A 72-year-old woman comes to the physician for follow-up care. One year ago, she was diagnosed with a 3.8-cm infrarenal aortic aneurysm found incidentally on abdominal ultrasound. She has no complaints. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and COPD. Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, glyburide, and an albuterol inhaler. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 145/85 mm Hg. Examination shows a faint abdominal bruit on auscultation. Ultrasonography of the abdomen shows a 4.9-cm saccular dilation of the infrarenal aorta. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
AElective endovascular aneurysm repair
BAdjustment of cardiovascular risk factors and follow-up ultrasound in 12 months
CAdjustment of cardiovascular risk factors and follow-up ultrasound in 6 months
DElective open aneurysm repair
EAdjustment of cardiovascular risk factors and follow-up CT in 6 months
A 43-year-old man from Chile comes to the physician because of a 1-day history of upper back pain and difficulty swallowing. He has had pain in his shoulder and knee joints over the past 10 years. He is 190 cm (6 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 70.3 kg (155 lb); BMI is 19.4 kg/m2. His blood pressure is 142/86 mm Hg in the right arm and 130/70 mm Hg in the left arm. Physical examination shows a depression in the sternum and a grade 3/6 diastolic murmur at the right upper sternal border. A CT scan of the chest with contrast is shown. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
AAutoimmune valve damage
BAtheroma formation
CProtozoal infection
DCystic medial degeneration
ECongenital aortic narrowing
A 58-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his family because of severe upper back pain, which he describes as ripping. The pain started suddenly 1 hour ago while he was watching television. He has hypertension for 13 years, but he is not compliant with his medications. He denies the use of nicotine, alcohol or illicit drugs. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), the heart rate is 110/min and the blood pressure is 182/81 mm Hg in the right arm and 155/71 mm Hg in the left arm. CT scan of the chest shows an intimal flap limited to the descending aorta. Intravenous opioid analgesia is started. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient condition?
AIntravascular ultrasound
BEmergency surgical intervention
CSublingual nitroglycerin
DIntravenous esmolol
EOral metoprolol and/or enalapril
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