A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after his wife found him unresponsive 1 hour ago. He had fallen from a flight of stairs the previous evening. Four years ago, he underwent a mitral valve replacement. He has hypertension and coronary artery disease. Current medications include aspirin, warfarin, enalapril, metoprolol, and atorvastatin. On arrival, he is unconscious. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 59/min, respirations are 7/min and irregular, and blood pressure is 200/102 mm Hg. The right pupil is 5 mm and fixed. The left pupil is 4 mm and reactive to light. There is extension of the extremities to painful stimuli. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows a systolic click. The abdomen is soft and nontender. He is intubated and mechanically ventilated. A mannitol infusion is begun. A noncontrast CT scan of the brain shows a 6-cm subdural hematoma on the right side with an 18-mm midline shift. Which of the following is the most likely early sequela of this patient's current condition?
Q72
A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 45 minutes after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is agitated. He has pain in his upper right arm, which he is cradling in his left arm. His temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 135/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. His breathing is shallow. Pulse oximetry on 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather face mask shows an oxygen saturation of 83%. He is confused and oriented only to person. Examination shows multiple bruises on the right anterior thoracic wall. The pupils are equal and reactive to light. On inspiration, his right chest wall demonstrates paradoxical inward movement while his left chest wall is expanding. There is pain to palpation and crepitus over his right anterior ribs. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. An x-ray of the chest is shown. Two large-bore IVs are placed. After fluid resuscitation and analgesia, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q73
A 27-year-old male presents to the Emergency Room as a code trauma after being shot in the neck. En route, the patient's blood pressure is 127/73 mmHg, pulse is 91/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air with GCS of 15. On physical exam, the patient is in no acute distress; however, there is an obvious entry point with oozing blood near the left lateral neck above the cricoid cartilage with a small hematoma that is non-pulsatile and stable since arrival. The rest of the physical exam is unremarkable. Rapid hemoglobin returns back at 14.1 g/dL. After initial resuscitation, what is the next best step in management?
Q74
An 11-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with sudden and severe pain in the left scrotum that started 2 hours ago. He has vomited twice. He has no dysuria or frequency. There is no history of trauma to the testicles. The temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F). The left scrotum is swollen, erythematous, and tender. The left testis is elevated and swollen with a transverse lie. The cremasteric reflex is absent. Ultrasonographic examination is currently pending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q75
An 18-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her coach, 30 minutes after injuring her left knee while playing field hockey. She was tackled from the left side and has been unable to bear weight on her left leg since the accident. She fears the left knee may be unstable upon standing. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. The patient appears uncomfortable. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a swollen and tender left knee; range of motion is limited by pain. The medial joint line is tender to touch. The patient's hip is slightly flexed and abducted, and the knee is slightly flexed while the patient is in the supine position. Gentle valgus stress is applied across the left knee and medial joint laxity is noted. The remainder of the examination shows no further abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q76
A 52-year-old obese man is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after he was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He was the unrestrained driver. On arrival, he is lethargic. His pulse is 112/min, respirations are 10/min and irregular, and blood pressure is 94/60 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 91%. The pupils are equal and react sluggishly to light. He withdraws his extremities to pain. There are multiple bruises over his face, chest, and abdomen. Breath sounds are decreased over the left lung base. Two large bore peripheral venous catheters are inserted and 0.9% saline infusion is begun. Rapid sequence intubation is initiated and endotracheal intubation is attempted without success. Bag and mask ventilation is continued. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 84%. The patient has no advance directive and family members have not arrived. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q77
A 63-year-old man is brought to the emergency department, 30 minutes after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He is obtunded on arrival. He is intubated and mechanical ventilation is begun. The ventilator is set at a FiO2 of 60%, tidal volume of 440 mL, and positive end-expiratory pressure of 4 cm H2O. On the third day of intubation, his temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 91/min, and blood pressure is 103/60 mm Hg. There are decreased breath sounds over the left lung base. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and not distended. Arterial blood gas analysis shows:
pH 7.49
pCO2 29 mm Hg
pO2 73 mm Hg
HCO3- 20 mEq/L
O2 saturation 89%
Monitoring shows a sudden increase in the plateau airway pressure. An x-ray of the chest shows deepening of the costophrenic angle on the left side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q78
A 78-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she fell while gardening and experienced severe pain in her right arm. She has a history of well controlled hypertension and has been found to have osteoporosis. On presentation she is found to have a closed midshaft humerus fracture. No other major findings are discovered on a trauma survey. She is placed in a coaptation splint. The complication that is most associated with this injury has which of the following presentations?
