Cystoscopy and urethroscopy — MCQs

A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 25 minutes after he was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision where he was the unrestrained passenger. He has severe lower abdominal and pelvic pain. On arrival, he is alert and oriented. His pulse is 95/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 106/62 mm Hg. Examination shows severe tenderness to palpation over the lower abdomen and over the left anterior superior iliac spine. There is no limb length discrepancy. Application of downward pressure over the pelvis shows no springy resistance or instability. Rectal examination is unremarkable. A focused assessment with sonography shows no free fluid in the abdomen. There is no blood at the urethral meatus. Placement of a Foley catheter shows gross hematuria. An x-ray of the pelvis shows a fracture of the left pelvic edge. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 31-year-old obese Caucasian female presents to the Emergency Department late in the evening for left lower quadrant pain that has progressively worsened over the last several hours. She describes the pain as sharp and shooting, coming and going. Her last bowel movement was this morning. She has also had dysuria and urgency. Her surgical history is notable for gastric bypass surgery 2 years prior and an appendectomy at age 9. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and uses condoms. Her temperature is 99.5 deg F (37.5 deg C), blood pressure is 151/83 mmHg, pulse is 86/min, respirations are 14/minute, BMI 32. On physical exam, she has left lower quadrant tenderness to palpation with pain radiating to the left groin and left flank tenderness on palpation. Her urinalysis shows 324 red blood cells/high power field. Her pregnancy test is negative. What is the next best step in management?

A 61-year-old G4P3 presents with a 5-year history of involuntary urine loss on coughing, sneezing, and physical exertion. She denies urine leakage at night. She has been menopausal since 51 years of age. She is otherwise healthy and is not on any medications, including hormone replacement therapy. The weight is 78 kg (172 lb) and the height is 156 cm (5.1 ft). The vital signs are within normal limits. The physical examination shows no costovertebral angle tenderness. The neurologic examination is unremarkable. The gynecologic examination revealed pale and thin vulvar and vaginal mucosa. The external urethral opening appears normal; there is urine leakage when the patient is asked to cough. The Q-tip test is positive. The bimanual exam reveals painless bulging of the anterior vaginal wall. Which of the following findings are most likely to be revealed by cystometry?

A 56-year-old man undergoes a cystoscopy for the evaluation of macroscopic hematuria. During the procedure, an opening covered with a mucosal flap is visualized at the base of the trigone. Which of the following best describes this structure?

A 57-year-old man presents with acute-onset nausea and left flank pain. He says his symptoms suddenly started 10 hours ago and have not improved. He describes the pain as severe, colicky, intermittent, and localized to the left flank. The patient denies any fever, chills, or dysuria. His past medical history is significant for nephrolithiasis, incidentally diagnosed 10 months ago on a routine ultrasound, for which he has not been treated. His family history is unremarkable. The patient is afebrile, and his vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, he is writhing in pain and moaning. Severe left costovertebral angle tenderness is noted. Gross hematuria is present on urinalysis. A non-contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a 12-mm obstructing calculus at the left ureterovesical junction. Initial management, consisting of IV fluid resuscitation, antiemetics, and analgesia, is administered. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician because of right flank pain that started 3 days following a procedure. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows right costovertebral angle tenderness. An intravenous pyelogram shows a dilated renal pelvis and ureter on the right with a lack of contrast proximal to the ureterovesical junction. This patient most likely recently underwent which of the following procedures?

Please refer to the summary above to answer this question Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Patient Information Age: 66 years Gender: M, self-identified Ethnicity: African-American Site of Care: office History Reason for Visit/Chief Concern: "I need to go to the bathroom all the time." History of Present Illness: 1-year history of frequent urination urinates every 2–3 hours during the day and wakes up at least 3 times at night to urinate has had 2 episodes of cystitis treated with antibiotics in the past 4 months has a weak urinary stream has not noticed any blood in the urine does not have any pain with urination or ejaculatory dysfunction Past Medical History: type 2 diabetes mellitus nephrolithiasis, treated with percutaneous nephrolithotomy essential tremor Medications: metformin, canagliflozin, propranolol Allergies: sulfa drugs Social History: sexually active with his wife; does not use condoms consistently has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 50 years drinks one to two glasses of beer weekly Physical Examination Temp Pulse Resp BP O2 Sat Ht Wt BMI 37°C (98.6°F) 72/min 16/min 134/81 mm Hg – 183 cm (6 ft) 105 kg (231 lb) 31 kg/m2 Appearance: no acute distress Pulmonary: clear to auscultation Cardiac: regular rate and rhythm; normal S1, S2; S4 gallop Abdominal: overweight; no tenderness, guarding, masses, bruits, or hepatosplenomegaly Extremities: no joint erythema, edema, or warmth; dorsalis pedis, radial, and femoral pulses intact Genitourinary: no lesions or discharge Rectal: slightly enlarged, smooth, nontender prostate Neurologic: alert and oriented; cranial nerves grossly intact; no focal neurologic deficits

Four hours after undergoing an abdominal hysterectomy, a 43-year-old woman is evaluated in the post-anesthesia care unit because she has only had a urine output of 5 mL of blue-tinged urine since surgery. The operation went smoothly and ureter patency was checked via retrograde injection of methylene blue dye mixed with saline through the Foley catheter. She received 2.4 L of crystalloid fluids intraoperatively and urine output was 1.2 L. She had a history of fibroids with painful and heavy menses. She is otherwise healthy. She underwent 2 cesarean sections 8 and 5 years ago, respectively. Her temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg. She appears comfortable. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. There is a midline surgical incision with clean and dry dressings. Her abdomen is soft and mildly distended in the lower quadrants. Her bladder is slightly palpable. Extremities are warm and well perfused, and capillary refill is brisk. Laboratory studies show: Leukocyte count 8,300/mm3 Hemoglobin 10.3 g/dL Hematocrit 31% Platelet count 250,000/mm3 Serum _Na+ 140 mEq/L _K+ 4.2 mEq/L _HCO3+ 26 mEq/L _Urea nitrogen 26 mg/dL _Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL Urine _Blood 1+ _WBC none _Protein negative _RBC none _RBC casts none A bladder scan shows 250 mL of retained urine. Which of the following is the next best step in the evaluation of this patient?

A 33-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after losing control over his bicycle and colliding with a parked car. The handlebar of the bicycle hit his lower abdomen. On arrival, he is alert and oriented. His pulse is 90/min, respirations are 17/min and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 97%. The pupils are equal and reactive to light. There are multiple bruises over his chest and lower extremities. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and nontender. There is no pelvic instability. Rectal examination is unremarkable. A complete blood count, prothrombin time, and serum concentrations of glucose, creatinine, and electrolytes are within the reference range. Urine dipstick is mildly positive for blood. Microscopic examination of the urine shows 20 RBCs/hpf. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 65-year-old African American man presents for follow-up examination with a 6-month history of urinary hesitancy, weak stream, and terminal dribbling, which is refractory to a combination therapy of finasteride and tamsulosin. The patient’s past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. His father and brother were diagnosed with prostate cancer at the age of 55 years. His vital signs are within normal limits. The patient has a normal anal sphincter tone and a bulbocavernosus muscle reflex. Digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals a prostate size equivalent to 2 finger pads with a hard nodule and without fluctuance or tenderness. Serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 5 ng/mL. Which of the following investigations is most likely to establish a definitive diagnosis?