A 40-year-old woman presents to her physician's home with a headache. She describes it as severe and states that her symptoms have not been improving despite her appointment yesterday at the office. Thus, she came to her physician's house on the weekend for help. The patient has been diagnosed with migraine headaches that have persisted for the past 6 months and states that her current symptoms feel like her previous headaches with a severity of 3/10. She has been prescribed multiple medications but is generally non-compliant with therapy. She is requesting an exam and urgent treatment for her symptoms. Which of the following is the best response from the physician?
AIt sounds to me like you are in a lot of pain. Let me see how I can help you.
BDo not come to my house when you have medical problems. You should make an appointment.
CYour symptoms seem severe. Let me perform a quick exam to see if everything is alright.
DUnfortunately, I cannot examine and treat you at this time. Please set up an appointment to see me in my office.
EYou should go to the emergency department for your symptoms rather than coming here.
A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of fatigue and increased urination. The patient reports that he has been drinking more than usual because he is constantly thirsty. He has avoided driving for the past 8 weeks because of intermittent episodes of blurred vision. He had elevated blood pressure at his previous visit but is otherwise healthy. Because of his busy work schedule, his diet consists primarily of fast food. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 109 kg (240 lb); BMI is 34 kg/m2. His pulse is 75/min and his blood pressure is 148/95 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin A1c 6.8% Serum Glucose 180 mg/dL Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL Total cholesterol 220 mg/dL HDL cholesterol 50 mg/dL Triglycerides 140 mg/dL Urine Blood negative Glucose 2+ Protein 1+ Ketones negative Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
AMetformin therapy
BLow-carbohydrate diet
CAspirin therapy
DACE inhibitor therapy
EInsulin therapy
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department one hour after sustaining an injury during football practice. He collided head-on into another player while wearing a mouthguard and helmet. Immediately after the collision he was confused but able to use appropriate words. He opened his eyes spontaneously and followed commands. There was no loss of consciousness. He also had a headache with dizziness and nausea. He is no longer confused upon arrival. He feels well. Vital signs are within normal limits. He is fully alert and oriented. His speech is organized and he is able to perform tasks demonstrating full attention, memory, and balance. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. There is mild tenderness to palpation over the crown of his head but no signs of skin break or fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
ADischarge without activity restrictions
BDischarge and refrain from all physical activity for one week
CObserve for 6 hours in the ED and refrain from contact sports for one week
DAdminister prophylactic levetiracetam and observe for 24 hours
EAdminister prophylactic phenytoin and observe for 24 hours
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