A 23-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient was an unrestrained driver involved in a head-on collision. The patient is heavily intoxicated on what he claims is only alcohol. An initial trauma assessment is performed, and is notable for significant bruising of the right forearm. The patient is in the trauma bay, and complains of severe pain in his right forearm. A physical exam is performed and is notable for pallor, decreased sensation, and cool temperature of the skin of the right forearm. Pain is elicited upon passive movement of the right forearm and digits. A thready radial pulse is palpable. A FAST exam is performed, and is negative for signs of internal bleeding. The patient's temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 100/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Radiography of the right forearm is ordered. The patient is still heavily intoxicated. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q122
A 3-year-old boy is brought to a respiratory specialist. The family physician referred the child because of recurrent respiratory infections over the past 2 years. Chest X-rays showed a lesion of < 2 cm that includes glands and cysts in the upper lobe of the right lung. Diseases affecting the immune system were investigated and ruled out. No family history of any pulmonary disease or congenital malformations exists. He was born at full term via a normal vaginal delivery with an APGAR score of 10. Which of the following should be highly considered for effective management of this child’s condition?
Q123
A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for the evaluation of mild retrosternal pain for the last 7 hours after several episodes of self-induced vomiting. The patient was diagnosed with bulimia nervosa 9 months ago. Her only medication is citalopram. She is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 62 kg (136.6 lb); BMI is 21.5 kg/m2. She appears pale. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examinations shows no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no organomegaly. The remainder of the physical examination shows swelling of the salivary glands, dry skin, and brittle nails. An ECG and an x-ray of the chest show no abnormalities. Contrast esophagram with gastrografin shows mild leakage of contrast from the lower esophagus into the mediastinum without contrast extravasation into the pleural and peritoneal cavities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management?
Q124
A 41-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room after being struck in the abdomen by a large cement plate while transporting it. On initial assessment by paramedics at the scene, his blood pressure was 110/80 mm Hg, heart rate 85/min, with no signs of respiratory distress. On admission, the patient is alert but in distress. He complains of severe, diffuse, abdominal pain and severe weakness. Vital signs are now: blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg, heart rate 96/min, respiratory rate 19/min, temperature 37.4℃ (99.3℉), and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. His lungs are clear on auscultation. The cardiac exam is significant for a narrow pulse pressure. Abdominal examination reveals a large bruise over the epigastric and periumbilical regions. The abdomen is distended and there is diffuse tenderness to palpation with rebound and guarding, worst in the epigastric region. There is hyperresonance to percussion in the epigastric region and absence of hepatic dullness in the right upper quadrant. Aspiration of the nasogastric tube reveals bloody contents. Focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) shows free fluid in the pelvic region. Evaluation of the perisplenic and perihepatic regions is impossible due to the presence of free air. Aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation is administered but fails to improve upon the patient’s hemodynamics. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q125
A 22-year-old soldier sustains a gunshot wound to the left side of the chest during a deployment in Syria. The soldier and her unit take cover from gunfire in a nearby farmhouse, and a combat medic conducts a primary survey of her injuries. She is breathing spontaneously. Two minutes after sustaining the injury, she develops severe respiratory distress. On examination, she is agitated and tachypneic. There is an entrance wound at the midclavicular line at the 2nd rib and an exit wound at the left axillary line at the 4th rib. There is crepitus on the left side of the chest wall. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q126
A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency department for severe, acute right leg pain. The patient's symptoms began suddenly 4 hours ago, while he was reading the newspaper. He has poorly-controlled hypertension and osteoarthritis. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 31 years. Current medications include lisinopril, metoprolol succinate, and ibuprofen. He appears to be in severe pain and is clutching his right leg. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 102/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 152/94 mm Hg. The right leg is cool to the touch, with decreased femoral, popliteal, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses. There is moderate weakness and decreased sensation in the right leg. An ECG shows absent P waves and a variable R-R interval. Right leg Doppler study shows inaudible arterial signal and audible venous signal. Angiography shows 90% occlusion of the right common femoral artery. In addition to initiating heparin therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q127
