A 63-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for the evaluation of severe abdominal pain that started suddenly 1 hour ago while he was having a barbecue with his family. The pain is located in the middle of his abdomen and he describes it as 9 out of 10 in intensity. The patient feels nauseated and has vomited twice. He has also had a loose bowel movement. He was diagnosed with hypertension 2 years ago and was started on hydrochlorothiazide. He stopped taking his pills 1 week ago because of several episodes of heart racing and dizziness that he attributes to his medication. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 40 years. He is in severe distress. His temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. Cardiac examination shows an irregularly irregular rhythm. Bowel sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 16.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count 13,000/mm3
Platelet count 340,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 13 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 38 seconds
Lactate (venous) 2.4 mEq/L (N=0.5 - 2.2 mEq/L)
Serum
Urea Nitrogen 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase
105 U/L
CT angiography is performed and the diagnosis is confirmed. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management of this patient?
Q42
A 65-year-old African American man presents for follow-up examination with a 6-month history of urinary hesitancy, weak stream, and terminal dribbling, which is refractory to a combination therapy of finasteride and tamsulosin. The patient’s past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. His father and brother were diagnosed with prostate cancer at the age of 55 years. His vital signs are within normal limits. The patient has a normal anal sphincter tone and a bulbocavernosus muscle reflex. Digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals a prostate size equivalent to 2 finger pads with a hard nodule and without fluctuance or tenderness. Serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 5 ng/mL. Which of the following investigations is most likely to establish a definitive diagnosis?
Q43
A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 5-day history of epigastric pain, fever, nausea, and malaise. Five weeks ago she had acute biliary pancreatitis and was treated with endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography and subsequent cholecystectomy. Her maternal grandfather died of pancreatic cancer. She does not smoke. She drinks 1–2 beers daily. Her temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), respirations are 18/min, pulse is 120/min, and blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows epigastric tenderness and three well-healed laparoscopy scars. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Leukocyte count 15,800/mm3
Serum
Na+ 140 mEq/L
Cl− 103 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 18 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 70 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 22 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 19 U/L
γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) 55 U/L (N = 5–50)
Bilirubin 1 mg/dl
Glucose 105 mg/dL
Amylase 220 U/L
Lipase 365 U/L (N = 14–280)
Abdominal ultrasound shows a complex cystic fluid collection with irregular walls and septations in the pancreas. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q44
A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute pain in the left lower abdomen and profuse rectal bleeding. These symptoms started 3 hours ago. The patient has chronic constipation and bloating, for which he takes lactulose. His family history is negative for gastrointestinal disorders. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. On physical examination, the patient appears drowsy, and there is tenderness with guarding in the left lower abdominal quadrant. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows multiple, scattered diverticula with acute mucosal inflammation in the sigmoid colon. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Q45
A 47-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. The patient states that she felt this pain come on during dinner last night. Since then, she has felt bloated, constipated, and has been vomiting. Her current medications include metformin, insulin, levothyroxine, and ibuprofen. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 139/79 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, the patient appears uncomfortable. Abdominal exam is notable for hypoactive bowel sounds, abdominal distension, and diffuse tenderness in all four quadrants. Cardiac and pulmonary exams are within normal limits. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q46
A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe abdominal pain for the past 2 hours. He has a 2-year history of burning epigastric pain that gets worse with meals. His pulse is 120/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 60/40 mm Hg. Despite appropriate lifesaving measures, he dies. At autopsy, examination shows erosion of the right gastric artery. Perforation of an ulcer in which of the following locations most likely caused this patient's findings?
Q47
A 47-year-old man visits the outpatient clinic with complaints of heartburn and chest pain for the past 6 months. His pain is retrosternal and was initially only associated with intake of solid foods, but it now occurs with liquids as well. Antacids do not relieve his pain anymore. He is worried about the pain as it is getting worse with time. He also had an unintentional weight loss of 2.7 kg (6 lb) during this period. Physical examination including the abdominal examination is normal. Laboratory investigations reveal:
Hgb 10 mg/dL
White blood cell total count 5 x 109/L
Platelet count 168 x 109/ L
Hematocrit 38%
Red blood cell count 4.2 x 1012/ L
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy reveals an exophytic mass in the lower third of the esophagus with ulcerations and mucous plugs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q48
A 68-year-old man presents to the office with his wife complaining of difficulty in swallowing, which progressively worsened over the past month. He has difficulty in initiating swallowing and often has to drink water with solid foods. He has no problems swallowing liquids. His wife is concerned about her husband's bad breath. Adding to his wife, the patient mentions a recent episode of vomiting where the vomit smelled 'really bad' and contained the food that he ate 2 days before. On examination, the patient's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse rate is 72/min, with normal bowel sounds, and no abdominal tenderness to palpation. A barium swallow radiograph is performed (shown below), which reveals a localized collection of contrast material in the cervical region suggestive of an outpouching. Which of the following statements best describes the lesion seen on the radiograph?
