A 75-year-old man presents to the physician because of bloody urine, which has occurred several times over the past month. He has no dysuria or flank pain. He has no history of serious illness, and he currently takes no medications. He is a 40-pack-year smoker. The vital signs are within normal limits. Physical exam shows no abnormalities except generalized lung wheezing. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Urine:
Blood 3+
RBC > 100/hpf
WBC 1–2/hpf
RBC casts negative
Bacteria not seen
Cystoscopy reveals a solitary tumor in the bladder. Transurethral resection of the bladder tumor is performed. The tumor is 4 cm. Histologic evaluation shows invasion of the immediate epithelium of cells by a high-grade urothelial carcinoma without invasion of the underlying tissue or muscularis propria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q32
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, comes to the physician because of left ankle swelling for 2 months. She notes that the swelling is present throughout the day and decreases when she goes to sleep. One year ago, she has had an episode of deep venous thrombosis after the delivery of her third child. Her prepregnancy BMI was 34 kg/m2. Examination shows distended, tortuous veins in the legs bilaterally and pitting edema of the left ankle. There are erythematous scaling patches on the medial side of the left ankle. Duplex ultrasonography is performed. Which of the following directions of blood flow would most likely confirm the diagnosis?
Q33
Five days after undergoing a pancreaticoduodenectomy for pancreatic cancer, a 46-year-old woman has 2 episodes of non-bilious vomiting and mild epigastric pain. She has a patient-controlled analgesia pump. She has a history of hypertension. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. She drinks 3–4 beers daily. Prior to admission to the hospital, her only medications were amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 116/82 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 96%. Examination shows a midline surgical incision over the abdomen with minimal serous discharge and no erythema. The abdomen is soft with mild tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 16,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
K+ 3.4 mEq/L
Cl- 115 mEq/L
Glucose 77 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Arterial blood gas on room air shows:
pH 7.20
pCO2 23 mm Hg
pO2 91 mm Hg
HCO3- 10 mEq/L
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's acid-base status?
Q34
A 56-year-old man presents to his primary care provider because of a lack of flexibility in his right hand. He has noticed that his hand has become less flexible and more fixed over the past year and he now has trouble shaking other people's hands comfortably. He has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, hepatitis C, and cirrhosis. His family history is insignificant. He has a 40 pack-year smoking history. At the physician's office, his blood pressure is 118/67 mm Hg, the respirations are 18/min, the pulse is 77/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). On physical examination, the 4th and 5th digits are mildly flexed with dense, rope-like cords extending down his palm. Which of the following is considered the first-line therapy for this condition?
Q35
A 68-year-old man comes to the physician for a wellness visit. Physical examination shows an enlarged and nodular prostate. Laboratory studies show elevated levels of prostate-specific antigen. A prostate biopsy confirms the diagnosis of prostate cancer and a radical prostatectomy is planned. This patient should be counseled on the increased risk of injury to which of the following structures?
Q36
A 33-year-old man comes to the physician because of decreased hearing in his right ear for the past 4 months. During this period, he has also had multiple episodes of dizziness and a constant ringing noise in his right ear. Over the past 5 weeks, he has also noticed scant amounts of right-sided ear discharge. He has a history of multiple ear infections since childhood that were treated with antibiotics. Vital signs are within normal limits. Otoscopic examination shows a white pearly mass behind the right tympanic membrane. Placing a 512 Hz tuning fork in the center of the forehead shows lateralization to the right ear. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's symptoms?
Q37
Eighteen hours after undergoing surgery for a splenic rupture and liver laceration following a high-speed motor vehicle collision, a 23-year-old man's pulse is 140/min, blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, and central venous pressure is 19 cm H2O. He was transfused with 6 units of packed red blood cells during surgery. Examination shows jugular venous distention. There is a midline surgical incision with no erythema or discharge. The abdomen is tense and distended. The total urine output over the past 6 hours is 90 mL. Serum studies show:
Urea nitrogen 80 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
HCO3- 29 mEq/L
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q38
A 63-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a skin lesion on her neck for 7 months. It is neither pruritic nor painful. She has tried using over-the-counter topical medications, but none have helped. She has hypertension, hypothyroidism, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. Current medications include amlodipine, hydrochlorothiazide, levothyroxine, and pantoprazole. She is a farmer and lives with her two children. Her temperature is 37.7°C (98.8°F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 15/min, and blood pressure is 128/84 mm Hg. Examination shows a 5-mm (0.2-in) nontender, indurated, nodular lesion with rolled-out edges on the anterolateral aspect of the neck. There is a central area of ulceration. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. In addition to dermoscopy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q39
A 76-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment at his primary care provider’s office. The patient has severe osteoarthritis, which substantially limits his daily physical activity. Several imaging studies have confirmed severe articular degeneration and evidence of bone grinding on bone in his hip joints. The patient suffers from chronic pain and depression that have been resistant to medication. At the physician’s office, his blood pressure is 119/67 mm Hg, the respirations are 18/min, the pulse is 87/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). On physical examination, the patient has a flat affect and appears anxious. He has significant pain and limited passive and active range of motion of his hip joints bilaterally. This patient would most likely benefit from which of the following procedures if there are no contraindications?