A 40-year-old male visits a urologist and reports that for the past 2 weeks, his penis has been gradually curving to the right with associated pain during intercourse. He is able to have a normal erection and he does not recollect of any trauma to his penis. Although he is married, he admits to having unprotected sexual relationship with several females in the past year. His vitals are normal and physical examination is unremarkable except for a lesionless curved penis. It is painless to touch. Test results for sexually transmitted disease is pending. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Q128
A 48-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of sudden-onset headache associated with nausea and vomiting. The patient reports she was sitting at her desk when the headache began. The headache is global and radiates to her neck. She has hypertension. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 10 years. She drinks alcohol occasionally. Her father had a stroke at the age 58 years. Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide. She is in severe distress. She is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Her temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), pulse is 89/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Cranial nerves II–XII are intact. She has no focal motor or sensory deficits. She flexes her hips and knees when her neck is flexed while lying in a supine position. A CT scan of the head is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
Q129
A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department with an open wound on his right hand. He states that he got into a bar fight about an hour ago. He appears heavily intoxicated and does not remember the whole situation, but he does recall lying on the ground in front of the bar after the fight. He does not recall any history of injuries but does remember a tetanus shot he received 6 years ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 77/min, and blood pressure is 132/78 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft, nontender abdomen. His joints have no bony deformities and display full range of motion. There is a 4-cm (1.6-in) lesion on his hand with the skin attached only on the ulnar side. The wound, which appears to be partly covered with soil and dirt, is irrigated and debrided by the hospital staff. Minimal erythema and no purulence is observed in the area surrounding the wound. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q130
A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 40 minutes after falling off a 10-foot ladder. He has severe pain and swelling of his right ankle and is unable to walk. He did not lose consciousness after the fall. He has no nausea. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg. He is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows multiple abrasions over both lower extremities. There is swelling and tenderness of the right ankle; range of motion is limited by pain. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. An x-ray of the ankle shows an extra-articular calcaneal fracture. Intravenous analgesia is administered. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Trauma/Emergencies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 121: A 23-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient was an unrestrained driver involved in a head-on collision. The patient is heavily intoxicated on what he claims is only alcohol. An initial trauma assessment is performed, and is notable for significant bruising of the right forearm. The patient is in the trauma bay, and complains of severe pain in his right forearm. A physical exam is performed and is notable for pallor, decreased sensation, and cool temperature of the skin of the right forearm. Pain is elicited upon passive movement of the right forearm and digits. A thready radial pulse is palpable. A FAST exam is performed, and is negative for signs of internal bleeding. The patient's temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 100/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Radiography of the right forearm is ordered. The patient is still heavily intoxicated. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Fasciotomy (Correct Answer)
B. IV fluids
C. Analgesics
D. Pressure measurement
E. Detoxification
Explanation: ***Fasciotomy***
- The patient exhibits classic signs of **acute compartment syndrome**, including severe pain out of proportion to injury, pain on passive stretch, pallor, decreased sensation, and cool extremity, despite a palpable pulse. These symptoms necessitate immediate surgical intervention to relieve pressure.
- A **fasciotomy** is the definitive treatment for acute compartment syndrome to prevent irreversible muscle and nerve damage, and potentially limb loss.
*IV fluids*
- While fluid resuscitation is important in trauma, the patient's current vital signs (BP 110/70 mmHg, pulse 100/min) do not indicate immediate shock requiring aggressive IV fluid administration over addressing the limb-threatening compartment syndrome.
- Prioritizing IV fluids without addressing **compartment syndrome** could lead to permanent loss of limb function.
*Analgesics*
- Administering analgesics might mask the escalating pain a key symptom of compartment syndrome, which could delay diagnosis and definitive treatment.
- While pain control is important, it should not supersede measures to prevent irreversible tissue damage.
