A 40-year-old man presents with a painless firm mass in the right breast. Examination shows retraction of the nipple and the skin is fixed to the underlying mass. The axillary nodes are palpable. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the above condition?
Q52
A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department by ambulance after being involved in a fight. On arrival, there is obvious trauma to his face and neck, and his mouth is full of blood. Seconds after suctioning the blood, his mouth rapidly fills up with blood again. As a result, he is unable to speak to you. An attempt at direct laryngoscopy fails as a result of his injuries. His vital signs are pulse 102/min, blood pressure 110/75 mmHg, and O2 saturation 97%. Which of the following is indicated at this time?
Q53
A 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of right wrist pain after a fall from a ladder. Physical examination shows decreased grip strength and tenderness between the tendons of extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. X-ray of the right wrist shows no abnormalities. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
Q54
A 17-year-old male presents to your office with right knee pain. He is the quarterback of his high school football team and developed the knee pain after being tackled in last night's game. He states he was running with the ball and was hit on the lateral aspect of his right knee while his right foot was planted. Now, he is tender to palpation over the medial knee and unable to bear full weight on the right lower extremity. A joint effusion is present and arthrocentesis yields 50 cc's of clear fluid. Which of the following exam maneuvers is most likely to demonstrate ligamentous laxity?
Q55
A previously healthy 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 15 minutes after sustaining an injury to his right hand. His mother says that she was cleaning the bathroom when he accidentally knocked over the drain cleaner bottle and spilled the liquid onto his hand. On arrival, he is crying and holding his right hand in a flexed position. His temperature is 37.7°C (99.8°F), pulse is 105/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg. Examination of the right hand shows a 4 x 4 cm area of reddened, blistered skin. The area is very tender to light touch. His ability to flex and extend the right hand are diminished. Radial pulses are palpable. Capillary refill time is less than 3 seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q56
A 47-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his wife. She states that they were having dinner at a restaurant when the patient suddenly became out of breath. His past medical history is irrelevant but has a 20-year pack smoking history. On evaluation, the patient is alert and verbally responsive but in moderate respiratory distress. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 85/56 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 20/min. His oxygen saturation is 88% on 2L nasal cannula. An oropharyngeal examination is unremarkable. The trachea is deviated to the left. Cardiopulmonary examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right lower lung field with nondistended neck veins. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q57
A 60-year-old man presents with pain, swelling, and a purulent discharge from his left foot. He says that the symptoms began 7 days ago with mild pain and swelling on the medial side of his left foot, but have progressively worsened. He states that there has been a foul-smelling discharge for the past 2 days. The medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus that was diagnosed 10 years ago and is poorly managed, and refractory peripheral artery disease that failed revascularization 6 months ago. The current medications include aspirin (81 mg orally daily) and metformin (500 mg orally twice daily). He has a 20-pack-year smoking history but quit 6 months ago. The family history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus in both parents and his father died of a myocardial infarction at 50 years of age. His temperature is 38.9°C (102°F); blood pressure 90/65 mm Hg; pulse 102/min; respiratory rate 22/min; and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. On physical examination, he appears ill and diaphoretic. The skin is flushed and moist. There is 2+ pitting edema of the left foot with blistering and black discoloration (see picture). The lower legs are hairless and the lower extremity peripheral pulses are 1+ bilaterally. Laboratory tests are pending. Blood cultures are positive for Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following findings is the strongest indication for amputation of the left lower extremity in this patient?
