A 30-year-old woman who is 24-weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with fever, painful urination, and headache. The patient's blood pressure is 111/67 mm Hg, the pulse is 95/min, the respiratory rate is 16/min, and the temperature is 38.3°C (101.1°F). Physical examination reveals bilateral tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and painful genital lesions. On closer inspection, the patient’s genital lesions contain clear fluid and measure 5–6 mm in diameter. What is the appropriate description of these lesions?
APustule
BUlcer
CPapule
DBulla
EVesicle
A 26-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for 5 days of increasing pelvic pain. She says that the pain has been present for the last 2 months; however, it has become increasingly severe recently. She also says that the pain has been accompanied by unusually heavy menstrual periods in the last few months. Physical exam reveals a mass in the right adnexa, and ultrasonography reveals a 9 cm right ovarian mass. If this mass is surgically removed, which of the following structures must be diligently protected?
AExternal iliac artery
BUreter
COvarian ligament
DCardinal ligament of the uterus
EInternal iliac artery
A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of dull pain in his scrotum and lower back pain over the last 3 months. He is a computer engineer working in a private IT company. He had an uncomplicated appendectomy at the age of 22 years, but is otherwise without a significant past medical history. He smokes 2–3 cigarettes on weekends and drinks alcohol occasionally. He is sexually active with his wife. Today his heart rate is 90/min and blood pressure is 132/76 mm Hg. Scrotal examination reveals a firm, small and painless nodule on the left testicle. Scrotal ultrasound reveals a 0.9 x 0.5 cm irregular, non-cystic mass. He undergoes a left radical orchiectomy and histopathological examination reveals uniform tumor cells with abundant clear cytoplasm and distinct cell borders, consistent with a seminoma. Subsequent PET/CT scans show supraclavicular and para-aortic lymph node involvement. Which is the next and most appropriate step in the management of this patient?
AImmunotherapy
BRadiotherapy
CChemotherapy
DObservation
ESurgery
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