*Pressure measurement*
- While compartment pressure measurement can confirm the diagnosis of compartment syndrome, the clinical presentation in this case is so compelling that delaying definitive treatment for pressure measurement is not the best next step.
- Clinical signs and symptoms are often sufficient for diagnosis, and surgical intervention should not be deferred pending pressure readings in clear-cut cases.
*Detoxification*
- Detoxification for alcohol intoxication is not an emergent and immediate priority in comparison to the limb-threatening condition of acute compartment syndrome.
- Addressing the **compartment syndrome** is critical for preserving limb viability, whereas detoxification can be managed once acute medical emergencies are controlled.
Question 122: A 3-year-old boy is brought to a respiratory specialist. The family physician referred the child because of recurrent respiratory infections over the past 2 years. Chest X-rays showed a lesion of < 2 cm that includes glands and cysts in the upper lobe of the right lung. Diseases affecting the immune system were investigated and ruled out. No family history of any pulmonary disease or congenital malformations exists. He was born at full term via a normal vaginal delivery with an APGAR score of 10. Which of the following should be highly considered for effective management of this child’s condition?
A. Lobectomy
B. Antibiotics
C. Observation
D. Bronchoscopy (Correct Answer)
E. Pneumonectomy
Explanation: ***Bronchoscopy***
- A **bronchoscopy** would be highly considered to **visualize** the lesion, obtain a **biopsy**, and potentially **remove** any obstructing foreign bodies or mucous plugs contributing to recurrent infections.
- Given the description of a lesion < 2 cm with glands and cysts, it is crucial to further characterize it to guide definitive treatment and rule out possibilities like a **bronchial anomaly** or a **benign tumor**.
*Lobectomy*
- **Lobectomy** is a surgical procedure to remove an entire lung lobe; it might be considered if the lesion is definitively diagnosed as a **congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)** or other localized, symptomatic anomaly, but not as the initial management step without a clear diagnosis.
- Doing a lobectomy without proper diagnosis might be too invasive and aggressive when other less invasive management options are available.
*Antibiotics*
- **Antibiotics** are appropriate for treating the recurrent respiratory infections themselves but will not address the underlying structural lesion causing them.
- While they might provide temporary relief from infections, they do not offer a long-term solution for the **structural abnormality** described.
*Observation*
- **Observation** might be considered for small, asymptomatic lesions, but this child has **recurrent respiratory infections**, suggesting the lesion is clinically significant and warrants intervention.
- Delaying diagnosis and treatment could lead to persistent morbidity and potentially irreversible lung damage.
*Pneumonectomy*
- **Pneumonectomy**, the removal of an entire lung, is a major and highly aggressive surgery reserved for extensive, **life-threatening conditions** such as large malignancies or widespread irreversible lung disease.
- Given the lesion is < 2 cm and localized to one lobe, a pneumonectomy is an **overly extreme measure** and not indicated at this stage.
Question 123: A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for the evaluation of mild retrosternal pain for the last 7 hours after several episodes of self-induced vomiting. The patient was diagnosed with bulimia nervosa 9 months ago. Her only medication is citalopram. She is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 62 kg (136.6 lb); BMI is 21.5 kg/m2. She appears pale. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examinations shows no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no organomegaly. The remainder of the physical examination shows swelling of the salivary glands, dry skin, and brittle nails. An ECG and an x-ray of the chest show no abnormalities. Contrast esophagram with gastrografin shows mild leakage of contrast from the lower esophagus into the mediastinum without contrast extravasation into the pleural and peritoneal cavities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management?
A. Diagnostic endoscopy
B. CT scan with contrast
C. Intravenous labetalol therapy
D. Intravenous ampicillin and sulbactam therapy (Correct Answer)
E. Intravenous octreotide therapy
Explanation: **Intravenous ampicillin and sulbactam therapy**
- The patient presents with a **mild esophageal leak** into the mediastinum following self-induced vomiting, strongly suggesting **Boerhaave syndrome** or esophageal perforation. This condition is prone to rapid infection due to contamination from esophageal contents.
