitroglycerine. Echocardiography shows left ventricular septal and apical hypokinesis. Cardiac catheterization shows 96% occlusion of the left anterior descending artery. The patient undergoes angioplasty and placement of a stent. The patient's shortness of breath subsequently resolves and follow-up echocardiography one week later shows normal regional contractile function. Which of the following is the most accurate explanation for the changes in echocardiography?
AMyocardial scarring
BUnstable angina pectoris
CStress cardiomyopathy
DHibernating myocardium
ECardiac remodeling
A 70-year-old woman presents with substernal chest pain. She says that the symptoms began 2 hours ago and have not improved. She describes the pain as severe, episodic, and worse with exertion. She reports that she has had multiple similar episodes that have worsened and increased in frequency over the previous 4 months. Past medical history is significant for diabetes and hypertension, both managed medically. The vital signs include temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 150/100 mm Hg, pulse 80/min, and respiratory rate 15/min. Her serum total cholesterol is 280 mg/dL and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) is 30 mg/dL. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression on multiple chest leads. Coronary angiography reveals 75% narrowing of her left main coronary artery. In which of the following anatomical locations is a mural thrombus most likely to form in this patient?
ALeft ventricle
BLeft atrium
CAorta
DRight atrium
ERight ventricle
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