Q40
A 48-year-old female with a history of hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, and asthma undergoes a scheduled total abdominal hysterectomy for symptomatic fibroids. She is given a dose of preoperative prophylactic antibiotics. Her urinary catheter is removed on post-operative day one. She is on low-molecular-weight heparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. On post-operative day four, the patient complains of abdominal pain. She denies cough, nausea, vomiting, or dysuria, but has had 3-4 loose stools over her hospitalization. Her temperature is 101.0°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 97/59 mmHg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 16/min. The surgical wound has new erythema with dusky patches and abundant cloudy discharge. The patient reports new decreased sensation around her wound site. Her lungs are clear to auscultation and abdomen is soft with hypoactive bowel sounds. She has no costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis is within normal limits and urine culture shows 100,000 CFU/mL of Escherichia coli without pyuria.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Post-op care US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 75-year-old man presents to the physician because of bloody urine, which has occurred several times over the past month. He has no dysuria or flank pain. He has no history of serious illness, and he currently takes no medications. He is a 40-pack-year smoker. The vital signs are within normal limits. Physical exam shows no abnormalities except generalized lung wheezing. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Urine:
Blood 3+
RBC > 100/hpf
WBC 1–2/hpf
RBC casts negative
Bacteria not seen
Cystoscopy reveals a solitary tumor in the bladder. Transurethral resection of the bladder tumor is performed. The tumor is 4 cm. Histologic evaluation shows invasion of the immediate epithelium of cells by a high-grade urothelial carcinoma without invasion of the underlying tissue or muscularis propria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. No further treatment is needed at this time
B. Systemic combination chemotherapy
C. Intravesical Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) (Correct Answer)
D. Bladder radiation
E. Bladder-sparing partial cystectomy
Explanation: ***Intravesical Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG)***
- The patient has a **high-grade urothelial carcinoma** that invaded the immediate epithelium but **not the muscularis propria**, classifying it as **non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer (NMIBC)**.
- **Intravesical BCG immunotherapy** is the gold standard for high-risk NMIBC, including high-grade tumors, to reduce recurrence and progression after transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT).
*No further treatment is needed at this time*
- This option is incorrect because a **high-grade tumor** carries a significant risk of recurrence and progression if left untreated.
- Even after complete TURBT, adjuvant therapy is necessary for high-risk NMIBC to improve outcomes.
*Systemic combination chemotherapy*
- **Systemic chemotherapy** is generally reserved for **muscle-invasive or metastatic bladder cancer**, which is not the case here.
- For NMIBC, local intravesical therapy is preferred over systemic approaches due to lower systemic toxicity and effective local control.
*Bladder radiation*
- **Bladder radiation** is typically used in cases of **muscle-invasive bladder cancer** as an alternative to cystectomy for patients who are not surgical candidates or for bladder preservation protocols.
- It is not the standard primary adjuvant treatment for high-grade NMIBC.
*Bladder-sparing partial cystectomy*
- A **partial cystectomy** might be considered for a **solitary, localized muscle-invasive tumor** in a favorable location, or for very large, intractable high-grade NMIBC.
- However, for non-muscle-invasive disease that has been completely resected, **intravesical therapy** is the less invasive and equally effective first-line adjuvant treatment.
Question 32: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, comes to the physician because of left ankle swelling for 2 months. She notes that the swelling is present throughout the day and decreases when she goes to sleep. One year ago, she has had an episode of deep venous thrombosis after the delivery of her third child. Her prepregnancy BMI was 34 kg/m2. Examination shows distended, tortuous veins in the legs bilaterally and pitting edema of the left ankle. There are erythematous scaling patches on the medial side of the left ankle. Duplex ultrasonography is performed. Which of the following directions of blood flow would most likely confirm the diagnosis?