Q79
A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency room after being in a motor vehicle accident. He was driving on an icy road when his car swerved off the road and ran head on into a tree. He complains of severe pain in his right lower extremity. He denies loss of consciousness during the accident. His past medical history is notable for poorly controlled hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and major depressive disorder. He takes enalapril, atorvastatin, and sertraline. His temperature is 99.1°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 155/85 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 20/min. On exam, he is alert and fully oriented. He is unable to move his right leg due to pain. Sensation is intact to light touch in the sural, saphenous, tibial, deep peroneal, and superficial peroneal distributions. His leg appears adducted, flexed, and internally rotated. An anteroposterior radiograph of his pelvis would most likely demonstrate which of the following findings?
Q80
A 34-year-old Ethiopian woman who recently moved to the United States presents for evaluation to a surgical outpatient clinic with painful ulceration in her right breast for the last 2 months. She is worried because the ulcer is increasing in size. On further questioning, she says that she also has a discharge from her right nipple. She had her 2nd child 4 months ago and was breastfeeding the baby until the pain started getting worse in the past few weeks, and is now unbearable. According to her health records from Africa, her physician prescribed antimicrobials multiple times with a diagnosis of mastitis, but she did not improve significantly. Her mother and aunt died of breast cancer at 60 and 58 years of age, respectively. On examination, the right breast is enlarged and firm, with thickened skin, diffuse erythema, edema, and an ulcer measuring 3 × 3 cm. White-gray nipple discharge is present. The breast is tender with axillary and cervical adenopathy. Mammography is ordered, which shows a mass with a large area of calcifications, parenchymal distortion, and extensive soft tissue and trabecular thickening in the affected breast. The patient subsequently undergoes core-needle and full-thickness skin punch biospies. The pathology report states a clear dermal lymphatic invasion by tumor cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Trauma/Emergencies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after his wife found him unresponsive 1 hour ago. He had fallen from a flight of stairs the previous evening. Four years ago, he underwent a mitral valve replacement. He has hypertension and coronary artery disease. Current medications include aspirin, warfarin, enalapril, metoprolol, and atorvastatin. On arrival, he is unconscious. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 59/min, respirations are 7/min and irregular, and blood pressure is 200/102 mm Hg. The right pupil is 5 mm and fixed. The left pupil is 4 mm and reactive to light. There is extension of the extremities to painful stimuli. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows a systolic click. The abdomen is soft and nontender. He is intubated and mechanically ventilated. A mannitol infusion is begun. A noncontrast CT scan of the brain shows a 6-cm subdural hematoma on the right side with an 18-mm midline shift. Which of the following is the most likely early sequela of this patient's current condition?
A. Multifocal myoclonus
B. Right eye esotropia and elevation
C. Bilateral lower limb paralysis
D. Left-side facial nerve palsy
E. Right-sided hemiplegia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Right-sided hemiplegia***
- The patient has a **right-sided subdural hematoma** causing **uncal herniation** with significant midline shift (18 mm).
- **Kernohan's notch phenomenon** is a false localizing sign where the contralateral cerebral peduncle (left side) is compressed against the edge of the tentorium cerebelli by the herniating brain.
- This contralateral peduncle compression paradoxically produces **ipsilateral hemiplegia** (same side as the lesion) - in this case, right-sided hemiplegia from a right-sided mass.