- **Broad-spectrum antibiotics**, such as ampicillin and sulbactam, are crucial to prevent or treat **mediastinitis** and sepsis, which are life-threatening complications of esophageal perforation.
*Diagnostic endoscopy*
- **Endoscopy is contraindicated** in suspected esophageal perforation as insufflation of air can worsen the mediastinal contamination and increase the size of the perforation.
- It is generally reserved for stable patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding or foreign body removal when perforation is not suspected.
*CT scan with contrast*
- A **CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast** would be the *next diagnostic step* to better delineate the extent of the esophageal injury and mediastinal involvement. However, it is not the *most appropriate initial management step*, which should prioritize stabilizing the patient and preventing infection.
- The question asks for the **most appropriate *next step in management*** after a diagnosis of a mild leak has been made by gastrografin esophagram, not the next diagnostic test.
*Intravenous labetalol therapy*
- **Labetalol is a beta-blocker** used to reduce blood pressure and heart rate, typically in conditions like hypertensive urgency/emergency or aortic dissection.
- There is no indication for labetalol in this patient, as her blood pressure and pulse are stable, and the primary issue is esophageal perforation.
*Intravenous octreotide therapy*
- **Octreotide** is a somatostatin analog primarily used to reduce portal pressure in **variceal bleeding** or to manage neuroendocrine tumors.
- It has no role in the management of esophageal perforation or mediastinal leak.
Question 124: A 41-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room after being struck in the abdomen by a large cement plate while transporting it. On initial assessment by paramedics at the scene, his blood pressure was 110/80 mm Hg, heart rate 85/min, with no signs of respiratory distress. On admission, the patient is alert but in distress. He complains of severe, diffuse, abdominal pain and severe weakness. Vital signs are now: blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg, heart rate 96/min, respiratory rate 19/min, temperature 37.4℃ (99.3℉), and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. His lungs are clear on auscultation. The cardiac exam is significant for a narrow pulse pressure. Abdominal examination reveals a large bruise over the epigastric and periumbilical regions. The abdomen is distended and there is diffuse tenderness to palpation with rebound and guarding, worst in the epigastric region. There is hyperresonance to percussion in the epigastric region and absence of hepatic dullness in the right upper quadrant. Aspiration of the nasogastric tube reveals bloody contents. Focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) shows free fluid in the pelvic region. Evaluation of the perisplenic and perihepatic regions is impossible due to the presence of free air. Aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation is administered but fails to improve upon the patient’s hemodynamics. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. Emergency laparoscopy
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)
D. Emergency laparotomy (Correct Answer)
E. CT scan
Explanation: ***Emergency laparotomy***
- The patient presents with **hemodynamic instability** unresponsive to fluid resuscitation, coupled with clear signs of **perforation** (hyperresonance, absent hepatic dullness, free air on FAST limited view). This clinical picture is a direct indication for immediate surgical intervention.
- The presence of bloody nasogastric tube contents, diffuse tenderness with rebound and guarding, and a history of significant blunt trauma further support the need for urgent exploratory **laparotomy** to identify and repair the source of injury.
*Emergency laparoscopy*
- While laparoscopy can be used for abdominal exploration, it is **contraindicated in hemodynamically unstable patients** due to the need for pneumoperitoneum, which can further compromise cardiovascular stability.
- In cases of suspected visceral perforation with extensive free air and massive bleeding, **laparoscopy may be technically challenging** and less efficient than open laparotomy for rapid control of hemorrhage and contamination.
*Abdominal ultrasound*
- An abdominal ultrasound (**FAST exam**) has already been partially performed, revealing free fluid and raising suspicion of free air, making further ultrasound redundant.
- While useful for initial trauma assessment, an ultrasound **cannot definitively rule out all abdominal injuries**, especially hollow viscus perforations or retroperitoneal hematomas, and is insufficient for unstable patients with clear signs of peritonitis.
*Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)*
- **DPL is largely replaced by FAST and CT scans** in most trauma centers, especially given the availability of imaging.
