A 56-year-old woman makes an appointment with her physician to discuss the results of her cervical cancer screening. She has been menopausal for 2 years and does not take hormone replacement therapy. Her previous Pap smear showed low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL); no HPV testing was performed. Her gynecologic examination is unremarkable. The results of her current Pap smear is as follows: Specimen adequacy satisfactory for evaluation Interpretation low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion Notes atrophic pattern Which option is the next best step in the management of this patient?
AReflex HPV testing
BColposcopy
CRepeat HPV testing in 6 months
DImmediate loop excision
EIntravaginal estrogen therapy followed by repeat Pap smear in 1 week
A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to her obstetrician for her first prenatal care visit at 12 weeks gestation by last menstrual period. She states that her breasts are very tender and swollen, and her exercise endurance has declined. She otherwise feels well. She is concerned about preterm birth, as she heard that certain cervical procedures increase the risk. The patient has a gynecologic history of loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP) for cervical dysplasia several years ago and has had negative Pap smears since then. She also has mild intermittent asthma that is well controlled with occasional use of her albuterol inhaler. At this visit, this patient’s temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 69/min, blood pressure is 119/61 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. Cardiopulmonary exam is unremarkable, and the uterine fundus is just palpable at the pelvic brim. Pelvic exam reveals normal female external genitalia, a closed and slightly soft cervix, a 12-week-size uterus, and no adnexal masses. Which of the following is the best method for evaluating for possible cervical incompetence in this patient?
ATransabdominal ultrasound in the first trimester
BTransvaginal ultrasound in the first trimester
CSerial transvaginal ultrasounds starting at 16 weeks gestation
DTransabdominal ultrasound at 18 weeks gestation
ETransvaginal ultrasound at 18 weeks gestation
A 39-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist for a routine visit. She has no complaints during this visit. She had an abnormal pap test 6 years ago that showed atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance. The sample was negative for human papillomavirus. On her follow-up Pap test 3 years later, there was no abnormality. The latest pap test results show atypical glandular cells with reactive changes in the cervical epithelium. The gynecologist decides to perform a colposcopy, and some changes are noted in this study of the cervical epithelium. The biopsy shows dysplastic changes in the epithelial cells. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
AFollow-up pap smear in one year
BFollow-up pap smear in 3 years
CCold knife conization
DRepeat colposcopy in 6 months
ELoop electrosurgical excision procedure
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