- This is an **early sequela** of severe herniation and represents a classic false localizing sign in neurosurgery.
*Multifocal myoclonus*
- This indicates widespread cortical irritability or **metabolic encephalopathy** (e.g., uremia, hypoxia, drug toxicity).
- Not a typical early focal sequela of subdural hematoma with uncal herniation.
- May occur later with diffuse hypoxic brain injury but is not the most likely early finding.
*Right eye esotropia and elevation*
- **Oculomotor nerve (CN III) palsy** causes the eye to be displaced "**down and out**" (exotropia and depression), not esotropia and elevation.
- The right fixed dilated pupil indicates CN III compression from uncal herniation, but this would cause lateral deviation and depression of the eye.
- The described eye position is inconsistent with CN III palsy.
*Bilateral lower limb paralysis*
- Would require **bilateral cerebral involvement** of motor cortices or **spinal cord injury**.
- A unilateral subdural hematoma, even with herniation, would not typically cause isolated bilateral lower limb paralysis as an early sequela.
- Not consistent with the focal nature of this injury.
*Left-side facial nerve palsy*
- While **contralateral hemiplegia** (left-sided weakness) would be expected from direct mass effect of a right-sided lesion, isolated facial nerve palsy is less likely.
- **Central facial palsy** (upper motor neuron) would affect the lower face and could occur contralaterally, but complete hemiplegia including the face would be more common than isolated CN VII palsy.
- Kernohan's notch phenomenon specifically affects the motor pathways in the cerebral peduncle, making ipsilateral hemiplegia the most characteristic early motor sequela.
Question 72: A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 45 minutes after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is agitated. He has pain in his upper right arm, which he is cradling in his left arm. His temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 135/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. His breathing is shallow. Pulse oximetry on 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather face mask shows an oxygen saturation of 83%. He is confused and oriented only to person. Examination shows multiple bruises on the right anterior thoracic wall. The pupils are equal and reactive to light. On inspiration, his right chest wall demonstrates paradoxical inward movement while his left chest wall is expanding. There is pain to palpation and crepitus over his right anterior ribs. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. An x-ray of the chest is shown. Two large-bore IVs are placed. After fluid resuscitation and analgesia, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Bedside thoracotomy
B. Surgical fixation of right third to sixth ribs
C. Intubation with positive pressure ventilation (Correct Answer)
D. Placement of a chest tube
E. CT scan of the chest
Explanation: ***Intubation with positive pressure ventilation***
- The patient presents with **flail chest** (paradoxical chest wall movement with pain and crepitus), respiratory distress (tachypnea, shallow breathing), and **hypoxemia** (SpO2 83% on 100% oxygen) despite initial fluid resuscitation and analgesia. These are clear indications for **endotracheal intubation** and mechanical ventilation to stabilize the chest wall, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing.
- **Positive pressure ventilation** helps to internally splint the flail segment, enabling more effective gas exchange and preventing further atelectasis.
*Bedside thoracotomy*
- **Bedside thoracotomy** is typically reserved for patients in traumatic cardiac arrest who have witnessed signs of life on arrival or are in profound shock unresponsive to other resuscitative measures, making it inappropriate here.
- This patient is **hemodynamically stable** (BP 145/90 mmHg) and does not show signs of massive hemorrhage or cardiac tamponade requiring immediate thoracotomy.
*Surgical fixation of right third to sixth ribs*
- **Surgical fixation of rib fractures** is a more definitive treatment for flail chest but is not an immediate life-saving intervention in the setting of acute respiratory failure and hypoxemia.
- While it can be considered later to reduce pain and improve pulmonary mechanics, the priority is to stabilize the patient's respiratory status through **ventilation**.
*Placement of a chest tube*
- **Placement of a chest tube** is indicated for pneumothorax, hemothorax, or empyema. While a pneumothorax or hemothorax could be present given the trauma and rib fractures, the primary issue driving this patient's acute respiratory failure is the **flail chest leading to inadequate ventilation and oxygenation**.
