A 48-year-old male accountant presents to the family practice clinic for his first health check-up in years. He has no complaints, and as far as he is concerned, he is well. He does not have any known medical conditions. His blood pressure is 140/89 mm Hg and his heart rate is 89/min. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. What is the single best initial management for this patient?
ATreat the patient with beta-blockers.
BTry angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
CStart trial of calcium channel blockers.
DReturn to the clinic for a repeat blood pressure reading and counseling on the importance of aerobic exercise.
EThe patient does not require any treatment.
A 47-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He has no complaints and has no history of serious illness. He works as a forklift operator in a factory. His brother died of malignant melanoma. He smokes occasionally and drinks a glass of wine once a week. His pulse is 79/min and blood pressure is 129/84 mm Hg. Which of the following causes of death is this patient most at risk for over the next 15 years?
AIndustrial accident
BCoronary artery disease
CProstate cancer
DMalignant melanoma
ELung cancer
A 70-year-old male presents for an annual exam. His past medical history is notable for shortness of breath when he sleeps, and upon exertion. Recently he has experienced dyspnea and lower extremity edema that seems to be worsening. Both of these symptoms have resolved since he was started on several medications and instructed to weigh himself daily. Which of the following is most likely a component of his medical management?
ALidocaine
BVerapamil
CCarvedilol
DAspirin
EIbutilide
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