Q49
A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with constant and gnawing lower abdominal pain for 2 days. The pain has been steadily worsening in intensity. He says the pain occasionally radiates to his lower back and groin bilaterally. While he cannot identify any aggravating factors, he feels that the pain improves with his knees flexed. His medical history is notable for hypertension which is well controlled with medications. He has smoked 40–50 cigarettes daily for 35 years. On examination, there is a palpable pulsatile mass just left of midline below the umbilicus. He is immediately referred for definitive management but during transfer, he becomes hypotensive and unresponsive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q50
A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician because of painless enlargement of his left testis for the past 2 weeks. The patient reports that the enlargement is worse in the evenings, especially after playing soccer. He has not had any trauma to the testes. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows multiple cord-like structures above the left testes. The findings are more prominent while standing. The cord-like structures disappear in the supine position. The testes are normal on palpation. The patient is at greatest risk of developing which of the following complications?
Abdominal emergencies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A 63-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for the evaluation of severe abdominal pain that started suddenly 1 hour ago while he was having a barbecue with his family. The pain is located in the middle of his abdomen and he describes it as 9 out of 10 in intensity. The patient feels nauseated and has vomited twice. He has also had a loose bowel movement. He was diagnosed with hypertension 2 years ago and was started on hydrochlorothiazide. He stopped taking his pills 1 week ago because of several episodes of heart racing and dizziness that he attributes to his medication. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 40 years. He is in severe distress. His temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. Cardiac examination shows an irregularly irregular rhythm. Bowel sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 16.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count 13,000/mm3
Platelet count 340,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 13 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 38 seconds
Lactate (venous) 2.4 mEq/L (N=0.5 - 2.2 mEq/L)
Serum
Urea Nitrogen 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase
105 U/L
CT angiography is performed and the diagnosis is confirmed. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management of this patient?
A. Anticoagulation with heparin
B. MR angiography
C. Colonoscopy
D. Piperacillin/tazobactam administration
E. Balloon angioplasty and stenting (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Balloon angioplasty and stenting***
- This patient presents with **acute mesenteric ischemia** due to an **embolic occlusion** (suggested by irregularly irregular rhythm indicating **atrial fibrillation** and sudden onset of severe abdominal pain out of proportion to physical findings).
- CT angiography has confirmed the diagnosis, and the patient shows **no signs of peritonitis** (soft, nontender abdomen) or bowel necrosis, making him an ideal candidate for **endovascular revascularization**.
- **Balloon angioplasty with stenting** or **catheter-directed thrombolysis** represents the **definitive management** to restore mesenteric blood flow and prevent bowel infarction in patients diagnosed early without peritoneal signs.
- Endovascular therapy has become increasingly preferred over open surgical embolectomy when feasible, offering lower morbidity and mortality with comparable efficacy in selected patients.
*Anticoagulation with heparin*
- While **immediate anticoagulation with heparin** is an essential **initial measure** to prevent clot propagation, it is **not definitive management**.
- Heparin should be started promptly but does **not restore blood flow** or remove the embolic occlusion; it serves as a bridge to definitive revascularization.
- All patients with acute mesenteric ischemia require revascularization (endovascular or surgical) in addition to anticoagulation.
*MR angiography*
- **CT angiography has already confirmed the diagnosis**, making additional imaging with MR angiography unnecessary and wasteful of critical time.
- In acute mesenteric ischemia, every minute counts—**"time is bowel"**—and delays in revascularization increase the risk of irreversible bowel necrosis.
*Colonoscopy*
- Colonoscopy evaluates the **colonic mucosa** and is used for lower GI bleeding, polyp surveillance, or inflammatory bowel disease.
- It has **no role in acute mesenteric ischemia**, which typically involves the **small bowel** supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, and provides no therapeutic benefit for vascular occlusion.