- There is no mention of diminished breath sounds or hyperresonance/dullness to percussion, which would suggest pneumothorax or hemothorax as the primary and immediate problem after initial resuscitation.
*CT scan of the chest*
- A **CT scan of the chest** is an important diagnostic tool to assess the extent of injuries, but it is not an immediate therapeutic intervention for a patient in acute respiratory failure and severe hypoxemia.
- Delaying definitive airway management for a diagnostic test in an unstable patient is **inappropriate** and could worsen the patient's condition.
Question 73: A 27-year-old male presents to the Emergency Room as a code trauma after being shot in the neck. En route, the patient's blood pressure is 127/73 mmHg, pulse is 91/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air with GCS of 15. On physical exam, the patient is in no acute distress; however, there is an obvious entry point with oozing blood near the left lateral neck above the cricoid cartilage with a small hematoma that is non-pulsatile and stable since arrival. The rest of the physical exam is unremarkable. Rapid hemoglobin returns back at 14.1 g/dL. After initial resuscitation, what is the next best step in management?
A. Bedside neck exploration
B. Conventional angiography
C. MRI
D. Plain radiography films
E. CT angiography (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CT angiography***
- **CT angiography** is the most appropriate next step for **stable patients** with penetrating neck trauma, like this patient, to evaluate for vascular and airway injuries.
- It offers **rapid, non-invasive assessment** of the extent of injury and helps guide further management.
*Bedside neck exploration*
- **Bedside neck exploration** is typically reserved for patients with **hard signs** of vascular injury (e.g., active hemorrhage, expanding hematoma, pulsatile hematoma) or **signs of airway compromise**, which are absent here.
- This patient is **hemodynamically stable** and has a non-expanding hematoma.
*Conventional angiography*
- **Conventional angiography** is more **invasive** and time-consuming than CTA, carrying risks such as arterial dissection or stroke.
- It is usually reserved for **diagnostic confirmation** or **therapeutic intervention** (e.g., embolization) after initial imaging, especially when CTA findings are equivocal or reveal treatable lesions.
*MRI*
- **MRI** is generally **contraindicated** in acute trauma situations, especially when the presence of metallic foreign bodies (e.g., bullet fragments) is a concern.
- Its **longer acquisition time** and **lack of immediate availability** in the emergency setting make it less suitable for initial evaluation of penetrating neck trauma.
*Plain radiography films*
- **Plain radiographs** can identify **bony fractures** and the general location of foreign bodies, but they offer **limited information** regarding soft tissue and vascular structures.
- They are insufficient for comprehensively evaluating potential vascular or airway injuries in penetrating neck trauma.
Question 74: An 11-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with sudden and severe pain in the left scrotum that started 2 hours ago. He has vomited twice. He has no dysuria or frequency. There is no history of trauma to the testicles. The temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F). The left scrotum is swollen, erythematous, and tender. The left testis is elevated and swollen with a transverse lie. The cremasteric reflex is absent. Ultrasonographic examination is currently pending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Testicular torsion (Correct Answer)
B. Mumps orchitis
C. Spermatocele
D. Epididymitis
E. Germ cell tumor
Explanation: ***Testicular torsion***
- The sudden onset of **severe scrotal pain** with associated **vomiting**, an **elevated testis**, **transverse lie**, and an **absent cremasteric reflex** are classic signs of testicular torsion.
- This condition is a surgical emergency requiring prompt diagnosis and intervention to prevent testicular ischemia and necrosis.
*Mumps orchitis*
- This typically occurs in post-pubertal males with a history of **mumps infection** and presents with testicular swelling and pain, but usually after the onset of parotitis.
- While it can cause pain and swelling, the **acute onset** and specific findings like absent cremasteric reflex and transverse lie are less characteristic.