A. Femoral vein to external iliac vein
B. Anterior tibial vein to popliteal vein
C. Femoral vein to great saphenous vein (Correct Answer)
D. Popliteal vein to small saphenous vein
E. Dorsal venous arch to great saphenous vein
Explanation: ***Femoral vein to great saphenous vein***
- This represents **reflux at the saphenofemoral junction (SFJ)**, the most common cause of **chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)**.
- Incompetent valves allow retrograde blood flow from the deep venous system (femoral vein) into the superficial system (great saphenous vein), causing increased venous pressure.
- This leads to the patient's presenting features: **varicose veins** (distended, tortuous veins), **pitting edema**, and **venous stasis dermatitis** (erythematous scaling patches).
- **Duplex ultrasonography** demonstrating this reversed flow pattern confirms the diagnosis of CVI due to SFJ incompetence.
- Risk factors include obesity (BMI 34), previous DVT, and multiple pregnancies—all present in this patient.
*Dorsal venous arch to great saphenous vein*
- This describes **normal antegrade flow** from the superficial dorsal venous arch upward into the great saphenous vein.
- This is the physiological direction of blood flow, not reflux or pathological flow.
- Would not be diagnostic of venous insufficiency.
*Anterior tibial vein to popliteal vein*
- This represents **normal antegrade flow** from the anterior tibial vein (deep vein of the leg) proximally to the popliteal vein.
- This is the normal physiological direction for venous return from the lower leg.
- Not indicative of valvular incompetence or venous insufficiency.
*Femoral vein to external iliac vein*
- This describes **normal antegrade flow** from the femoral vein proximally to the external iliac vein.
- This is the correct physiological direction of venous return from the lower extremity toward the heart.
- Not reflux and would not confirm venous insufficiency.
*Popliteal vein to small saphenous vein*
- This represents reflux at the **saphenopopliteal junction (SPJ)**, a less common site of venous insufficiency.
- While this can cause varicosities in the small saphenous distribution (posterior calf), it is less common than SFJ incompetence.
- The medial ankle location of skin changes and the distribution of findings are more consistent with great saphenous vein involvement than small saphenous vein.
Question 33: Five days after undergoing a pancreaticoduodenectomy for pancreatic cancer, a 46-year-old woman has 2 episodes of non-bilious vomiting and mild epigastric pain. She has a patient-controlled analgesia pump. She has a history of hypertension. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. She drinks 3–4 beers daily. Prior to admission to the hospital, her only medications were amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 116/82 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 96%. Examination shows a midline surgical incision over the abdomen with minimal serous discharge and no erythema. The abdomen is soft with mild tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 16,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
K+ 3.4 mEq/L
Cl- 115 mEq/L
Glucose 77 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Arterial blood gas on room air shows:
pH 7.20
pCO2 23 mm Hg
pO2 91 mm Hg
HCO3- 10 mEq/L
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's acid-base status?
A. Excessive alcohol intake
B. Adrenal insufficiency
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Adverse effect of medication
E. Fistula (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fistula***
- The patient's **metabolic acidosis** (pH 7.20, HCO3- 10 mEq/L) with normal anion gap (Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-) = 133 - (115 + 10) = 8 mEq/L) suggests **bicarbonate loss**.
- A pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure) involves multiple anastomoses, making **fistula formation** (e.g., pancreatic, biliary, or enteric) a significant complication that can lead to large volume losses of electrolyte-rich fluids, including bicarbonate.
*Excessive alcohol intake*
- While chronic alcohol intake can cause various metabolic derangements, an acute episode of acidosis due to alcohol typically presents as **alcoholic ketoacidosis** (high anion gap) or lactic acidosis.
- The patient's presentation of a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis does not align with the typical acid-base disturbances directly caused by acute alcohol intoxication or withdrawal.
*Adrenal insufficiency*
- Adrenal insufficiency can cause **hyponatremia**, hyperkalemia, and sometimes **non-anion gap metabolic acidosis** due to impaired aldosterone function leading to decreased H+ secretion and bicarbonate reabsorption.
- However, the patient's **potassium (3.4 mEq/L)** is within the normal range to slightly low, and the clinical picture following recent major surgery points more directly to surgical complications.