*Piperacillin/tazobactam administration*
- Broad-spectrum antibiotics may be considered as **adjunctive therapy** if bowel necrosis or translocation of bacteria is suspected.
- However, this patient has no peritoneal signs, fever, or other evidence of perforation or sepsis, and antibiotics do **not address the underlying vascular occlusion**.
- The priority is **urgent revascularization** to restore blood flow; antibiotics alone will not prevent bowel infarction.
Question 42: A 65-year-old African American man presents for follow-up examination with a 6-month history of urinary hesitancy, weak stream, and terminal dribbling, which is refractory to a combination therapy of finasteride and tamsulosin. The patient’s past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. His father and brother were diagnosed with prostate cancer at the age of 55 years. His vital signs are within normal limits. The patient has a normal anal sphincter tone and a bulbocavernosus muscle reflex. Digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals a prostate size equivalent to 2 finger pads with a hard nodule and without fluctuance or tenderness. Serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 5 ng/mL. Which of the following investigations is most likely to establish a definitive diagnosis?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B. 4Kscore test
C. Prostate Health Index (PHI)
D. Image-guided needle biopsy (Correct Answer)
E. PSA in 3 months
Explanation: ***Image-guided needle biopsy***
- A definitive diagnosis of **prostate cancer** requires histological confirmation, which is achieved through a **biopsy**.
- The patient's presentation with a **hard nodule** on DRE, elevated PSA, and a strong family history of prostate cancer, despite treatment for BPH, strongly indicates the need for a biopsy.
*Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)*
- While MRI can help in **staging prostate cancer** and guiding biopsies, it does not provide a definitive diagnosis on its own.
- An MRI may identify suspicious lesions but **cannot confirm malignancy** without tissue sampling.
*4Kscore test*
- The 4Kscore test estimates the **risk of high-grade prostate cancer** but does not provide a definitive diagnosis.
- It uses a panel of four prostate-specific kallikrein proteins, along with patient age, DRE status, and prior biopsy results, to calculate a risk score.
*Prostate Health Index (PHI)*
- The PHI is a blood test that combines total PSA, free PSA, and [-2]proPSA to assess the **probability of prostate cancer**.
- It helps in deciding whether a biopsy is needed, but like the 4Kscore, it is not a diagnostic tool in itself.
*PSA in 3 months*
- Re-checking PSA in 3 months would **delay definitive diagnosis** and treatment for a potentially aggressive cancer, especially given the palpable nodule and family history.
- The current PSA of 5 ng/mL, although not extremely high, combined with the suspicious DRE finding, warrants more immediate action.
Question 43: A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 5-day history of epigastric pain, fever, nausea, and malaise. Five weeks ago she had acute biliary pancreatitis and was treated with endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography and subsequent cholecystectomy. Her maternal grandfather died of pancreatic cancer. She does not smoke. She drinks 1–2 beers daily. Her temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), respirations are 18/min, pulse is 120/min, and blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows epigastric tenderness and three well-healed laparoscopy scars. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Leukocyte count 15,800/mm3
Serum
Na+ 140 mEq/L
Cl− 103 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 18 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 70 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 22 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 19 U/L
γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) 55 U/L (N = 5–50)
Bilirubin 1 mg/dl
Glucose 105 mg/dL
Amylase 220 U/L
Lipase 365 U/L (N = 14–280)
Abdominal ultrasound shows a complex cystic fluid collection with irregular walls and septations in the pancreas. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pancreatic cancer
B. Acute cholangitis
C. Pancreatic abscess (Correct Answer)
D. Pancreatic pseudocyst
E. ERCP-induced pancreatitis
Explanation: ***Pancreatic abscess***
- The presence of fever, leukocytosis (WBC 15,800/mm³), and a complex, septated fluid collection seen on ultrasound, following acute pancreatitis, is highly suggestive of a **pancreatic abscess**.
- **Pancreatic abscesses** develop as a complication of acute pancreatitis, typically resulting from infected pancreatic necrosis and often present with persistent symptoms of infection.
*Pancreatic cancer*
- While there is a family history of pancreatic cancer, her acute presentation with **fever, leukocytosis**, and a tender, complex fluid collection is **not typical** for initial pancreatic cancer presentation.
- Pancreatic cancer typically presents with **jaundice, weight loss**, and chronic abdominal pain rather than acute infectious symptoms and a fluid collection after pancreatitis.