Q58
A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a skiing accident. The patient had been skiing down the mountain when he collided with another skier who had stopped suddenly in front of him. He is alert but complaining of pain in his chest and abdomen. He has a past medical history of intravenous drug use and peptic ulcer disease. He is a current smoker. His temperature is 97.4°F (36.3°C), blood pressure is 77/53 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, and respirations are 13/min. He has a GCS of 15 and bilateral shallow breath sounds. His abdomen is soft and distended with bruising over the epigastrium. He is moving all four extremities and has scattered lacerations on his face. His skin is cool and delayed capillary refill is present. Two large-bore IVs are placed in his antecubital fossa, and he is given 2L of normal saline. His FAST exam reveals fluid in Morison's pouch. Following the 2L normal saline, his temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 97/62 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 12/min.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q59
A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of severe pain in his left shoulder for several days. He did not fall or injure his shoulder. He has a history of osteoarthritis of both knees that is well-controlled with indomethacin. He spends most of his time at a retirement facility and does not do any sports. There is no family history of serious illness. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows tenderness of the greater tuberosity of the left humerus. There is no swelling or erythema. The patient is unable to slowly adduct his arm after it is passively abducted to 90 degrees. External rotation is limited by pain. Subacromial injection of lidocaine does not relieve his symptoms. An x-ray of the left shoulder shows sclerosis of the acromion and humeral head. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q60
A 34-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident in which he sustained blunt abdominal trauma. On admission, he is conscious, has a GCS score of 15, and has normal ventilation with no signs of airway obstruction. Vitals initially are blood pressure 95/65 mmHg, heart rate 87/min, respiratory rate 14/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. The physical exam is significant only for tenderness to palpation over the left flank. Noncontrast CT of the abdomen shows fractures of the 9th and 10th left ribs. Intravenous fluids are administered and the patient's blood pressure increases to 110/80 mm Hg. Three days later after admission, the patient suddenly complains of weakness and left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. Vitals are blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg, heart rate 97/min, respiratory rate 18/min, temperature 36.2℃ (97.2℉) and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Prompt administration of 2L of IV fluids increases the blood pressure to 100/70 mm Hg. On physical exam, there is dullness to percussion and rebound tenderness with guarding in the LUQ. Bowel sounds are present. Raising the patient's left leg results in pain in his left shoulder. Stat hemoglobin level is 9.8 g/dL. Which of the following findings would be most likely seen if a CT scan were performed now?
Trauma/Emergencies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A 40-year-old man presents with a painless firm mass in the right breast. Examination shows retraction of the nipple and the skin is fixed to the underlying mass. The axillary nodes are palpable. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the above condition?
A. Lobular cancer is the most common breast cancer in males (Correct Answer)
B. BRCA2 mutations are associated with increased risk
C. These are positive for estrogen receptor
D. Endocrine therapy plays an important role in treatment
E. Gynecomastia may be caused by certain medications
Explanation: ***Lobular cancer is the most common breast cancer in males***
- This statement is **FALSE** and is the correct answer. The most common type of breast cancer in males is **invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)**, accounting for about 80-90% of cases.
- **Invasive lobular carcinoma** is rare in men because men have very few lobules in their breast tissue.
*Gynecomastia may be caused by certain medications*
- This statement is **TRUE**. Medications such as spironolactone, cimetidine, finasteride, antipsychotics, and anabolic steroids can cause gynecomastia.
- However, the clinical presentation described (firm mass, nipple retraction, skin fixation, axillary nodes) is consistent with **malignancy**, not gynecomastia.
*BRCA2 mutations are associated with increased risk*
- This statement is **TRUE**. Male breast cancer is strongly associated with **BRCA2 mutations** (and less commonly BRCA1), which are hereditary.
- Men with BRCA2 mutations have a 5-10% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer, compared to less than 0.1% in the general male population.
*These are positive for estrogen receptor*
- This statement is **TRUE**. A vast majority (over 90%) of male breast cancers are **estrogen receptor (ER) positive**, which makes them responsive to endocrine therapy.
- This high rate of ER positivity is even greater than in female breast cancers.
*Endocrine therapy plays an important role in treatment*
- This statement is **TRUE**. Given the high prevalence of ER positivity (over 90%), endocrine therapy such as **tamoxifen** or aromatase inhibitors is a cornerstone of treatment for male breast cancer.
- Endocrine therapy is used in both adjuvant and metastatic settings for hormone receptor-positive disease.
Question 52: A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department by ambulance after being involved in a fight. On arrival, there is obvious trauma to his face and neck, and his mouth is full of blood. Seconds after suctioning the blood, his mouth rapidly fills up with blood again. As a result, he is unable to speak to you. An attempt at direct laryngoscopy fails as a result of his injuries. His vital signs are pulse 102/min, blood pressure 110/75 mmHg, and O2 saturation 97%. Which of the following is indicated at this time?
A. Cricothyroidotomy (Correct Answer)
B. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
C. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
D. Nasogastric tube
E. Endotracheal intubation
Explanation: ***Cricothyroidotomy***
- The patient has an actively bleeding airway that cannot be managed with suction, and **endotracheal intubation** failed, indicating a need for an **emergency surgical airway**.