*Rhabdomyolysis*
- Rhabdomyolysis typically causes a **high anion gap metabolic acidosis** due to the release of phosphorous and other organic acids from damaged muscle cells, as well as potential acute kidney injury.
- This patient has a **normal anion gap acidosis**, and there are no clinical signs (e.g., muscle pain, elevated creatine kinase) pointing towards rhabdomyolysis.
*Adverse effect of medication*
- The patient's medications, amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide, are not typically associated with a severe normal anion gap metabolic acidosis in this context.
- While **thiazide diuretics** can rarely cause mild metabolic alkalosis due to volume contraction, they would not cause this degree of acidosis, especially with a normal anion gap, and are not known to directly cause bicarbonate loss associated with a fistula.
Question 34: A 56-year-old man presents to his primary care provider because of a lack of flexibility in his right hand. He has noticed that his hand has become less flexible and more fixed over the past year and he now has trouble shaking other people's hands comfortably. He has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, hepatitis C, and cirrhosis. His family history is insignificant. He has a 40 pack-year smoking history. At the physician's office, his blood pressure is 118/67 mm Hg, the respirations are 18/min, the pulse is 77/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). On physical examination, the 4th and 5th digits are mildly flexed with dense, rope-like cords extending down his palm. Which of the following is considered the first-line therapy for this condition?
A. Collagenase injections (Correct Answer)
B. Surgery
C. Steroid injections
D. Colchicine
E. Observation and physical therapy
Explanation: ***Collagenase injections***
- **Collagenase clostridium histolyticum** is a first-line treatment for **Dupuytren's contracture**, indicated for patients with a palpable cord and contracture of at least 20 degrees in a metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint or 5 degrees in a proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint.
- The enzyme targets and **breaks down the collagen cords** causing the contracture, allowing for non-surgical correction of the finger deformity.
*Surgery*
- **Fasciectomy** (surgical removal of the involved fascia) is considered when non-surgical treatments fail or in cases of severe contracture.
- While effective, surgery carries higher risks of complications such as **infection, nerve damage, and prolonged recovery** compared to collagenase injections.
*Steroid injections*
- **Corticosteroid injections** can reduce inflammation and pain in various musculoskeletal conditions but are generally not effective for the fibrous cords of **Dupuytren's contracture**.
- They do not address the underlying pathology of **collagen proliferation and thickening**.
*Colchicine*
- **Colchicine** is an anti-inflammatory medication primarily used to treat **gout** and **familial Mediterranean fever**.
- It has no established role in the direct treatment of **Dupuytren's contracture**, which is a fibrotic condition.
*Observation and physical therapy*
- **Observation** is appropriate for very mild cases without functional impairment, but this patient has significant loss of flexibility and difficulty shaking hands, indicating the need for intervention.
- While **physical therapy** can help maintain range of motion after intervention, it cannot break down the dense fibrous cords responsible for the contracture.
Question 35: A 68-year-old man comes to the physician for a wellness visit. Physical examination shows an enlarged and nodular prostate. Laboratory studies show elevated levels of prostate-specific antigen. A prostate biopsy confirms the diagnosis of prostate cancer and a radical prostatectomy is planned. This patient should be counseled on the increased risk of injury to which of the following structures?
A. Superior vesical artery
B. Hypogastric nerve
C. Distal ureter
D. External anal sphincter
E. Cavernous nerve (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cavernous nerve***
- The **cavernous nerves** run through the substance of the **prostate gland** and are often injured during **radical prostatectomy**.
- These nerves are crucial for penile erection, and their injury commonly results in **postsurgical erectile dysfunction**.
*Superior vesical artery*
- The **superior vesical artery** supplies the **urinary bladder** and is located superior to the prostate, making it less vulnerable during a prostatectomy.
- While it originates from the umbilical artery, its course generally keeps it away from the primary dissection planes of a radical prostatectomy.
*Hypogastric nerve*
- **Hypogastric nerves** primarily contribute to sympathetic innervation of pelvic organs and are located more superiorly and laterally to the prostate, outside the typical surgical field of a prostatectomy.
- Damage to these nerves would primarily affect bladder and bowel function, a different set of risks compared to direct prostate resection.
*Distal ureter*
- The **distal ureters** enter the bladder posterolaterally, some distance from the prostate, though very close to the seminal vesicles.
- While potential for injury exists in extensive pelvic surgeries, it is generally not the most commonly cited nerve injury risk specifically from dissection around the prostate itself during a prostatectomy.
