A 34-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation is found to have a positive treponemal test (TPHA) but negative non-treponemal test (VDRL) during routine antenatal screening. She has no history of syphilis treatment. What is the most appropriate interpretation and management?
ASuccessfully treated past infection - no treatment needed
BBiological false positive - repeat testing in 4 weeks
CLatent syphilis cannot be ruled out - treat with benzathine penicillin
DFalse positive TPHA - no treatment needed
Jarish-Herxheimer reaction is seen in early cases of what?
ASyphilis
BGonorrhea
CLymphogranuloma venereum
DGranuloma inguinale
Which of the following bacteria does not exhibit bipolar staining?
AHaemophilus influenzae
BYersinia pestis
CCalymmatobacterium granulomatis
DFrancisella tularensis
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