*Spermatocele*
- A spermatocele is a **painless, fluid-filled cyst** originating from the epididymis, typically found on the superior aspect of the testis.
- It does not present with acute, severe pain, vomiting, or signs of testicular compromise.
*Epididymitis*
- Epididymitis commonly presents with **gradual onset** of scrotal pain, swelling, and tenderness, often associated with a urinary tract infection or sexually transmitted infection.
- The cremasteric reflex is typically **preserved**, and elevation of the testicle (Prehn's sign) may relieve pain.
*Germ cell tumor*
- Testicular tumors usually present as a **painless lump** or mass in the testis, though some may cause a dull ache or sensation of heaviness.
- Acute severe pain, vomiting, and findings like an absent cremasteric reflex are not typical presentations of a testicular tumor.
Question 75: An 18-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her coach, 30 minutes after injuring her left knee while playing field hockey. She was tackled from the left side and has been unable to bear weight on her left leg since the accident. She fears the left knee may be unstable upon standing. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. The patient appears uncomfortable. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a swollen and tender left knee; range of motion is limited by pain. The medial joint line is tender to touch. The patient's hip is slightly flexed and abducted, and the knee is slightly flexed while the patient is in the supine position. Gentle valgus stress is applied across the left knee and medial joint laxity is noted. The remainder of the examination shows no further abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medial meniscus injury
B. Posterior cruciate ligament injury
C. Anterior cruciate ligament injury
D. Lateral collateral ligament injury
E. Medial collateral ligament injury (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Medial collateral ligament injury***
- The patient experienced a **valgus stress** injury (tackled from the left, forcing the knee inward) and presents with **medial joint line tenderness** and **medial joint laxity** upon valgus stress, all highly indicative of a medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury.
- The MCL is a primary stabilizer against valgus forces, and its damage leads to instability and pain on the medial side of the knee.
*Medial meniscus injury*
- While a **meniscus injury** can cause swelling and pain, the primary finding of **medial joint laxity with valgus stress** points more directly to a ligamentous injury.
- Meniscus injuries are often associated with mechanical symptoms like **locking or catching**, which are not described here.
*Posterior cruciate ligament injury*
- A **posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury** typically results from a direct blow to the **anterior tibia** or hyperflexion, which is not consistent with the mechanism of injury described ("tackled from the left side").
- PCL injuries are tested with a **posterior drawer test** or Sag sign, not valgus stress.
*Anterior cruciate ligament injury*
- An **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury** usually occurs with a **twisting motion** or hyperextension, commonly associated with a "pop" sensation and rapid swelling due to hemarthrosis.
- While the patient is unable to bear weight, the specific findings of **medial joint line tenderness** and **valgus laxity** are not primary indicators of an ACL tear.
*Lateral collateral ligament injury*
- A **lateral collateral ligament (LCL) injury** results from a **varus stress** (force from the inside pushing the knee outward), which is opposite to the mechanism of injury described.
- LCL injuries would present with **lateral joint line tenderness** and laxity on varus stress.
Question 76: A 52-year-old obese man is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after he was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He was the unrestrained driver. On arrival, he is lethargic. His pulse is 112/min, respirations are 10/min and irregular, and blood pressure is 94/60 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 91%. The pupils are equal and react sluggishly to light. He withdraws his extremities to pain. There are multiple bruises over his face, chest, and abdomen. Breath sounds are decreased over the left lung base. Two large bore peripheral venous catheters are inserted and 0.9% saline infusion is begun. Rapid sequence intubation is initiated and endotracheal intubation is attempted without success. Bag and mask ventilation is continued. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 84%. The patient has no advance directive and family members have not arrived. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Nasotracheal intubation
B. Video laryngoscopy
C. Cricothyrotomy (Correct Answer)
D. Comfort measures only
E. Tracheostomy
Explanation: ***Cricothyrotomy***
- In a trauma patient with **failed endotracheal intubation** and declining oxygen saturation (from 91% to 84% despite bag-mask ventilation), an emergent cricothyrotomy is indicated for **immediate airway control**.