*External anal sphincter*
- The **external anal sphincter** is located inferior to the prostate and is responsible for fecal continence.
- It is not typically at risk during a standard radical prostatectomy, which focuses on removing the prostate anterior to the rectum.
Question 36: A 33-year-old man comes to the physician because of decreased hearing in his right ear for the past 4 months. During this period, he has also had multiple episodes of dizziness and a constant ringing noise in his right ear. Over the past 5 weeks, he has also noticed scant amounts of right-sided ear discharge. He has a history of multiple ear infections since childhood that were treated with antibiotics. Vital signs are within normal limits. Otoscopic examination shows a white pearly mass behind the right tympanic membrane. Placing a 512 Hz tuning fork in the center of the forehead shows lateralization to the right ear. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's symptoms?
A. Surgical excision (Correct Answer)
B. Topical ciprofloxacin
C. Radiation therapy
D. Systemic corticosteroids
E. Fitting for hearing aids
Explanation: ***Surgical excision***
- The patient's history of recurrent ear infections, chronic unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, dizziness, ear discharge, and the otoscopic finding of a **white pearly mass behind the tympanic membrane** (cholesteatoma) indicate the need for surgical removal.
- A **cholesteatoma** is an erosive and destructive lesion that can expand and damage surrounding structures, necessitating surgical intervention to prevent further complications like bone destruction, intracranial infection, or permanent hearing loss.
*Topical ciprofloxacin*
- Topical antibiotics like ciprofloxacin are used to treat **bacterial ear infections** or otitis externa.
- While the patient has ear discharge, the underlying problem is a cholesteatoma, which requires surgical removal and will not be resolved with antibiotics alone.
*Radiation therapy*
- **Radiation therapy** is typically used for malignant tumors or as an adjunct treatment for some benign invasive tumors, which is not indicated for a cholesteatoma.
- Cholesteatomas are **benign growths** of squamous epithelium, and their primary treatment is surgical.
*Systemic corticosteroids*
- **Systemic corticosteroids** are used to reduce inflammation in conditions like sudden sensorineural hearing loss, Ménière's disease exacerbations, or certain autoimmune inner ear disorders.
- They are not a definitive treatment for cholesteatoma, which is a structural lesion requiring physical removal.
*Fitting for hearing aids*
- While the patient has hearing loss, a **hearing aid** would only address the symptom of decreased hearing without treating the underlying cause, which is an actively damaging cholesteatoma.
- Post-surgical hearing rehabilitation, which might include hearing aids, would be considered **after the cholesteatoma is removed** and the extent of damage is assessed.
Question 37: Eighteen hours after undergoing surgery for a splenic rupture and liver laceration following a high-speed motor vehicle collision, a 23-year-old man's pulse is 140/min, blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, and central venous pressure is 19 cm H2O. He was transfused with 6 units of packed red blood cells during surgery. Examination shows jugular venous distention. There is a midline surgical incision with no erythema or discharge. The abdomen is tense and distended. The total urine output over the past 6 hours is 90 mL. Serum studies show:
Urea nitrogen 80 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
HCO3- 29 mEq/L
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Administration of fresh frozen plasma
B. Reopen abdomen and cover with plastic (Correct Answer)
C. Administration of intravenous antibiotics
D. Angiographic embolization
E. Hemicolonic resection
Explanation: ***Reopen abdomen and cover with plastic***
- The patient's presentation with **hypotension** (BP 80/50 mmHg), **tachycardia** (pulse 140/min), **oliguria** (90 mL/6 hours), **elevated CVP** (19 cm H2O), **jugular venous distention**, and a **tense, distended abdomen** points to **abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS)**.
- **Decompression laparotomy** is the definitive treatment for ACS, which involves reopening the abdomen to relieve pressure and covering it with a temporary closure like a plastic bag to prevent further complications.
*Administration of fresh frozen plasma*
- While a patient transfused with multiple units of packed red blood cells may develop **coagulopathy** due to dilution of clotting factors, the primary issue here is critically high intra-abdominal pressure, not bleeding.
- FFP would address coagulopathy but not the underlying mechanical compression causing systemic compromise.
*Administration of intravenous antibiotics*
- Although **infection** is a concern in postoperative patients, especially after trauma and multiple transfusions, the immediate life-threatening condition is the compromised organ perfusion secondary to abdominal compartment syndrome.
- Antibiotics would not address the acute hemodynamic instability or organ dysfunction caused by elevated intra-abdominal pressure.