- **Cricothyroidotomy** is the most rapid and effective method to establish a definitive airway in such a circumstance, bypassing the upper airway obstruction caused by blood and trauma.
*Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)*
- **CPAP** provides positive pressure ventilation and is used for respiratory support in conditions like **sleep apnea** or **congestive heart failure**, not for airway obstruction due to trauma and bleeding.
- It would not address the actively bleeding airway or the inability to ventilate, and could potentially worsen the situation by pushing blood further into the lungs.
*Cardiopulmonary resuscitation*
- **CPR** is indicated for **cardiac arrest** or profound bradypnea/apnea, which is not the primary issue here, as the patient still has a pulse and blood pressure.
- While the patient's airway is compromised, his vital signs do not indicate the need for chest compressions or rescue breaths as the initial intervention.
*Nasogastric tube*
- A **nasogastric tube** is used for **gastric decompression** or **enteral feeding**, and it does not play a role in securing an airway in an emergency situation.
- Attempting to place an NG tube would divert critical time and resources away from establishing a patent airway.
*Endotracheal intubation*
- **Endotracheal intubation** was already attempted and **failed** due to the patient's severe facial and neck trauma, and the continuous bleeding.
- This option is therefore not viable, and a surgical airway is required as the next step.
Question 53: A 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of right wrist pain after a fall from a ladder. Physical examination shows decreased grip strength and tenderness between the tendons of extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. X-ray of the right wrist shows no abnormalities. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
A. Hypesthesia of the hypothenar eminence
B. Paralysis of the abductor pollicis brevis muscle
C. Contracture of the palmar aponeurosis
D. Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid bone (Correct Answer)
E. Osteoarthritis of the radiocarpal joint
Explanation: ***Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid bone***
- The patient's symptoms (wrist pain after a fall, decreased grip strength, and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox—between the **extensor pollicis longus** and **extensor pollicis brevis** tendons) are classic for a **scaphoid fracture**.
- X-rays may initially be normal, and the **scaphoid's tenuous blood supply**, primarily from its distal pole, makes its proximal pole particularly vulnerable to **avascular necrosis** following a fracture.
*Hypesthesia of the hypothenar eminence*
- This symptom is related to injury to the **ulnar nerve**, which typically affects the little finger and ulnar half of the ring finger, as well as the hypothenar eminence.
- A scaphoid fracture does not directly impact the **ulnar nerve** distribution in this manner.
*Paralysis of the abductor pollicis brevis muscle*
- The **abductor pollicis brevis** muscle is innervated by the **median nerve**.
- Injury to the median nerve would be required for its paralysis, which is not directly associated with a scaphoid fracture.
*Contracture of the palmar aponeurosis*
- This condition is known as **Dupuytren's contracture**, a painless progressive fibrosis of the **palmar aponeurosis**.
- It results in flexion deformities of the digits and is not caused by acute trauma like a fall, nor is it a complication of a scaphoid fracture.
*Osteoarthritis of the radiocarpal joint*
- While wrist trauma can predispose to **osteoarthritis** in the long term, it typically develops over many years.
- Avascular necrosis is a more immediate and severe complication following a **scaphoid fracture**, and is a distinct pathology from general osteoarthritis of the radiocarpal joint.
Question 54: A 17-year-old male presents to your office with right knee pain. He is the quarterback of his high school football team and developed the knee pain after being tackled in last night's game. He states he was running with the ball and was hit on the lateral aspect of his right knee while his right foot was planted. Now, he is tender to palpation over the medial knee and unable to bear full weight on the right lower extremity. A joint effusion is present and arthrocentesis yields 50 cc's of clear fluid. Which of the following exam maneuvers is most likely to demonstrate ligamentous laxity?
A. Pivot shift test
B. Varus stress test
C. Anterior drawer test
D. Valgus stress test (Correct Answer)
E. Lachman's test
Explanation: ***Valgus stress test***
- The patient's presentation with a lateral blow to the knee while the foot was planted, tenderness over the **medial knee**, and an effusion strongly suggests an injury to the **medial collateral ligament (MCL)**.
