A 33-year-old woman with Crohn’s disease colitis presents to her physician after 2 days of photophobia and blurred vision. She has had no similar episodes in the past. She has no abdominal pain or diarrhea and takes mesalazine, azathioprine, and prednisone as maintenance therapy. Her vital signs are within normal range. Examination of the eyes shows conjunctival injection. The physical examination is otherwise normal. Slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist shows evidence of inflammation in the anterior chamber. Which of the following is the most appropriate modification to this patient’s medication at this time?
AAdding infliximab
BIncreasing dose of prednisone
CNo modification of therapy at this time
DDiscontinuing mesalazine
EDecreasing dose of azathioprine
A 62-year-old man comes to the physician in May for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. He underwent a right inguinal hernia repair 6 months ago. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. There is no family history of serious illness. Current medications include metformin, sitagliptin, enalapril, and metoprolol. He received the zoster vaccine 1 year ago. He received the PPSV23 vaccine 4 years ago. His last colonoscopy was 7 years ago and was normal. He smoked a pack of cigarettes a day for 20 years but quit 17 years ago. He drinks two to three alcoholic beverages on weekends. He is allergic to amoxicillin. He is scheduled to visit Australia and New Zealand in 2 weeks to celebrate his 25th wedding anniversary. He appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. An S4 is heard at the apex. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
AColonoscopy
BInfluenza vaccine
CPneumococcal conjugate vaccine 13
DCardiac stress test
EAbdominal ultrasound
A 38-year-old man presents to his primary care provider for abdominal pain. He reports that he has had a dull, burning pain for several months that has progressively gotten worse. He also notes a weight loss of about five pounds over that time frame. The patient endorses nausea and feels that the pain is worse after meals, but he denies any vomiting or diarrhea. He has a past medical history of hypertension, and he reports that he has been under an unusual amount of stress since losing his job as a construction worker. His home medications include enalapril and daily ibuprofen, which he takes for lower back pain he developed at his job. The patient drinks 1-2 beers with dinner and has a 25-pack-year smoking history. His family history is significant for colorectal cancer in his father and leukemia in his grandmother. On physical exam, the patient is moderately tender to palpation in the epigastrium. A fecal occult test is positive for blood in the stool. Which of the following in the patient’s history is most likely causing this condition?
AFamily history of cancer
BPhysiologic stress
CMedication use
DSmoking history
EAlcohol use
+ 7 more in the PDF
Browse all chapters