Post-op care — MCQs

Fourteen days after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis, a 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of persistent episodic epigastric pain for 3 days. The pain radiates to her back, occurs randomly throughout the day, and is associated with nausea and vomiting. Each episode lasts 30 minutes to one hour. Antacids do not improve her symptoms. She has hypertension and fibromyalgia. She has smoked 1–2 packs of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years and drinks 4 cans of beer every week. She takes lisinopril and pregabalin. She appears uncomfortable. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6° F), pulse is 84/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 127/85 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the upper quadrants without rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are normal. The incisions are clean, dry, and intact. Serum studies show: AST 80 U/L ALT 95 U/L Alkaline phosphatase 213 U/L Bilirubin, total 1.3 mg/dL Direct 0.7 mg/dL Amylase 52 U/L Abdominal ultrasonography shows dilation of the common bile duct and no gallstones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old man undergoes a parathyroidectomy given recurrent episodes of dehydration and kidney stones caused by hypercalcemia secondary to an elevated PTH level. He is recovering on the surgical floor on day 3. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 122/81 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. The patient is complaining of perioral numbness currently. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the surgical service after an uncomplicated appendectomy. She underwent surgery yesterday and had an uneventful postoperative course. However, she now complains that she is unable to completely void. She also complains of pain in the suprapubic area. You examine her and confirm the tenderness and fullness in the suprapubic region. You ask the nurse to perform a bladder scan, which reveals 450cc. What is the next appropriate step in management?

A 42-year-old woman presents to the physician because of an abnormal breast biopsy report following suspicious findings on breast imaging. Other than being concerned about her report, she feels well. She has no history of any serious illnesses and takes no medications. She does not smoke. She consumes wine 1–2 times per week with dinner. There is no significant family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormal findings. The biopsy shows lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) in the left breast. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 50-year-old obese woman presents for a follow-up appointment regarding microcalcifications found in her left breast on a recent screening mammogram. The patient denies any recent associated symptoms. The past medical history is significant for polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), for which she takes metformin. Her menarche occurred at age 11, and the patient still has regular menstrual cycles. The family history is significant for breast cancer in her mother at the age of 72. The review of systems is notable for a 6.8 kg (15 lb) weight loss in the past 2 months. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 130/70 mm Hg, pulse 82/min, respiratory rate 17/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. On physical examination, the patient is alert and cooperative. The breast examination reveals no palpable masses, lymphadenopathy, or evidence of skin retraction. A biopsy of the left breast is performed, and histologic examination demonstrates evidence of non-invasive malignancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?

One week after undergoing sigmoidectomy with end colostomy for complicated diverticulitis, a 67-year-old man has upper abdominal pain. During the surgery, he was transfused two units of packed red blood cells. His postoperative course was uncomplicated. Two days ago, he developed fever. He is currently receiving parenteral nutrition through a central venous catheter. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. He is oriented to person, but not to place and time. Prior to admission, his medications included metformin, valsartan, aspirin, and atorvastatin. His temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), pulse is 120/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. Examination shows jaundice of the conjunctivae. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant. There is no rebound tenderness or guarding; bowel sounds are hypoactive. Laboratory studies show: Leukocytes 13,500 /mm3 Segmented neutrophils 75 % Serum Aspartate aminotransferase 140 IU/L Alanine aminotransferase 85 IU/L Alkaline phosphatase 150 IU/L Bilirubin Total 2.1 mg/dL Direct 1.3 mg/dL Amylase 20 IU/L Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

A 23-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for knee pain. The patient states it started yesterday and has been steadily worsening. She recently joined a volleyball team to try to get into shape as she was informed that weight loss would be beneficial for her at her last physical exam. She states that she has been repetitively pivoting and twisting on her knee while playing volleyball. The patient has a past medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome and is currently taking oral contraceptive pills. Her temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 137/88 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals an obese woman with facial hair. Physical exam is notable for tenderness that is elicited with palpation over the medial aspect of the tibia just inferior to the patella. Her BMI is 37 kg/m^2. The rest of the exam of the lower extremity is not remarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Five days after undergoing right knee arthroplasty for osteoarthritis, a 68-year-old man has severe pain in his right knee preventing him from participating in physical therapy. On the third postoperative day when the dressing was changed, the surgical wound appeared to be intact, slightly swollen, and had a clear secretion. He has a history of diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension. Current medications include metformin, enalapril, and simvastatin. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 94/min, and blood pressure is 130/88 mm Hg. His right knee is swollen, erythematous, and tender to palpation. There is pain on movement of the joint. The medial parapatellar skin incision appears superficially opened in its proximal and distal part with yellow-green discharge. There is blackening of the skin on both sides of the incision. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?