- Although it can detect intraperitoneal bleeding or perforation, it is an **invasive procedure** with potential complications and would only confirm what is already strongly suspected clinically; it does not address the need for immediate therapeutic intervention in an unstable patient.
*CT scan*
- A CT scan would be the imaging modality of choice for a **hemodynamically stable** patient with blunt abdominal trauma.
- However, performing a CT scan on an **unstable patient** would unnecessarily delay definitive surgical management, which is critical given the signs of ongoing internal bleeding and likely perforation.
Question 125: A 22-year-old soldier sustains a gunshot wound to the left side of the chest during a deployment in Syria. The soldier and her unit take cover from gunfire in a nearby farmhouse, and a combat medic conducts a primary survey of her injuries. She is breathing spontaneously. Two minutes after sustaining the injury, she develops severe respiratory distress. On examination, she is agitated and tachypneic. There is an entrance wound at the midclavicular line at the 2nd rib and an exit wound at the left axillary line at the 4th rib. There is crepitus on the left side of the chest wall. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Intravenous administration of fentanyl
C. Ultrasonography of the chest
D. Administration of supplemental oxygen
E. Needle thoracostomy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Needle thoracostomy***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **tension pneumothorax** developing after a penetrating chest injury (gunshot wound), including severe respiratory distress, agitation, tachypnea, and subcutaneous emphysema (crepitus).
- The combination of penetrating chest trauma with entrance and exit wounds, rapid onset of severe respiratory distress, and crepitus strongly suggests air accumulation under pressure in the pleural space.
- **Needle thoracostomy** is the most urgent and life-saving intervention to decompress the pressurized pleural space, allowing lung re-expansion and improved hemodynamics.
- In a combat or field setting with clinical diagnosis of tension pneumothorax, immediate needle decompression takes precedence over imaging or other interventions.
*Endotracheal intubation*
- While the patient is in severe respiratory distress, intubation is not the immediate solution for the underlying mechanical problem of a **tension pneumothorax**.
- Intubation with positive pressure ventilation without prior decompression can worsen a **tension pneumothorax** by increasing positive pressure within the chest, further impairing venous return and cardiac output.
*Intravenous administration of fentanyl*
- Administering an opioid like fentanyl would address pain but does not resolve the acute, life-threatening **respiratory compromise** caused by **tension pneumothorax**.
- Pain relief is secondary to addressing the cause of respiratory failure in this acute setting.
*Ultrasonography of the chest*
- **Point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS)** can diagnose a pneumothorax, but it is not the most appropriate *next step* in a patient presenting with clear clinical signs of **tension pneumothorax** where time is critical.
- Clinical diagnosis and immediate intervention like **needle thoracostomy** take precedence over diagnostic imaging when the diagnosis is highly probable and the patient is unstable.
*Administration of supplemental oxygen*
- Supplemental oxygen is a supportive measure for hypoxemia, which would be present, but it does not address the underlying mechanical cause of **tension pneumothorax** where air is trapped under pressure, preventing lung expansion.
- While oxygen should be administered, it is not the definitive "next step" to relieve the severe respiratory distress.
Question 126: A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency department for severe, acute right leg pain. The patient's symptoms began suddenly 4 hours ago, while he was reading the newspaper. He has poorly-controlled hypertension and osteoarthritis. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 31 years. Current medications include lisinopril, metoprolol succinate, and ibuprofen. He appears to be in severe pain and is clutching his right leg. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 102/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 152/94 mm Hg. The right leg is cool to the touch, with decreased femoral, popliteal, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses. There is moderate weakness and decreased sensation in the right leg. An ECG shows absent P waves and a variable R-R interval. Right leg Doppler study shows inaudible arterial signal and audible venous signal. Angiography shows 90% occlusion of the right common femoral artery. In addition to initiating heparin therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Surgical bypass of the affected vessel
B. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
C. Amputation of the affected limb
D. Open embolectomy
E. Balloon catheter embolectomy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Balloon catheter embolectomy**
- The patient presents with **acute limb ischemia** characterized by sudden onset of severe pain, cool extremity, absent pulses, motor weakness, and sensory deficits. The **irregularly irregular pulse** and **absent P waves on ECG** are highly suggestive of **atrial fibrillation**, a common source of arterial emboli.