- The **valgus stress test** assesses the integrity of the MCL by applying an outward (valgus) force to the knee, checking for excessive gapping on the medial side.
*Pivot shift test*
- The **pivot shift test** primarily assesses for **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)** instability, particularly rotational laxity of the tibia on the femur.
- While an ACL injury is possible with this mechanism, the specific tenderness to palpation medially points more directly to an MCL injury.
*Varus stress test*
- The **varus stress test** evaluates the integrity of the **lateral collateral ligament (LCL)** by applying an inward (varus) force to the knee.
- This patient's mechanism of injury (lateral blow) and medial tenderness are inconsistent with an isolated LCL injury.
*Anterior drawer test*
- The **anterior drawer test** assesses the integrity of the **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)** by pulling the tibia forward on the femur.
- While ACL injury is a concern with knee trauma, the focal tenderness on the medial side is not directly evaluated by this test.
*Lachman's test*
- **Lachman's test** is considered the most reliable clinical test for evaluating the integrity of the **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)**, even in the acute setting with an effusion.
- However, the primary findings of medial tenderness after a lateral blow specifically point to an MCL injury, which is best assessed by the valgus stress test.
Question 55: A previously healthy 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 15 minutes after sustaining an injury to his right hand. His mother says that she was cleaning the bathroom when he accidentally knocked over the drain cleaner bottle and spilled the liquid onto his hand. On arrival, he is crying and holding his right hand in a flexed position. His temperature is 37.7°C (99.8°F), pulse is 105/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg. Examination of the right hand shows a 4 x 4 cm area of reddened, blistered skin. The area is very tender to light touch. His ability to flex and extend the right hand are diminished. Radial pulses are palpable. Capillary refill time is less than 3 seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Irrigate with water (Correct Answer)
B. Apply split-thickness skin graft
C. Apply silver sulfadiazine
D. Apply mineral oil
E. Perform escharotomy
Explanation: ***Irrigate with water***
- The immediate and most crucial step for a **chemical burn** is copious **irrigation with water** to remove the offending agent and prevent further tissue damage.
- This action minimizes the duration of contact between the **corrosive substance** and the skin, halting the chemical reaction.
*Apply split-thickness skin graft*
- A **skin graft** is a surgical procedure typically reserved for **deep burns** and is not the immediate first step for chemical exposure.
- It would be considered later in management if the burn resulted in **full-thickness tissue loss** and incomplete wound healing.
*Apply silver sulfadiazine*
- **Silver sulfadiazine** is an antimicrobial cream used to prevent infection in **thermal burns** after initial wound care.
- It is not indicated as the first line of treatment for a **chemical burn** and would not remove the chemical agent from the skin.
*Apply mineral oil*
- Applying **mineral oil** is not the appropriate initial treatment for a **chemical burn** and could potentially trap the chemical, worsening the injury.
- The priority is to dilute and remove the chemical, which mineral oil cannot do effectively.
*Perform escharotomy*
- An **escharotomy** is a surgical incision through burn eschar used to relieve pressure in **circumferential full-thickness burns** that compromise circulation.
- This procedure is not indicated as the initial management for a **chemical burn** and is only considered for severe, deep burns with vascular compromise.
Question 56: A 47-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his wife. She states that they were having dinner at a restaurant when the patient suddenly became out of breath. His past medical history is irrelevant but has a 20-year pack smoking history. On evaluation, the patient is alert and verbally responsive but in moderate respiratory distress. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 85/56 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 20/min. His oxygen saturation is 88% on 2L nasal cannula. An oropharyngeal examination is unremarkable. The trachea is deviated to the left. Cardiopulmonary examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right lower lung field with nondistended neck veins. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Urgent needle decompression (Correct Answer)
B. D-dimer levels
C. Nebulization with albuterol
D. Chest X-ray
E. Heimlich maneuver
Explanation: ***Urgent needle decompression***
- The patient presents with sudden onset **respiratory distress**, **tracheal deviation** to the left (away from the affected right side), **decreased breath sounds** on the right, and **hypotension** with **tachycardia**. These are classic signs of a **tension pneumothorax**, which requires immediate needle decompression.
- This is a life-threatening emergency where air accumulates in the pleural space under positive pressure, collapsing the lung and shifting mediastinal structures, compromising venous return to the heart.
