Fertility-preserving surgical techniques — MCQs

A 33-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of severe pelvic pain and nausea. She was diagnosed with a follicular cyst in the left ovary 3 months ago. The cyst was found incidentally during a fertility evaluation. A pelvic ultrasound with Doppler flow shows an enlarged, edematous left ovary with no blood flow. Laparoscopic evaluation shows necrosis of the left ovary, and a left oophorectomy is performed. During the procedure, blunt dissection of the left infundibulopelvic ligament is performed. Which of the following structures is most at risk of injury during this step of the surgery?

A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period for 3 months. Menarche occurred at the age of 12 years and menses occurred at regular 30-day intervals until they became irregular 1 year ago. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lb); BMI is 33.2 kg/m2. Physical exam shows nodules and pustules along the jaw line and dark hair growth around the umbilicus. Pelvic examination shows a normal-sized, retroverted uterus. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Without treatment, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following?

A 37-year-old G4P3 presents to her physician at 20 weeks gestation for routine prenatal care. Currently, she has no complaints; however, in the first trimester she was hospitalized due to acute pyelonephritis and was treated with cefuroxime. All her past pregnancies required cesarean deliveries for medical indications. Her history is also significant for amenorrhea after weight loss at 19 years of age and a cervical polypectomy at 30 years of age. Today, her vital signs are within normal limits and a physical examination is unremarkable. A transabdominal ultrasound shows a normally developing male fetus without morphologic abnormalities, anterior placement of the placenta in the lower uterine segment, loss of the retroplacental hypoechoic zone, and visible lacunae within the myometrium. Which of the following factors present in this patient is a risk factor for the condition she has developed?

A 31-year-old female presents to her gynecologist with spotting between periods. She reports that her menses began at age 11, and she has never had spotting prior to the three months ago. Her medical history is significant for estrogen-receptor positive intraductal carcinoma of the breast, which was treated with tamoxifen. An endometrial biopsy is performed, which shows endometrial hyperplasia with atypia. She reports that she and her husband are currently trying to have children. What is the next best step?

A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because she is unable to conceive for 3 years. She and her partner are sexually active and do not use contraception. They were partially assessed for this complaint 6 months ago. Analysis of her husband's semen has shown normal sperm counts and hormonal assays for both partners were normal. Her menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 to 6 days. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She had a single episode of urinary tract infection 4 years ago and was treated with oral antibiotics. Vaginal examination shows no abnormalities. Bimanual examination shows a normal-sized uterus and no palpable adnexal masses. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 27-year-old female presents to her OB/GYN for a check-up. During her visit, a pelvic exam and Pap smear are performed. The patient does not have any past medical issues and has had routine gynecologic care with normal pap smears every 3 years since age 21. The results of the Pap smear demonstrate atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A 36-year-old African American G1P0010 presents to her gynecologist for an annual visit. She has a medical history of hypertension, for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide. The patient’s mother had breast cancer at age 68, and her sister has endometriosis. At this visit, the patient’s temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 138/74 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 13/min. Her BMI is 32.4 kg/m^2. Pelvic exam reveals a nontender, 16-week sized uterus with an irregular contour. A transvaginal ultrasound is performed and demonstrates a submucosal leiomyoma. This patient is at most increased risk of which of the following complications?

A 38-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician concerned about her inability to get pregnant for the past year. She has regular menstrual cycles and has unprotected intercourse with her husband daily. She is an immigrant from Australia and her past medical history is not known. She is currently taking folic acid and multivitamins. The patient's husband has had a sperm count that was determined to be within the normal range twice. She is very concerned about her lack of pregnancy and that she is too old. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a skiing accident. The patient had been skiing down the mountain when he collided with another skier who had stopped suddenly in front of him. He is alert but complaining of pain in his chest and abdomen. He has a past medical history of intravenous drug use and peptic ulcer disease. He is a current smoker. His temperature is 97.4°F (36.3°C), blood pressure is 77/53 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, and respirations are 13/min. He has a GCS of 15 and bilateral shallow breath sounds. His abdomen is soft and distended with bruising over the epigastrium. He is moving all four extremities and has scattered lacerations on his face. His skin is cool and delayed capillary refill is present. Two large-bore IVs are placed in his antecubital fossa, and he is given 2L of normal saline. His FAST exam reveals fluid in Morison's pouch. Following the 2L normal saline, his temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 97/62 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 12/min. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 39-year-old man presents with painless swelling of the right testis and a sensation of heaviness. The physical examination revealed an intra-testicular solid mass that could not be felt separately from the testis. After a thorough evaluation, he was diagnosed with testicular seminoma. Which of the following group of lymph nodes are most likely involved?