- Given the acute nature, the presence of a probable embolic source, and the Doppler findings of an **inaudible arterial signal**, **balloon catheter embolectomy** (e.g., using a Fogarty catheter) is the most appropriate and rapid intervention to restore blood flow and salvage the limb. This procedure directly retrieves the embolus.
*Surgical bypass of the affected vessel*
- **Surgical bypass** is typically indicated for **chronic limb ischemia** or extensive, complex occlusions that are not amenable to less invasive techniques.
- It is a more extensive procedure with a longer recovery time and is not the first-line treatment for acute embolic occlusion.
*Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty*
- **Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty** (PTA) is generally used for **atherosclerotic stenoses** or occlusions rather than acute arterial emboli.
- While it can be performed in some cases of acute limb ischemia, it is less effective than embolectomy for removing a fresh, mobile clot, especially in large vessels.
*Amputation of the affected limb*
- **Amputation** is considered only when the limb is **irreversibly ischemic** and non-viable, or when revascularization attempts have failed.
- In this case, the patient has moderate weakness and decreased sensation, indicating that the limb is still viable and potentially salvageable.
*Open embolectomy*
- **Open embolectomy** is a surgical procedure to remove an embolus, similar in goal to balloon catheter embolectomy but often performed with a larger incision.
- While effective, **balloon catheter embolectomy** is generally preferred due to its less invasive nature and ability to be performed rapidly, especially in emergent situations.
Question 127: A 40-year-old male visits a urologist and reports that for the past 2 weeks, his penis has been gradually curving to the right with associated pain during intercourse. He is able to have a normal erection and he does not recollect of any trauma to his penis. Although he is married, he admits to having unprotected sexual relationship with several females in the past year. His vitals are normal and physical examination is unremarkable except for a lesionless curved penis. It is painless to touch. Test results for sexually transmitted disease is pending. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Fibrosis of corpus cavernosa
B. Congenital hypospadias
C. Hypertrophy of corpus cavernosa
D. Fibrosis of tunica albuginea (Correct Answer)
E. Syphilitic chancre
Explanation: ***Fibrosis of tunica albuginea***
- This presentation is highly suggestive of **Peyronie's disease**, characterized by **fibrous plaques** within the **tunica albuginea** of the penis, leading to penile curvature, pain, and sometimes erectile dysfunction.
- The onset of **penile curvature** with associated pain during intercourse, without a history of trauma, points towards this condition, which is a localized fibrotic disorder.
*Fibrosis of corpus cavernosa*
- While fibrosis can occur in the corpus cavernosa, **Peyronie's disease specifically involves the tunica albuginea**, which is the fibrous sheath surrounding the erectile tissue.
- Fibrosis within the corpus cavernosa itself might affect erectile function more broadly rather than causing a distinct curvature like that seen in Peyronie's.
*Congenital hypospadias*
- **Hypospadias** is a congenital condition where the **urethral opening is on the underside** of the penis, often associated with a ventral curvature (chordee).
- This patient is 40 years old and reports recent onset of symptoms, indicating an **acquired condition**, not a congenital malformation that would have been present since birth.
*Hypertrophy of corpus cavernosa*
- **Hypertrophy** (enlargement) of the corpus cavernosa would likely cause a general increase in penile size or rigidity, but generally **would not lead to a localized curvature or pain** during erection.
- Curvature is typically caused by asymmetric tissue changes, such as fibrosis, rather than uniform hypertrophy.
*Syphilitic chancre*
- A **syphilitic chancre** is a **painless ulcer** that often appears on the genitals and is a sign of primary syphilis.