*Acute cholangitis*
- Acute cholangitis is characterized by **Charcot's triad** (fever, jaundice, right upper quadrant pain) or **Reynold's pentad** (Charcot's triad plus altered mental status and hypotension).
- The patient's **normal bilirubin level** (1 mg/dL), absence of jaundice, and epigastric pain (not right upper quadrant specific) make acute cholangitis less likely, especially with a history of cholecystectomy.
*Pancreatic pseudocyst*
- A pancreatic pseudocyst is a **sterile** fluid collection without signs of active infection (e.g., fever, leukocytosis) and typically has well-defined, smooth walls rather than irregular walls or septations.
- While she has a fluid collection from pancreatitis, the **fever, leukocytosis, and irregular/septated walls** on ultrasound point away from a simple pseudocyst and towards an infected collection.
*ERCP-induced pancreatitis*
- ERCP-induced pancreatitis would have occurred **immediately after the procedure**, which was five weeks ago. The current symptoms occurring five weeks later suggest a complication of the initial pancreatitis, not a new induction.
- While ERCP can cause pancreatitis, this diagnosis refers to the initial event, not a **secondary infectious complication** manifesting weeks later.
Question 44: A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute pain in the left lower abdomen and profuse rectal bleeding. These symptoms started 3 hours ago. The patient has chronic constipation and bloating, for which he takes lactulose. His family history is negative for gastrointestinal disorders. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. On physical examination, the patient appears drowsy, and there is tenderness with guarding in the left lower abdominal quadrant. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows multiple, scattered diverticula with acute mucosal inflammation in the sigmoid colon. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?
A. Elective colectomy
B. Dietary modification and antibiotics
C. Volume replacement, analgesia, intravenous antibiotics, and endoscopic hemostasis
D. Volume replacement, analgesia, intravenous antibiotics, and surgical hemostasis (Correct Answer)
E. Reassurance and no treatment is required
Explanation: ***Volume replacement, analgesia, intravenous antibiotics, and surgical hemostasis***
- This patient presents with **acute complicated diverticulitis** with signs of **peritonitis** (left lower abdominal pain with guarding) and **septic shock** (fever 38.2°C, hypotension 90/60 mm Hg, tachycardia 110/min, drowsiness).
- Initial management requires **volume replacement** to address hypovolemia and shock, **analgesia** for pain control, and **broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics** covering gram-negative and anaerobic organisms.
- The presence of **peritonitis with hemodynamic instability** indicates complicated diverticulitis requiring **surgical intervention** (typically sigmoid resection with colostomy - Hartmann procedure) after initial resuscitation.
- While the patient has rectal bleeding, the dominant clinical picture is **perforation/transmural inflammation** requiring surgery, not just bleeding control.
*Volume replacement, analgesia, intravenous antibiotics, and endoscopic hemostasis*
- **Endoscopic hemostasis** is appropriate for uncomplicated diverticular bleeding without signs of perforation or peritonitis.
- In this case, the patient has **guarding** (indicating peritonitis) and **septic shock**, suggesting transmural inflammation or perforation that cannot be managed endoscopically.
- Endoscopy is relatively contraindicated in acute diverticulitis with peritonitis due to risk of worsening perforation.
*Elective colectomy*
- While colectomy is the correct surgical approach, the term **"elective"** is inappropriate for this acute, life-threatening emergency.
- This patient requires **urgent/emergency surgery** after initial resuscitation, not scheduled elective surgery.
*Dietary modification and antibiotics*
- **Dietary modification** (high-fiber diet) is a preventive strategy for uncomplicated diverticular disease, not treatment for acute complicated diverticulitis.
- While antibiotics are necessary, this option fails to address the **septic shock, hypovolemia, and need for surgical intervention** in complicated diverticulitis with peritonitis.
*Reassurance and no treatment is required*
- The patient exhibits **life-threatening complications**: septic shock, peritonitis, and hemodynamic instability.
- **No treatment** would result in rapid deterioration, multi-organ failure, and death.
Question 45: A 47-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. The patient states that she felt this pain come on during dinner last night. Since then, she has felt bloated, constipated, and has been vomiting. Her current medications include metformin, insulin, levothyroxine, and ibuprofen. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 139/79 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, the patient appears uncomfortable. Abdominal exam is notable for hypoactive bowel sounds, abdominal distension, and diffuse tenderness in all four quadrants. Cardiac and pulmonary exams are within normal limits. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Nasogastric tube, NPO, and IV fluids (Correct Answer)
C. Stool guaiac
D. Emergency surgery
E. IV antibiotics and steroids
Explanation: ***Nasogastric tube, NPO, and IV fluids***
- The patient's symptoms (abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, vomiting, distension, and hypoactive bowel sounds) are highly suggestive of a **bowel obstruction**.
