Ectopic pregnancy surgical management — MCQs

A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 12 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of several hours of abdominal cramping and passing of large vaginal blood clots. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.3°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg. The uterus is consistent in size with a 12-week gestation. Speculum exam shows an open cervical os and blood clots within the vaginal vault. Transvaginal ultrasound shows an empty gestational sac. The patient is worried about undergoing invasive procedures. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her roommate with severe right lower quadrant pain for the last 8 hours. The pain is progressively getting worse and is associated with vomiting. When you ask the patient about her last menstrual period, she tells you that although she stopped keeping track of her cycle after undergoing surgical sterilization 1 year ago, she recalls bleeding yesterday. The physical examination reveals a hemodynamically stable patient with a pulse of 90/min, respiratory rate of 14/min, blood pressure of 125/70 mm Hg, and temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F). The abdomen is tender to touch (more tender in the lower quadrants), and tenderness at McBurney's point is absent. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A 25-year old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is sexually active and uses condoms inconsistently with her boyfriend. She had pelvic inflammatory disease at the age of 22 years. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft, and there is tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant with guarding but no rebound. There is scant blood in the introitus. Her serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is 1,600 mIU/mL. Her blood type is O, RhD negative. She is asked to return 4 days later. Her serum β-hCG level is now 1,900 mIU/ml. A pelvic ultrasound shows a normal appearing uterus with an empty intrauterine cavity and a minimal amount of free pelvic fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old primigravid woman with a history of seizures comes to the physician because she had a positive pregnancy test at home. Medications include valproic acid and a multivitamin. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Her baby is at increased risk for requiring which of the following interventions?

A 23-year-old female presents to the emergency department with right lower abdominal pain that began suddenly one hour ago. She is writhing in discomfort and has vomited twice since arrival. She has no chronic medical conditions, but states she has had chlamydia two or three times in the past. Her abdomen is firm, and she is guarding. Pelvic exam reveals blood pooling in the vagina and right adnexal tenderness. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. A pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is an appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A previously healthy 29-year-old Taiwanese woman comes to the emergency department with vaginal bleeding and pelvic pressure for several hours. Over the past 2 weeks, she had intermittent nausea and vomiting. A home urine pregnancy test was positive 10 weeks ago. She has had no prenatal care. Her pulse is 80/min and blood pressure is 150/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows warm and moist skin. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is soft and non-distended. Bimanual examination shows a uterus palpated at the level of the umbilicus. Her serum beta human chorionic gonadotropin concentration is 110,000 mIU/mL. Urine dipstick is positive for protein and ketones. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a central intrauterine mass with hypoechoic spaces; there is no detectable fetal heart rate. An x-ray of the chest shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 27-year-old woman with a past medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and severe anemia of chronic disease presents to the emergency department for nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that started this morning. She has been unable to tolerate oral intake during this time. Her blood pressure is 107/58 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for left lower quadrant abdominal pain upon palpation. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and a serum beta-hCG is 1,110 mIU/mL. A transvaginal ultrasound demonstrates no free fluid and is unable to identify an intrauterine pregnancy. The patient states that she intends to have children in the future. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 32-year-old Caucasian female is admitted to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of severe and diffuse abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and constipation. Her personal history is unremarkable except for an ectopic pregnancy 5 years ago. Upon admission, she is found to have a blood pressure of 120/60 mm Hg, a pulse of 105/min, a respiratory rate 20/min, and a body temperature of 37°C (98.6°F). She has diffuse abdominal tenderness, hypoactive bowel sounds, and mild distention on examination of her abdomen. Rectal and pelvic examination findings are normal. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 30 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department because of progressive upper abdominal pain for the past hour. The patient vomited once on her way to the hospital. She said she initially had dull, generalized stomach pain about 6 hours prior, but now the pain is located in the upper abdomen and is more severe. There is no personal or family history of any serious illnesses. She is sexually active with her husband. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows right upper quadrant tenderness. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,000/mm3. Urinalysis shows mild pyuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive treatment in the management of this patient?

A 67-year-old woman with endometrial cancer undergoes robotic-assisted staging surgery. Final pathology reveals grade 2 endometrioid adenocarcinoma with 60% myometrial invasion, positive pelvic lymph nodes (2/15), negative para-aortic nodes (0/8), and lymphovascular space invasion. No cervical or adnexal involvement. The tumor care team debates adjuvant treatment. Evaluate which combination of pathologic features most significantly impacts treatment recommendations?