*Angiographic embolization*
- This procedure is primarily used to control **active bleeding**, particularly from solid organs like the liver or spleen.
- The patient's condition (elevated CVP, jugular venous distention, oliguria, tense abdomen) indicates a problem of pressure and organ compromise, not ongoing hemorrhage that would be amenable to embolization.
*Hemicolonic resection*
- This is a surgical procedure to remove part of the colon, typically indicated for conditions like **ischemia**, **obstruction**, or **perforation**.
- There is no information in the clinical scenario to suggest a primary colonic pathology requiring resection.
Question 38: A 63-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a skin lesion on her neck for 7 months. It is neither pruritic nor painful. She has tried using over-the-counter topical medications, but none have helped. She has hypertension, hypothyroidism, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. Current medications include amlodipine, hydrochlorothiazide, levothyroxine, and pantoprazole. She is a farmer and lives with her two children. Her temperature is 37.7°C (98.8°F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 15/min, and blood pressure is 128/84 mm Hg. Examination shows a 5-mm (0.2-in) nontender, indurated, nodular lesion with rolled-out edges on the anterolateral aspect of the neck. There is a central area of ulceration. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. In addition to dermoscopy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Perform a wedge biopsy of the lesion and surrounding tissue
B. Perform cryotherapy on the lesion
C. Schedule external beam radiotherapy sessions
D. Perform an excisional biopsy of the entire lesion
E. Perform a punch biopsy of the center of the lesion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Perform a punch biopsy of the center of the lesion***
- A **punch biopsy** is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step for a suspicious skin lesion with features suggestive of **basal cell carcinoma (BCC)**, such as rolled-out edges and central ulceration.
- Doing a punch biopsy in the center provides sufficient tissue for **histopathological examination** while being less invasive than excisional or wedge biopsies.
*Perform a wedge biopsy of the lesion and surrounding tissue*
- A **wedge biopsy** is typically reserved for lesions that are too large for a punch biopsy or when a deeper tissue sample, including subcutaneous fat, is required.
- While it can be diagnostic, it is more invasive for an initial assessment of a 5-mm lesion.
*Perform cryotherapy on the lesion*
- **Cryotherapy** is a treatment modality that involves freezing the lesion.
- It is used for **benign lesions** or superficial BCCs, but it's not the initial diagnostic step for a suspicious lesion of unknown pathology.
*Schedule external beam radiotherapy sessions*
- **Radiotherapy** is a treatment option for skin cancers, especially in cases where surgery is contraindicated or when dealing with larger, aggressive tumors.
- However, it should only be considered after a definitive diagnosis has been established through biopsy.
*Perform an excisional biopsy of the entire lesion*
- An **excisional biopsy** involves removing the entire lesion with a margin of healthy tissue.
- While it can be both diagnostic and therapeutic, for a lesion with suspected malignancy, a less invasive punch biopsy is usually preferred first to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate surgical margins.
Question 39: A 76-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment at his primary care provider’s office. The patient has severe osteoarthritis, which substantially limits his daily physical activity. Several imaging studies have confirmed severe articular degeneration and evidence of bone grinding on bone in his hip joints. The patient suffers from chronic pain and depression that have been resistant to medication. At the physician’s office, his blood pressure is 119/67 mm Hg, the respirations are 18/min, the pulse is 87/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). On physical examination, the patient has a flat affect and appears anxious. He has significant pain and limited passive and active range of motion of his hip joints bilaterally. This patient would most likely benefit from which of the following procedures if there are no contraindications?
A. Hip osteotomy
B. Hip resurfacing
C. Arthroscopic debridement
D. Total hip arthroplasty (Correct Answer)
E. Autologous chondrocyte implantation
Explanation: ***Total hip arthroplasty***
- This patient, with **severe osteoarthritis** in his hip joints, **limited daily physical activity**, and **chronic pain resistant to medication**, is an ideal candidate for **total hip arthroplasty (THA)**.
- THA involves replacing the damaged cartilage and bone with **prosthetic components**, effectively eliminating bone-on-bone grinding and significantly improving pain and function.
*Hip osteotomy*
- **Hip osteotomy** involves cutting and realigning the bones to shift weight to healthier cartilage, typically performed in **younger patients** with early to moderate osteoarthritis or developmental hip dysplasia.
- It is generally not suitable for **severe, widespread articular degeneration** in older adults like this patient.