- **Nasogastric tube decompression** relieves pressure, **NPO status** prevents further bowel distension, and **intravenous fluids** address dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, stabilizing the patient for further evaluation.
*Metoclopramide*
- This is a **prokinetic agent** that increases gastrointestinal motility.
- Using it in the context of a suspected bowel obstruction could worsen the condition by increasing pressure against the obstruction and potentially leading to **perforation**.
*Stool guaiac*
- A stool guaiac test detects the presence of **occult blood in the stool**, which is useful for evaluating gastrointestinal bleeding.
- While it can be part of a complete workup, it is not the immediate priority for a patient presenting with symptoms of **acute bowel obstruction** requiring stabilization.
*Emergency surgery*
- While surgery may ultimately be required for a bowel obstruction, it is not the immediate first step unless there are clear signs of **perforation**, **ischemia**, or **strangulation**, which are not specified here.
- Initial management involves **stabilization** with NG decompression, NPO, and IV fluids.
*IV antibiotics and steroids*
- **IV antibiotics** are indicated for suspected infection (e.g., appendicitis, diverticulitis with perforation), but the primary presentation here is mechanical obstruction, not infection.
- **Steroids** are typically used for inflammatory conditions or adrenal insufficiency, neither of which is indicated given the patient's symptoms.
Question 46: A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe abdominal pain for the past 2 hours. He has a 2-year history of burning epigastric pain that gets worse with meals. His pulse is 120/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 60/40 mm Hg. Despite appropriate lifesaving measures, he dies. At autopsy, examination shows erosion of the right gastric artery. Perforation of an ulcer in which of the following locations most likely caused this patient's findings?
A. Anterior duodenum
B. Posterior duodenum
C. Lesser curvature of the stomach (Correct Answer)
D. Greater curvature of the stomach
E. Fundus of the stomach
Explanation: ***Lesser curvature of the stomach***
- Erosion of the **right gastric artery** by a gastric ulcer is characteristic of an ulcer located on the **lesser curvature of the stomach**.
- Ulcers in this location can erode into adjacent blood vessels, leading to **severe hemorrhage** as evidenced by the patient's **hypotension** and subsequent death.
*Anterior duodenum*
- Ulcers in the **anterior duodenum** typically present with **perforation into the peritoneal cavity**, leading to generalized peritonitis, not primarily hemorrhage from a major artery.
- While bleeding can occur, it's usually from smaller duodenal arteries and less commonly involves large arteries like the right gastric artery.
*Posterior duodenum*
- Ulcers in the **posterior duodenum** are known to erode into the **gastroduodenal artery**, leading to massive upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
- This is a distinct arterial involvement compared to the erosion of the right gastric artery.
*Greater curvature of the stomach*
- Ulcers on the **greater curvature of the stomach** are less common and often associated with malignancy.
- If they bleed, it would typically involve branches of the **gastroepiploic arteries**, not the right gastric artery.
*Fundus of the stomach*
- Ulcers in the **fundus** are rare.
- If a vessel were involved, it would typically be a short gastric artery, not the right gastric artery which courses along the lesser curvature.
Question 47: A 47-year-old man visits the outpatient clinic with complaints of heartburn and chest pain for the past 6 months. His pain is retrosternal and was initially only associated with intake of solid foods, but it now occurs with liquids as well. Antacids do not relieve his pain anymore. He is worried about the pain as it is getting worse with time. He also had an unintentional weight loss of 2.7 kg (6 lb) during this period. Physical examination including the abdominal examination is normal. Laboratory investigations reveal:
Hgb 10 mg/dL
White blood cell total count 5 x 109/L
Platelet count 168 x 109/ L
Hematocrit 38%
Red blood cell count 4.2 x 1012/ L
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy reveals an exophytic mass in the lower third of the esophagus with ulcerations and mucous plugs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Adenocarcinoma (Correct Answer)
B. Achalasia
C. Benign stricture
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. Gastric ulcers
Explanation: ***Adenocarcinoma***
- The patient's symptoms, including progressive **dysphagia** (initially solids, now liquids), unintentional **weight loss**, and associated **anemia** (**Hgb 10 mg/dL**), are highly indicative of esophageal malignancy.