*D-dimer levels*
- While helpful in the workup for pulmonary embolism, **D-dimer levels** are not relevant as the immediate next step for a patient in acute respiratory distress with clear signs of tracheal deviation and decreased breath sounds, which points toward a mechanical lung issue.
- The patient's presentation with acute, severe respiratory symptoms and hemodynamic instability mandates immediate life-saving intervention.
*Nebulization with albuterol*
- **Albuterol** is used for bronchospasm, as seen in asthma or COPD exacerbations. This patient's symptoms are sudden and severe, with clear signs of a **tension pneumothorax**, which would not respond to bronchodilators.
- There is no indication of wheezing or a history of reactive airway disease to suggest this as a primary treatment.
*Chest X-ray*
- A **chest X-ray** would confirm the diagnosis of tension pneumothorax. However, given the patient's severe respiratory distress, hypotension, and classic physical findings (tracheal deviation, absent breath sounds), performing an X-ray would delay life-saving intervention.
- In a true tension pneumothorax, diagnosis is clinical, and immediate intervention takes precedence over imaging.
*Heimlich maneuver*
- The **Heimlich maneuver** is indicated for foreign body airway obstruction. The patient is verbally responsive, which indicates a patent airway, and there are no direct signs of choking on food.
- Although the patient was having dinner, the distinct clinical signs of **tracheal deviation** and unilateral decreased breath sounds do not support an airway obstruction requiring the Heimlich maneuver.
Question 57: A 60-year-old man presents with pain, swelling, and a purulent discharge from his left foot. He says that the symptoms began 7 days ago with mild pain and swelling on the medial side of his left foot, but have progressively worsened. He states that there has been a foul-smelling discharge for the past 2 days. The medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus that was diagnosed 10 years ago and is poorly managed, and refractory peripheral artery disease that failed revascularization 6 months ago. The current medications include aspirin (81 mg orally daily) and metformin (500 mg orally twice daily). He has a 20-pack-year smoking history but quit 6 months ago. The family history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus in both parents and his father died of a myocardial infarction at 50 years of age. His temperature is 38.9°C (102°F); blood pressure 90/65 mm Hg; pulse 102/min; respiratory rate 22/min; and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. On physical examination, he appears ill and diaphoretic. The skin is flushed and moist. There is 2+ pitting edema of the left foot with blistering and black discoloration (see picture). The lower legs are hairless and the lower extremity peripheral pulses are 1+ bilaterally. Laboratory tests are pending. Blood cultures are positive for Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following findings is the strongest indication for amputation of the left lower extremity in this patient?
A. Presence of wet gangrene (Correct Answer)
B. Positive blood cultures
C. Diminished peripheral pulses
D. Poorly managed blood glucose
E. Smoking history
Explanation: ***Presence of wet gangrene***
- The presence of **wet gangrene**, evidenced by black discoloration, blistering, and purulent discharge, indicates widespread tissue necrosis and severe infection.
- Wet gangrene progresses rapidly and is associated with a high risk of **sepsis** and mortality, often necessitating amputation to save the patient's life.
*Positive blood cultures*
- While positive blood cultures for **Staphylococcus aureus** indicate a serious infection, they do not, by themselves, directly necessitate amputation.
- They guide antibiotic therapy but do not confirm the extent of tissue damage (e.g., gangrene) that mandates amputation.
*Diminished peripheral pulses*
- **Diminished peripheral pulses** (1+ bilaterally) suggest peripheral artery disease, which contributes to poor wound healing and infection risk.
- However, poor circulation alone is not an immediate indication for amputation; the presence of irreversible tissue death (gangrene) is the critical factor.
*Poorly managed blood glucose*
- **Poorly managed diabetes** is a significant risk factor for peripheral neuropathy, impaired immunity, and vascular disease, predisposing to foot infections.
- While it contributes to the overall severity and complexity of the patient's condition, it is not an acute indication for amputation.
*Smoking history*
- A **20-pack-year smoking history** contributes to vascular disease and impaired wound healing, increasing the risk for foot complications.
- This is a long-term risk factor and contributor to the patient's overall health status, but not an immediate surgical indication for amputation itself.