- Although the patient reports unprotected sexual encounters, a chancre is an **open lesion** and would not cause gradual penile curvature or pain during intercourse without other symptoms, and the physical examination was unremarkable except for the curvature.
Question 128: A 48-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of sudden-onset headache associated with nausea and vomiting. The patient reports she was sitting at her desk when the headache began. The headache is global and radiates to her neck. She has hypertension. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 10 years. She drinks alcohol occasionally. Her father had a stroke at the age 58 years. Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide. She is in severe distress. She is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Her temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), pulse is 89/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Cranial nerves II–XII are intact. She has no focal motor or sensory deficits. She flexes her hips and knees when her neck is flexed while lying in a supine position. A CT scan of the head is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
A. Perform burr hole surgery
B. Administer intravenous alteplase
C. Administer intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
D. Perform surgical clipping (Correct Answer)
E. Perform decompressive craniectomy
Explanation: ***Perform surgical clipping***
- The clinical presentation of **sudden-onset severe headache** ("thunderclap headache"), **nausea, vomiting, neck stiffness (positive Brudzinski's sign)**, and the CT scan showing **blood in the subarachnoid space** strongly indicate a **subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)** from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm.
- Definitive treatment requires **securing the aneurysm** to prevent **rebleeding**, which carries 40-50% mortality. Modern management includes **endovascular coiling** (first-line for most cases) or **surgical clipping**.
- **Surgical clipping** involves placing a metal clip across the aneurysm neck to exclude it from circulation. It remains the preferred approach for certain aneurysm locations (MCA), wide-necked aneurysms, or when accompanied by hematoma requiring evacuation.
- Among the options provided, surgical clipping is the only definitive intervention that secures the ruptured aneurysm.
*Perform burr hole surgery*
- **Burr hole surgery** is used for draining **subdural hematomas** or accessing the brain for procedures like biopsy or external ventricular drain placement.
- While burr holes may be needed for complications of SAH (e.g., hydrocephalus requiring EVD), this is not the primary intervention for securing the ruptured aneurysm itself.
*Administer intravenous alteplase*
- **Alteplase** (tPA) is a **thrombolytic agent** used for **acute ischemic stroke** within 4.5 hours of symptom onset.
- Administering thrombolytics in **hemorrhagic stroke** (like SAH) is **absolutely contraindicated** as it would worsen bleeding and cause catastrophic neurological deterioration or death.
*Administer intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone*
- **Vancomycin and ceftriaxone** treat **bacterial meningitis**, which can present with headache, fever, and meningeal signs.
- Although the patient has low-grade fever (likely from blood irritating meninges, not infection) and neck stiffness, the **sudden-onset thunderclap headache** and **CT findings of SAH** make ruptured aneurysm the diagnosis, not meningitis. The fever in SAH is typically from aseptic meningeal irritation.
*Perform decompressive craniectomy*
- **Decompressive craniectomy** removes skull bone to relieve **elevated intracranial pressure** from massive brain swelling (severe TBI, malignant MCA infarction).
- While SAH can cause elevated ICP, craniectomy does not secure the aneurysm. The immediate priority is preventing **rebleeding** by securing the aneurysm source, not managing secondary complications.
Question 129: A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department with an open wound on his right hand. He states that he got into a bar fight about an hour ago. He appears heavily intoxicated and does not remember the whole situation, but he does recall lying on the ground in front of the bar after the fight. He does not recall any history of injuries but does remember a tetanus shot he received 6 years ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 77/min, and blood pressure is 132/78 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft, nontender abdomen. His joints have no bony deformities and display full range of motion. There is a 4-cm (1.6-in) lesion on his hand with the skin attached only on the ulnar side. The wound, which appears to be partly covered with soil and dirt, is irrigated and debrided by the hospital staff. Minimal erythema and no purulence is observed in the area surrounding the wound. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Apposition of wound edges under tension + rifampin
B. Surgical treatment with skin flap + ciprofloxacin
C. Surgical treatment with skin graft + tetanus vaccine
D. Tension-free apposition of wound edges + sterile dressing
E. Application of moist sterile dressing + tetanus vaccine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Application of moist sterile dressing + tetanus vaccine***
- This approach is appropriate for a **contaminated, high-risk avulsion wound** to prevent infection and promote healing by secondary intention.