- The EGD findings of an **exophytic mass with ulcerations** in the **lower third of the esophagus** are characteristic of adenocarcinoma, which commonly arises in this region and is often linked to Barrett's esophagus.
*Achalasia*
- While achalasia causes dysphagia to solids and liquids and can lead to weight loss, it is a motility disorder characterized by impaired esophageal peristalsis and failed relaxation of the **lower esophageal sphincter**, and typically presents with a **dilated esophagus** and absence of a mass on EGD.
- The EGD findings of an exophytic mass with ulcerations rule out achalasia, which does not involve a tumoral mass.
*Benign stricture*
- A benign stricture can cause dysphagia and sometimes weight loss due to reduced intake, but it is typically a **smooth, circumferential narrowing** of the esophagus without an exophytic mass or ulcerations like those described.
- Unlike malignancy, benign strictures are not associated with persistent, worsening pain unresponsive to antacids, or significant anemia from chronic bleeding.
*Squamous cell carcinoma*
- Squamous cell carcinoma also presents with dysphagia and weight loss and can manifest as an exophytic mass, but is more commonly found in the **middle and upper thirds of the esophagus** and is strongly associated with smoking and alcohol use, rather than the lower third where adenocarcinoma typically occurs, often linked to **Barrett's esophagus** and GERD.
- While possible, the location in the lower third and the patient's symptoms (unresponsive heartburn) make adenocarcinoma more likely in the absence of risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma.
*Gastric ulcers*
- Gastric ulcers typically cause epigastric pain, nausea, and dyspepsia, and may lead to anemia, however, they are located in the **stomach**, not the esophagus, and the EGD clearly identifies an esophageal mass, not a gastric lesion.
- While ulcers are present, they are part of an exophytic esophageal mass, indicating a tumor rather than isolated gastric ulcers.
Question 48: A 68-year-old man presents to the office with his wife complaining of difficulty in swallowing, which progressively worsened over the past month. He has difficulty in initiating swallowing and often has to drink water with solid foods. He has no problems swallowing liquids. His wife is concerned about her husband's bad breath. Adding to his wife, the patient mentions a recent episode of vomiting where the vomit smelled 'really bad' and contained the food that he ate 2 days before. On examination, the patient's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse rate is 72/min, with normal bowel sounds, and no abdominal tenderness to palpation. A barium swallow radiograph is performed (shown below), which reveals a localized collection of contrast material in the cervical region suggestive of an outpouching. Which of the following statements best describes the lesion seen on the radiograph?
A. Inability to relax the lower esophageal sphincter
B. Outpouching of all 3 layers of the esophageal mucosal tissue distal to the upper esophageal sphincter
C. Increased pressure above the upper esophageal sphincter resulting in a defect in the wall (Correct Answer)
D. Failure of neural crest migration into the Auerbach plexus
E. Persistence of an embryologic structure
Explanation: ***Increased pressure above the upper esophageal sphincter resulting in a defect in the wall***
- The patient's symptoms (dysphagia, bad breath, vomiting undigested food from days prior) and the barium swallow finding of a cervical outpouching are classic for a **Zenker's diverticulum**.
- Zenker's diverticulum is a **pseudodiverticulum** that occurs due to increased pressure during swallowing, leading to herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa and submucosa through a muscular weakness (Killian's triangle) above the upper esophageal sphincter.
*Inability to relax the lower esophageal sphincter*
- This description refers to **achalasia**, a disorder causing primary dysphagia (difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids) due to impaired peristalsis and failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax.
- Patients with achalasia typically do not present with cervical outpouchings or undigested food from days past.
*Outpouching of all 3 layers of the esophageal mucosal tissue distal to the upper esophageal sphincter*
- An outpouching of all three layers (mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis propria) is characteristic of a **true diverticulum**, which are less common in the cervical esophagus.
- Zenker's diverticulum is a **pseudodiverticulum**, involving only the mucosa and submucosa, and occurs proximal to the upper esophageal sphincter, not distal.
*Failure of neural crest migration into the Auerbach plexus*
- This describes **Hirschsprung disease**, a congenital condition characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric (Auerbach's) and submucosal (Meissner's) plexuses of the colon.
- It results in functional obstruction, primarily affecting the colon, not the cervical esophagus, and presents with constipation, not dysphagia.