Question 58: A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a skiing accident. The patient had been skiing down the mountain when he collided with another skier who had stopped suddenly in front of him. He is alert but complaining of pain in his chest and abdomen. He has a past medical history of intravenous drug use and peptic ulcer disease. He is a current smoker. His temperature is 97.4°F (36.3°C), blood pressure is 77/53 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, and respirations are 13/min. He has a GCS of 15 and bilateral shallow breath sounds. His abdomen is soft and distended with bruising over the epigastrium. He is moving all four extremities and has scattered lacerations on his face. His skin is cool and delayed capillary refill is present. Two large-bore IVs are placed in his antecubital fossa, and he is given 2L of normal saline. His FAST exam reveals fluid in Morison's pouch. Following the 2L normal saline, his temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 97/62 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 12/min.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
B. Emergency laparotomy (Correct Answer)
C. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
D. Close observation
E. Diagnostic laparoscopy
Explanation: ***Emergency laparotomy***
- The patient remains **hemodynamically unstable** (BP 97/62 mmHg, HR 115/min after 2L IV fluids) with evidence of **intra-abdominal fluid on FAST exam** (fluid in Morison's pouch).
- This clinical picture indicates active intra-abdominal hemorrhage requiring **immediate surgical intervention** to identify and control the source of bleeding.
*Diagnostic peritoneal lavage*
- **Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)** has largely been replaced by the focused abdominal sonography for trauma (FAST) exam and CT scans.
- While it can detect intra-abdominal bleeding, it is **invasive** and would delay definitive treatment in a hemodynamically unstable patient with positive FAST.
*Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy*
- This procedure is primarily for diagnosing and treating **upper gastrointestinal bleeding** or mucosal abnormalities.
- It is **not indicated** for evaluating traumatic intra-abdominal hemorrhage or hemodynamic instability following blunt abdominal trauma.
*Close observation*
- Close observation is appropriate for **hemodynamically stable patients** with blunt abdominal trauma and minor injuries or equivocal findings.
- This patient's persistent hypotension, tachycardia, and positive FAST findings rule out observation as a safe or appropriate next step.
*Diagnostic laparoscopy*
- **Diagnostic laparoscopy** is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to evaluate the abdominal cavity.
- While it can be diagnostic, it is generally **contraindicated in hemodynamically unstable patients** as it can prolong the time to definitive hemorrhage control if a major injury is found.
Question 59: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of severe pain in his left shoulder for several days. He did not fall or injure his shoulder. He has a history of osteoarthritis of both knees that is well-controlled with indomethacin. He spends most of his time at a retirement facility and does not do any sports. There is no family history of serious illness. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows tenderness of the greater tuberosity of the left humerus. There is no swelling or erythema. The patient is unable to slowly adduct his arm after it is passively abducted to 90 degrees. External rotation is limited by pain. Subacromial injection of lidocaine does not relieve his symptoms. An x-ray of the left shoulder shows sclerosis of the acromion and humeral head. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. CT scan of the shoulder
B. Reassurance
C. Surgical fixation
D. Biopsy of the humerus
E. Musculoskeletal ultrasound (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Musculoskeletal ultrasound***
- The patient's symptoms (pain, inability to adduct arm after passive abduction to 90° - **positive drop arm sign**, limited external rotation, tenderness of the **greater tuberosity**) are highly suggestive of a **rotator cuff tear**.
- **Ultrasound** is a validated imaging modality for assessing soft tissue structures like tendons and can readily identify rotator cuff tears with high sensitivity and specificity.
- While **MRI is considered the gold standard** for rotator cuff evaluation, ultrasound is a reasonable initial imaging choice when available, especially given the failed diagnostic lidocaine injection pointing to structural pathology.
- Ultrasound can demonstrate the presence, size, and location of rotator cuff tears and guide further management decisions.
*CT scan of the shoulder*
- A **CT scan** is primarily used for evaluating **bony structures** and complex fractures, which are not the primary concern here given the symptoms pointing to soft tissue injury.
- While it can indirectly show rotator cuff pathology through secondary signs, it is **less sensitive** than ultrasound or MRI for direct visualization of tendon tears.
- The x-ray findings (sclerosis) already provide adequate bony detail for this clinical scenario.
