A 31-year-old woman returns to her primary care provider for a follow-up visit. At a routine health maintenance visit 2 months ago, her blood pressure (BP) was 181/97 mm Hg. She has adhered to a low-salt diet and exercises regularly. On repeat examination 1 month later, her BP was 178/93, and she was prescribed hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril. The patient denies any complaint, except for occasional headaches. Now, her BP is 179/95 in the right arm and 181/93 in the left arm. Physical examination reveals an abdominal bruit that lateralizes to the left. A magnetic resonance angiogram of the renal arteries is shown in the image. Which of the following is the best next step for the management of this patient condition?
ABalloon angioplasty
BIntravenous phentolamine
CStenting
DAdd statin and aspirin
ESurgical reconstruction
A 71-year old man is brought to the emergency department because of progressively worsening shortness of breath and fatigue for 3 days. During the last month, he has also noticed dark colored urine. He had an upper respiratory infection 6 weeks ago. He underwent a cholecystectomy at the age of 30 years. He has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He immigrated to the US from Italy 50 years ago. Current medications include simvastatin, lisinopril, and metformin. He appears pale. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 96/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg. Auscultation of the heart shows a grade 4/6 systolic murmur over the right second intercostal space that radiates to the carotids. Laboratory studies show: Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3 Hemoglobin 8.3 g/dL Hematocrit 24% Platelet count 180,000/mm3 LDH 212 U/L Haptoglobin 15 mg/dL (N=41–165) Serum Na+ 138 mEq/L K+ 4.5 mEq/L CL- 102 mEq/L HCO3- 24 mEq/L Urea nitrogen 20 mg/dL Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL Total bilirubin 1.8 mg/dL Stool testing for occult blood is negative. Direct Coombs test is negative. Echocardiography shows an aortic jet velocity of 4.2 m/s and a mean pressure gradient of 46 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management to treat this patient's anemia?
AAortic valve replacement
BAdministration of corticosteroids
CDiscontinuation of medication
DAdministration of hydroxyurea
ESupplementation with iron
You are called to a hemodialysis suite. The patient is a 61-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type-2 diabetes mellitus-induced end-stage renal disease who has required hemodialysis for the past year. His current hemodialysis session is nearing the end when the nurse notices that his blood pressure has dropped to 88/60 mm Hg from his normal of 142/90 mm Hg. The patient denies any shortness of breath or chest pain. He took his daily bisoprolol, metformin, and insulin this morning before coming to the hospital. On examination, the patient’s blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 119/min. Chest auscultation is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next management step?
AInfuse 1 liter of 0.9% saline
BAdminister intravenous calcium gluconate
CTransfuse the patient with 1 unit of packed red blood cells
DStop ultrafiltration and decrease blood flow into the machine
EStart the patient on an epinephrine drip
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