*Persistence of an embryologic structure*
- While some gastrointestinal anomalies are due to persistent embryologic structures (e.g., Meckel's diverticulum from the vitelline duct), Zenker's diverticulum is an **acquired condition** due to pressure and muscular weakness, not a persistent embryologic remnant.
- It typically develops in older adults, consistent with an acquired pathophysiology.
Question 49: A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with constant and gnawing lower abdominal pain for 2 days. The pain has been steadily worsening in intensity. He says the pain occasionally radiates to his lower back and groin bilaterally. While he cannot identify any aggravating factors, he feels that the pain improves with his knees flexed. His medical history is notable for hypertension which is well controlled with medications. He has smoked 40–50 cigarettes daily for 35 years. On examination, there is a palpable pulsatile mass just left of midline below the umbilicus. He is immediately referred for definitive management but during transfer, he becomes hypotensive and unresponsive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Irritable bowel syndrome
B. Diverticulitis
C. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (Correct Answer)
D. Gastrointestinal hemorrhage
E. Appendicitis
Explanation: ***Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm***
* The patient's presentation with acute onset **gnawing lower abdominal pain**, radiation to the **back and groin**, a **pulsatile abdominal mass**, and subsequent **hypotension** and unresponsiveness is classic for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
* His significant smoking history and hypertension are major risk factors for AAA formation and rupture.
*Irritable bowel syndrome*
* Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a functional gastrointestinal disorder primarily characterized by chronic abdominal pain associated with altered bowel habits, which does not fit the acute, severe, and progressively worsening pain described.
* IBS does not cause a pulsatile abdominal mass or lead to hypotension and unresponsiveness.
*Diverticulitis*
* Diverticulitis typically presents with **left lower quadrant pain**, fever, and changes in bowel habits, which differ from the description.
* It does not cause a pulsatile abdominal mass or sudden hemodynamic instability due to rupture.
*Gastrointestinal hemorrhage*
* While gastrointestinal hemorrhage can cause hypotension and unresponsiveness, it usually presents with symptoms like **hematemesis**, **melena**, or **hematochezia**, which are not mentioned.
* It does not explain the presence of a pulsatile abdominal mass or the characteristic gnawing abdominal and back pain.
*Appendicitis*
* Appendicitis presents with initial periumbilical pain migrating to the **right lower quadrant**, often associated with nausea, vomiting, and fever.
* It does not cause a pulsatile mass or radiate bilaterally to the groin and back, and rupture typically leads to peritonitis rather than sudden hypovolemic shock.
Question 50: A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician because of painless enlargement of his left testis for the past 2 weeks. The patient reports that the enlargement is worse in the evenings, especially after playing soccer. He has not had any trauma to the testes. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows multiple cord-like structures above the left testes. The findings are more prominent while standing. The cord-like structures disappear in the supine position. The testes are normal on palpation. The patient is at greatest risk of developing which of the following complications?
A. Testicular torsion
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Testicular tumor
D. Infertility (Correct Answer)
E. Bowel strangulation
Explanation: ***Infertility***
- The patient's presentation of a **painless left testicular enlargement** with **"bag of worms"** feeling that is more prominent when standing and disappears when supine is classic for a **varicocele**.
- Varicoceles increase scrotal temperature, which can impair spermatogenesis and lead to **reduced sperm count** and motility, thus increasing the risk of infertility.
*Testicular torsion*
- Testicular torsion typically presents with **sudden onset**, **severe testicular pain** and swelling, often associated with nausea and vomiting.
- The physical examination findings of a varicocele, specifically the **painless nature** and the **disappearance of swelling in the supine position**, rule out torsion.
*Erectile dysfunction*
- While hormonal imbalances can sometimes be associated with severe varicoceles due to Leydig cell dysfunction, **erectile dysfunction is not a direct or common complication** of varicocele in adolescents.
- Erectile dysfunction is more commonly related to psychological factors, vascular issues, or systemic diseases.
*Testicular tumor*
- Testicular tumors usually present as a **painless, firm mass** within the testis itself, which does not typically change with position.
- The description of **"cord-like structures above the testes"** that disappear in the supine position is inconsistent with a solid testicular mass.
*Bowel strangulation*
- Bowel strangulation involves compromised blood supply to a segment of the bowel, often within a hernia, leading to severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting.
- The symptoms described are localized to the scrotum and are not indicative of an abdominal emergency like bowel strangulation or an incarcerated hernia.