A 17-year-old girl is admitted to the emergency department with severe retrosternal chest pain. The pain began suddenly after an episode of self-induced vomiting following a large meal. The patient’s parents say that she is very restricted in the foods she eats and induces vomiting frequently after meals. Vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, heart rate 98/min, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 37.9℃ (100.2℉). The patient is pale and in severe distress. Lungs are clear to auscultation. On cardiac examination, a crunching, raspy sound is auscultated over the precordium that is synchronous with the heartbeat. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Which of the following tests would most likely confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
Q122
A 39-year-old man presents with painless swelling of the right testis and a sensation of heaviness. The physical examination revealed an intra-testicular solid mass that could not be felt separately from the testis. After a thorough evaluation, he was diagnosed with testicular seminoma. Which of the following group of lymph nodes are most likely involved?
Q123
A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician for a scheduled colonoscopy. She was diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis at the age of 13 years. Last year, her flexible sigmoidoscopy showed 12 adenomatous polyps (< 6 mm) that were removed endoscopically. Her father and her paternal grandmother were diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 37 and 39 years, respectively. The patient appears nervous but otherwise well. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows no abnormalities. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, and creatinine are within the reference range. A colonoscopy shows hundreds of diffuse 4–9 mm adenomatous polyps covering the colon and > 30 rectal adenomas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q124
A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain for the past day. The pain is situated in the right upper quadrant, colicky, 8/10, and radiates to the tip of the right shoulder with no aggravating or relieving factors. The pain is associated with nausea but no vomiting. She tried to take over-the-counter antacids which relieved her pain to a certain extent, but not entirely. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. She has no past medical illness. Her father died of pancreatic cancer at the age of 75, and her mother has diabetes controlled with medications. Temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), blood pressure is 125/89 mm Hg, pulse is 104/min, respiratory rate is 20/min, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. On abdominal examination, her abdomen is tender to shallow and deep palpation of the right upper quadrant.
Laboratory test
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
WBC 15,500/mm3
Platelets 145,000/mm3
Basic metabolic panel
Serum Na+ 137 mEq/L
Serum K+ 3.6 mEq/L
Serum Cl- 95 mEq/L
Serum HCO3- 25 mEq/L
BUN 10 mg/dL
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Liver function test
Total bilirubin 1.3 mg/dL
AST 52 U/L
ALT 60 U/L
Ultrasonography of the abdomen shows normal findings. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
Q125
Three days after undergoing an open cholecystectomy, a 73-year-old man has fever and abdominal pain. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. He had smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years but quit 1 year ago. He does not drink alcohol. Prior to admission to the hospital, his medications included lisinopril, metformin, ipratropium, and tamsulosin. He appears acutely ill and lethargic. His temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), pulse is 108/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/84 mm Hg. He is oriented only to person. Examination shows a 10-cm subcostal incision that appears dry and non-erythematous. Scattered expiratory wheezing is heard throughout both lung fields. His abdomen is distended with tenderness to palpation over the lower quadrants. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.1 g/dl
Leukocyte count 19,000/mm3
Serum
Glucose 180 mg/dl
Urea Nitrogen 25 mg/dl
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dl
Lactic acid 2.5 mEq/L (N = 0.5 - 2.2 mEq/L)
Urine
Protein 1+
RBC 1–2/hpf
WBC 32–38/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's current condition?
Q126
A 58-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of worsening upper abdominal pain. She reports nausea and vomiting, and is unable to tolerate oral intake. She appears uncomfortable. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 92/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg. Examination shows yellowish discoloration of her sclera. Her abdomen is tender in the right upper quadrant. There is no abdominal distention or organomegaly. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Leukocyte count 16,000/mm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen
25 mg/dL
Creatinine 2 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 432 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 196 U/L
Aspartate transaminase 207 U/L
Bilirubin
Total 3.8 mg/dL
Direct 2.7 mg/dL
Lipase 82 U/L (N = 14–280)
Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant shows dilated intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts and multiple hyperechoic spheres within the gallbladder. The pancreas is not well visualized. Intravenous fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy with ceftriaxone and metronidazole is begun. Twelve hours later, the patient appears acutely ill and is not oriented to time. Her temperature is 39.1°C (102.4°F), pulse is 105/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 112/82 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q127
A 51-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of upper abdominal pain for the last several hours. He says that the pain travels to his back and is less severe when he leans forward. He is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis following enzyme analysis and CT scan of the abdomen and is subsequently managed in intensive care unit (ICU) with IV fluids, analgesics, nasogastric decompression, and supportive therapy. He recovers quickly and is discharged within a week. However, after 5 weeks, the patient develops projectile vomiting containing food but no bile. Physical examination shows visible peristalsis from left to right in the upper abdomen. A repeat CT scan is done. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q128
A 72-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of pain and bulging in his groin. He is otherwise healthy and has never had surgery. He is referred to a general surgeon, and is scheduled for an elective hernia repair the following week. On closer inspection in the operating room, the surgeon notes a hernia sac that protrudes medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Which of the following accurately describes this patient's condition?