- This procedure provides a definitive airway in a **can't intubate/can't ventilate** scenario, preventing further hypoxia and potential brain damage.
*Nasotracheal intubation*
- **Nasotracheal intubation** is generally contraindicated in patients with suspected **facial or skull base fractures** due to the risk of intracranial intubation.
- Given the high-speed collision and facial bruises, such fractures are possible, making this a less safe option compared to cricothyrotomy.
*Video laryngoscopy*
- While **video laryngoscopy** can be helpful for difficult airways, it was already implied that intubation was attempted and failed, suggesting the issue might be with visualization or access, not just technique.
- Critically, the patient's oxygen saturation is dropping rapidly, requiring a quicker, more definitive solution than another attempt at orotracheal intubation.
*Comfort measures only*
- The patient has **no advance directive**, and family members have not arrived to make decisions regarding end-of-life care.
- Despite the severity of his injuries, the patient is still alive and does not have clear indications for **comfort measures only** at this stage; resuscitative efforts are warranted.
*Tracheostomy*
- **Tracheostomy** is a surgical procedure for establishing a long-term airway and is not suitable for **emergent airway management** in a rapidly decompensating trauma patient.
- It typically requires specialized surgical expertise and takes longer to perform than a cricothyrotomy, which is a faster, life-saving measure in this acute situation.
Question 77: A 63-year-old man is brought to the emergency department, 30 minutes after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He is obtunded on arrival. He is intubated and mechanical ventilation is begun. The ventilator is set at a FiO2 of 60%, tidal volume of 440 mL, and positive end-expiratory pressure of 4 cm H2O. On the third day of intubation, his temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 91/min, and blood pressure is 103/60 mm Hg. There are decreased breath sounds over the left lung base. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and not distended. Arterial blood gas analysis shows:
pH 7.49
pCO2 29 mm Hg
pO2 73 mm Hg
HCO3- 20 mEq/L
O2 saturation 89%
Monitoring shows a sudden increase in the plateau airway pressure. An x-ray of the chest shows deepening of the costophrenic angle on the left side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. CT scan of the chest
B. Administer levofloxacin
C. Close observation
D. Increase the PEEP
E. Insertion of a chest tube (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Insertion of a chest tube***
- The sudden increase in **plateau airway pressure**, decreased breath sounds over the left lung base, worsening hypoxemia (O2 sat 89%) despite high FiO2, and **deepening of the costophrenic angle on the left side** indicate a **traumatic hemothorax**.
- Deepening of the costophrenic angle on chest X-ray is a classic sign of **pleural fluid accumulation** (hemothorax or pleural effusion), not pneumothorax.
- In a trauma patient (high-speed motor vehicle collision) on day 3 of mechanical ventilation, this represents a **delayed hemothorax** requiring immediate drainage.
- **Chest tube insertion** is the definitive management to evacuate blood, re-expand the lung, and improve ventilation and oxygenation.
*CT scan of the chest*
- While CT scan would provide detailed anatomical information, the clinical presentation with sudden respiratory decompensation and clear chest X-ray findings of hemothorax requires **immediate intervention**.
- Delaying treatment to obtain CT imaging in an unstable ventilated patient could worsen hypoxemia and lead to cardiovascular compromise.
- CT scan may be obtained later if needed to evaluate for ongoing bleeding or other injuries.
*Administer levofloxacin*
- Antibiotics would be appropriate for **pneumonia or empyema**, but the patient has no clear signs of infection (afebrile at 37.3°C, acute presentation over hours not days).
- The primary problem is **mechanical compression** from pleural fluid accumulation, not infection.
- Antibiotics do not address the life-threatening respiratory compromise from hemothorax.
*Close observation*
- Close observation is inappropriate given the acute deterioration with increased plateau pressures and worsening hypoxemia.
- The patient requires urgent intervention to prevent further respiratory failure and potential cardiovascular collapse.