*Hip resurfacing*
- **Hip resurfacing** involves capping the femoral head and lining the acetabulum with metal, preserving more bone than THA, and is generally offered to **younger, active patients** with good bone quality.
- This patient's age (76) and severe arthritis with bone grinding make him less suitable for resurfacing due to the risk of **femoral neck fracture** and the extensive cartilage damage.
*Arthroscopic debridement*
- **Arthroscopic debridement** is a minimally invasive procedure to clean out loose cartilage fragments and degenerated tissue, typically used for **mild to moderate osteoarthritis** or specific mechanical symptoms.
- It would not be effective for the **severe articular degeneration** and bone-on-bone grinding described in this patient's hip joints.
*Autologous chondrocyte implantation*
- **Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)** is a procedure to repair focal cartilage defects by culturing a patient's own cartilage cells and implanting them, primarily used for **isolated, full-thickness cartilage lesions**.
- This technique is not appropriate for the **widespread, severe articular degeneration** characteristic of advanced osteoarthritis.
Question 40: A 48-year-old female with a history of hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, and asthma undergoes a scheduled total abdominal hysterectomy for symptomatic fibroids. She is given a dose of preoperative prophylactic antibiotics. Her urinary catheter is removed on post-operative day one. She is on low-molecular-weight heparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. On post-operative day four, the patient complains of abdominal pain. She denies cough, nausea, vomiting, or dysuria, but has had 3-4 loose stools over her hospitalization. Her temperature is 101.0°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 97/59 mmHg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 16/min. The surgical wound has new erythema with dusky patches and abundant cloudy discharge. The patient reports new decreased sensation around her wound site. Her lungs are clear to auscultation and abdomen is soft with hypoactive bowel sounds. She has no costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis is within normal limits and urine culture shows 100,000 CFU/mL of Escherichia coli without pyuria.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Oral levofloxacin for 3 days
B. Oral vancomycin for 10-14 days
C. Vancomycin/piperacillin-tazobactam/clindamycin and observation
D. Vancomycin/piperacillin-tazobactam/clindamycin and debridement of the surgical wound (Correct Answer)
E. Discontinue low-molecular-weight heparin
Explanation: ***Vancomycin/piperacillin-tazobactam/clindamycin and debridement of the surgical wound***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **necrotizing fasciitis**, including **erythema with dusky patches**, **abundant cloudy discharge**, and **decreased sensation around the wound site** (suggesting nerve damage from tissue necrosis), in the context of recent surgery and multiple comorbidities.
- Urgent surgical **debridement of all necrotic tissue** is the cornerstone of treatment for necrotizing fasciitis, which must be initiated immediately alongside broad-spectrum antibiotics covering Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and anaerobic organisms (e.g., vancomycin, piperacillin-tazobactam, clindamycin).
*Oral levofloxacin for 3 days*
- This option is inadequate for treating severe infections like **necrotizing fasciitis**, which requires **broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics** and surgical intervention.
- While it may cover some Gram-negative organisms, it lacks coverage for Gram-positives and anaerobes, and its oral route is inappropriate for a critically ill patient.
*Oral vancomycin for 10-14 days*
- **Oral vancomycin** is primarily used for *Clostridioides difficile* infection (CDI) and has poor systemic absorption, making it *ineffective* for systemic or deep tissue infections like necrotizing fasciitis.
- Even *intravenous* vancomycin alone would be insufficient as it only covers Gram-positive bacteria, lacking coverage for Gram-negative and anaerobic pathogens involved in necrotizing fasciitis.
*Vancomycin/piperacillin-tazobactam/clindamycin and observation*
- While the antibiotic regimen provided (vancomycin for Gram-positives, piperacillin-tazobactam for broad Gram-negative and anaerobic coverage, and clindamycin to inhibit toxin production) is appropriate for **necrotizing fasciitis**, **observation alone is insufficient**.
- **Necrotizing fasciitis is a surgical emergency** requiring immediate and aggressive debridement to remove all necrotic tissue and prevent rapid progression, organ failure, and death; observation would be catastrophic.
*Discontinue low-molecular-weight heparin*
- Discontinuing **low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)** addresses only the patient's DVT prophylaxis, which is unrelated to the acute, life-threatening surgical site infection.
- While a clotting disorder could exacerbate tissue necrosis, the primary and immediate life-saving intervention for necrotizing fasciitis is **surgical debridement and broad-spectrum antibiotics**, not discontinuing LMWH.