*Reassurance*
- Given the severe, persistent pain, functional deficit (inability to adduct - **positive drop arm sign**), and specific physical exam findings, **reassurance alone** is inappropriate and would delay necessary diagnosis and intervention.
- The patient clearly has a significant underlying shoulder pathology requiring further investigation and likely treatment.
*Surgical fixation*
- **Surgical fixation** is a treatment, not a diagnostic step. It would only be considered after a definitive diagnosis, such as a severe rotator cuff tear, has been made with imaging confirmation.
- The immediate next step should be diagnostic imaging to confirm the nature, extent, and characteristics of the suspected injury.
*Biopsy of the humerus*
- A **biopsy of the humerus** would be indicated if there was suspicion of a bony tumor or infection, which is not suggested by the patient's presentation.
- The x-ray findings (sclerosis of acromion and humeral head) are consistent with chronic degenerative changes or impingement syndrome, not neoplastic or infectious processes.
- The clinical picture clearly points to a **soft tissue injury** rather than primary bone pathology requiring biopsy.
Question 60: A 34-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident in which he sustained blunt abdominal trauma. On admission, he is conscious, has a GCS score of 15, and has normal ventilation with no signs of airway obstruction. Vitals initially are blood pressure 95/65 mmHg, heart rate 87/min, respiratory rate 14/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. The physical exam is significant only for tenderness to palpation over the left flank. Noncontrast CT of the abdomen shows fractures of the 9th and 10th left ribs. Intravenous fluids are administered and the patient's blood pressure increases to 110/80 mm Hg. Three days later after admission, the patient suddenly complains of weakness and left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. Vitals are blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg, heart rate 97/min, respiratory rate 18/min, temperature 36.2℃ (97.2℉) and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Prompt administration of 2L of IV fluids increases the blood pressure to 100/70 mm Hg. On physical exam, there is dullness to percussion and rebound tenderness with guarding in the LUQ. Bowel sounds are present. Raising the patient's left leg results in pain in his left shoulder. Stat hemoglobin level is 9.8 g/dL. Which of the following findings would be most likely seen if a CT scan were performed now?
A. Subdiaphragmatic air collection
B. Low-density areas within the splenic parenchyma (Correct Answer)
C. Heterogeneous parenchymal enhancement of the pancreatic tail
D. Herniation of the stomach into the thoracic cavity
E. Irregular linear areas of hypoattenuation in the liver parenchyma
Explanation: **Low-density areas within the splenic parenchyma**
- The patient's history of trauma, initial left rib fractures, LUQ pain, and **Kehr's sign** (left shoulder pain from diaphragmatic irritation), followed by sudden decompensation and anemia, are highly indicative of **delayed splenic rupture**.
- On CT scan, **low-density areas** (fluid collections or hematomas) within the splenic parenchyma or around the spleen are characteristic findings of splenic injury and rupture, including intraparenchymal hematomas or subcapsular hematomas.
*Subdiaphragmatic air collection*
- This finding suggests a **perforated viscus**, such as the stomach or intestine, allowing air to escape into the peritoneal cavity.
- While blunt trauma can cause hollow organ injury, the patient's symptoms (Kehr's sign, LUQ pain, initial rib fractures) and the delayed presentation of hypovolemic shock are more consistent with splenic rupture than perforation.
*Heterogeneous parenchymal enhancement of the pancreatic tail*
- This symptom is indicative of **pancreatic injury**, which can occur with blunt abdominal trauma, especially with rapid deceleration.
- However, the patient's presentation, particularly the prominent Kehr's sign and the context of left rib fractures, points more strongly towards splenic involvement rather than primary pancreatic injury.
*Herniation of the stomach into the thoracic cavity*
- This describes a **diaphragmatic rupture**, which can occur in severe blunt trauma and lead to gastric herniation.
- While possible with severe trauma, the immediate presentation of **Kehr's sign** and the progressive symptoms are more characteristic of splenic rupture than an acute diaphragmatic hernia with gastric displacement.
*Irregular linear areas of hypoattenuation in the liver parenchyma*
- These findings suggest **hepatic lacerations** or hematomas, indicating liver injury.
- Although liver injury is a common finding in blunt abdominal trauma, the patient's specific presentation of **left-sided pain**, **left shoulder pain**, and left rib fractures points preferentially to **splenic injury** rather than liver injury.