- Expectant management would be negligent in this clinical scenario.
*Increase the PEEP*
- Increasing **Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)** would worsen the situation by increasing intrathoracic pressure against an already compressed lung.
- Higher PEEP could impair venous return, decrease cardiac output, and potentially convert a simple hemothorax to a tension physiology.
- PEEP adjustments do not address the underlying problem of pleural space fluid accumulation requiring drainage.
Question 78: A 78-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she fell while gardening and experienced severe pain in her right arm. She has a history of well controlled hypertension and has been found to have osteoporosis. On presentation she is found to have a closed midshaft humerus fracture. No other major findings are discovered on a trauma survey. She is placed in a coaptation splint. The complication that is most associated with this injury has which of the following presentations?
A. Hand of benediction
B. Hypothenar atrophy
C. Flattened deltoid
D. Elbow flexion deficits
E. Wrist drop (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Wrist drop***
- A **midshaft humerus fracture** is classically associated with injury to the **radial nerve**, which wraps around the humerus at this level.
- **Radial nerve injury** causes paralysis of the extensors of the wrist and fingers, leading to a characteristic **wrist drop** presentation.
*Hand of benediction*
- This presentation, where the **index and middle fingers remain extended** while the ring and little fingers flex, is characteristic of a **proximal median nerve injury**.
- A midshaft humerus fracture is less likely to cause a proximal median nerve injury given the anatomical course of the nerve.
*Hypothenar atrophy*
- **Hypothenar atrophy** is indicative of **ulnar nerve damage**, usually at the cubital tunnel or Guyon's canal.
- While the ulnar nerve courses near the humerus, it is less commonly injured in midshaft fractures compared to the radial nerve.
*Flattened deltoid*
- A **flattened deltoid** is a sign of **axillary nerve injury** or shoulder dislocation, leading to paralysis of the deltoid muscle.
- The axillary nerve is more commonly injured in **proximal humerus fractures** or shoulder trauma, not typically midshaft fractures.
*Elbow flexion deficits*
- **Elbow flexion deficits** are primarily associated with injury to the **musculocutaneous nerve** or the C5/C6 nerve roots.
- While a severe humeral fracture could potentially affect these structures, it is not the most direct or common neurological complication of a midshaft fracture, which targets the radial nerve.
Question 79: A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency room after being in a motor vehicle accident. He was driving on an icy road when his car swerved off the road and ran head on into a tree. He complains of severe pain in his right lower extremity. He denies loss of consciousness during the accident. His past medical history is notable for poorly controlled hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and major depressive disorder. He takes enalapril, atorvastatin, and sertraline. His temperature is 99.1°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 155/85 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 20/min. On exam, he is alert and fully oriented. He is unable to move his right leg due to pain. Sensation is intact to light touch in the sural, saphenous, tibial, deep peroneal, and superficial peroneal distributions. His leg appears adducted, flexed, and internally rotated. An anteroposterior radiograph of his pelvis would most likely demonstrate which of the following findings?
A. Fracture line extending between the greater and lesser trochanters
B. Femoral head larger than contralateral side and inferior to acetabulum
C. Fracture line extending through the femoral neck
D. Fracture line extending through the subtrochanteric region of the femur
E. Femoral head smaller than contralateral side and posterior to acetabulum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Femoral head smaller than contralateral side and posterior to acetabulum***
- This presentation is consistent with a **posterior hip dislocation**, which typically occurs with an **axial load** on a flexed hip, common in head-on collisions.
- On radiographs, the femoral head appears **smaller** due to magnification differences and is displaced **posteriorly** relative to the acetabulum. The affected leg is classically **shortened, adducted, and internally rotated**.
*Fracture line extending between the greater and lesser trochanters*
- This describes an **intertrochanteric hip fracture**, which typically presents with the leg **externally rotated** and **abducted**, not internally rotated and adducted.
- While caused by trauma, the clinical presentation does not align with the patient's physical exam findings.