- The patient needs an updated **tetanus vaccine** because his last one was six years ago, and he has a contaminated wound.
*Apposition of wound edges under tension + rifampin*
- **Closing a contaminated wound under tension** is contraindicated as it increases the risk of infection and necrosis.
- **Rifampin is generally not the first-line prophylactic antibiotic** for this type of wound injury and is not needed if the wound has been thoroughly cleaned.
*Surgical treatment with skin flap + ciprofloxacin*
- This is an **overly aggressive initial approach** for an acute, contaminated wound, as the priority is preventing infection before definitive closure or reconstruction.
- **Ciprofloxacin** is not typically the first-choice prophylactic antibiotic for contaminated soft tissue wounds.
*Surgical treatment with skin graft + tetanus vaccine*
- A **skin graft** is a definitive reconstructive procedure and is not indicated as the immediate next step for a fresh, contaminated avulsion wound.
- The wound first needs to be thoroughly cleaned and monitored for infection before considering graft options.
*Tension-free apposition of wound edges + sterile dressing*
- While **tension-free closure** is ideal, this wound is **heavily contaminated with soil and dirt** and has some avulsion, making primary closure risky due to a high infection rate.
- **Allowing the wound to heal by secondary intention** with a moist dressing is safer in this situation.
Question 130: A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 40 minutes after falling off a 10-foot ladder. He has severe pain and swelling of his right ankle and is unable to walk. He did not lose consciousness after the fall. He has no nausea. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg. He is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows multiple abrasions over both lower extremities. There is swelling and tenderness of the right ankle; range of motion is limited by pain. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. An x-ray of the ankle shows an extra-articular calcaneal fracture. Intravenous analgesia is administered. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Short leg splint and orthopedic consultation
B. Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
C. MRI of the right ankle
D. Open reduction and internal fixation
E. X-ray of the spine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***X-ray of the spine***
- A **high-energy calcaneal fracture** (especially from a fall from height) is often associated with other injuries, particularly to the **spine**, due to axial loading.
- Approximately **10% of calcaneal fractures** are associated with **lumbar spine compression fractures**, making imaging of the spine an essential next step to rule out this potentially serious concomitant injury.
*Short leg splint and orthopedic consultation*
- While a **short leg splint** is appropriate for initial immobilization and pain control of the ankle fracture, and **orthopedic consultation** is necessary, these steps do not address the immediate need to exclude other critical injuries like spinal fractures in high-impact trauma.
- This option represents definitive management of the ankle rather than comprehensive early trauma assessment in a high-risk patient.
*Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy*
- **Antibiotic therapy** is primarily indicated for **open fractures** to prevent infection, or in cases of significant soft tissue injury with high contamination risk; the provided information describes an extra-articular fracture with abrasions, but not explicitly an open fracture requiring immediate broad-spectrum antibiotics.
- The focus should first be on skeletal integrity elsewhere and definitive fracture management rather than presumptive infection prevention unless an open fracture is confirmed.
*MRI of the right ankle*
- While an **MRI** can provide detailed imaging of soft tissues, ligaments, and cartilage, and may be useful later for surgical planning or to assess subtle injuries, a plain **X-ray has already confirmed a calcaneal fracture**.
- The immediate priority after a high-energy trauma is to rule out other significant, potentially disabling or life-threatening bony injuries, particularly to the spine, rather than further detailed imaging of the already-identified ankle fracture.
*Open reduction and internal fixation*
- **Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)** is a surgical procedure for definitive management of certain fractures; however, it is not the **immediate next step** in the emergency department for initial patient assessment following trauma.
- Before surgical intervention, a comprehensive assessment to rule out other injuries (especially spinal fractures) and to thoroughly plan the specific surgical approach is required.