*Femoral head larger than contralateral side and inferior to acetabulum*
- This describes an **anterior hip dislocation**, which is far less common and would present with the leg typically held in **abduction** and **external rotation**. The femoral head would also appear **larger** due to magnification from being anteriorly displaced.
- The patient's presentation of adduction and internal rotation is inconsistent with an anterior dislocation.
*Fracture line extending through the femoral neck*
- A **femoral neck fracture** usually presents with the leg in **external rotation** and **shortening**, and often involves older patients with osteoporosis after falls.
- While a severe impact could cause this, the characteristic adduction and internal rotation point more strongly to a dislocation.
*Fracture line extending through the subtrochanteric region of the femur*
- A **subtrochanteric fracture** involves the shaft of the femur just below the trochanters and commonly presents with significant pain and inability to bear weight.
- This type of fracture does not typically result in the specific adducted and internally rotated leg position seen with hip dislocations.
Question 80: A 34-year-old Ethiopian woman who recently moved to the United States presents for evaluation to a surgical outpatient clinic with painful ulceration in her right breast for the last 2 months. She is worried because the ulcer is increasing in size. On further questioning, she says that she also has a discharge from her right nipple. She had her 2nd child 4 months ago and was breastfeeding the baby until the pain started getting worse in the past few weeks, and is now unbearable. According to her health records from Africa, her physician prescribed antimicrobials multiple times with a diagnosis of mastitis, but she did not improve significantly. Her mother and aunt died of breast cancer at 60 and 58 years of age, respectively. On examination, the right breast is enlarged and firm, with thickened skin, diffuse erythema, edema, and an ulcer measuring 3 × 3 cm. White-gray nipple discharge is present. The breast is tender with axillary and cervical adenopathy. Mammography is ordered, which shows a mass with a large area of calcifications, parenchymal distortion, and extensive soft tissue and trabecular thickening in the affected breast. The patient subsequently undergoes core-needle and full-thickness skin punch biospies. The pathology report states a clear dermal lymphatic invasion by tumor cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
B. Infiltrating lobular carcinoma
C. Inflammatory breast cancer (Correct Answer)
D. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
E. Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
Explanation: ***Inflammatory breast cancer***
- The rapid onset of **diffuse erythema**, **edema** (peau d'orange appearance due to lymphatic involvement), **skin thickening**, ulceration, and the palpable **axillary and cervical adenopathy** are classic signs of inflammatory breast cancer.
- The mammographic findings of **parenchymal distortion**, extensive soft tissue, **trabecular thickening**, and especially the **dermal lymphatic invasion** by tumor cells on biopsy confirm this aggressive diagnosis.
*Infiltrating ductal carcinoma*
- While **infiltrating ductal carcinoma** is the most common type of breast cancer, it typically presents as a **palpable mass** or an abnormal mammogram finding without the prominent inflammatory signs seen here.
- It usually does not involve such widespread **dermal lymphatic invasion** and rapid progression with skin changes, unless it is a specific variant with inflammatory features.
*Infiltrating lobular carcinoma*
- This type of carcinoma often grows in a **diffuse pattern** and may not form a distinct mass, sometimes making it difficult to detect by mammography.
- However, it rarely presents with the prominent **inflammatory signs** (erythema, edema, skin thickening) and ulceration indicative of extensive dermal lymphatic involvement as described.
*Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)*
- **DCIS** is a non-invasive form of breast cancer confined to the breast ducts, meaning it has not spread beyond the ductal basement membrane.
- It typically presents as **microcalcifications** on mammography and does not exhibit a rapidly progressing **painful ulceration**, **skin changes**, or **lymph node involvement**.
*Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)*
- **LCIS** is a non-invasive condition that increases the risk of developing invasive breast cancer in either breast.
- It is an **incidental finding** on biopsy for another reason, does **not form a mass**, and does not cause the **clinical signs of inflammation**, skin changes, or ulceration.