Q129
A 65-year-old obese female presents to the emergency room complaining of severe abdominal pain. She reports pain localized to the epigastrium that radiates to the right scapula. The pain occurred suddenly after a fast food meal with her grandchildren. Her temperature is 100.9°F (38.2°C), blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, pulse is 108/min, and respirations are 20/min. On examination, she demonstrates tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium. She experiences inspiratory arrest during deep palpation of the right upper quadrant but this exam finding is not present on the left upper quadrant. A blockage at which of the following locations is most likely causing this patient’s symptoms?
Q130
A 37-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. She reports that the pain is not new and usually starts within half an hour of eating a meal. The pain has been previously diagnosed as biliary colic, and she underwent a cholecystectomy three months ago for symptomatic biliary colic. Her liver reportedly looked normal at that time. The patient dates the onset of these episodes to shortly after she underwent a sleeve gastrectomy several years ago, and the episodes were more severe immediately following that surgery. Her postsurgical course was otherwise uncomplicated, and she has lost fifty pounds since then. She has a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis, and obesity. She denies alcohol or tobacco use. Her home medications are hydrochlorothiazide, enalapril, atorvastatin, and vitamin supplements. RUQ ultrasound reveals a surgically absent gallbladder and a dilated common bile duct without evidence of stones. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) shows no evidence of biliary compression or obstruction, and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) shows no evidence of biliary stones or sludge. Laboratory tests are performed which reveal the following:
ALT: 47 U/L
AST: 56 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase: 165 U/L
Total bilirubin: 1.6 mg/dL
Amylase: 135 U/L
Lipase: 160 U/L
Which of the following is definitive treatment of this patient's condition?
Abdominal emergencies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 121: A 17-year-old girl is admitted to the emergency department with severe retrosternal chest pain. The pain began suddenly after an episode of self-induced vomiting following a large meal. The patient’s parents say that she is very restricted in the foods she eats and induces vomiting frequently after meals. Vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, heart rate 98/min, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 37.9℃ (100.2℉). The patient is pale and in severe distress. Lungs are clear to auscultation. On cardiac examination, a crunching, raspy sound is auscultated over the precordium that is synchronous with the heartbeat. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Which of the following tests would most likely confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
A. Echocardiography
B. Measurement of D-dimer
C. ECG
D. Upper endoscopy
E. Contrast esophagram (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Contrast esophagram***
- This patient's history of **self-induced vomiting**, sudden onset of **retrosternal chest pain**, and the presence of a **crunching sound (Hamman's sign)** on precordial auscultation strongly point towards **esophageal rupture (Boerhaave syndrome)**.
- A contrast esophagram (using **water-soluble contrast** first) is the most definitive diagnostic test to identify the site and extent of the tear in the esophagus.
*Echocardiography*
- While an echocardiogram can assess cardiac function and detect pericardial effusions, it is not the primary diagnostic tool for **esophageal rupture**.
- It would be more useful if cardiac tamponade or other primary cardiac pathology was suspected.
*Measurement of D-dimer*
- D-dimer levels are primarily used to evaluate for **thromboembolic events** like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.
- It would not be helpful in diagnosing an esophageal rupture.
*ECG*
- An ECG is essential for ruling out **cardiac ischemia** or other acute cardiac events in patients presenting with chest pain.
- However, in this clinical scenario, the features are more consistent with esophageal pathology, and an ECG would not confirm esophageal rupture.
*Upper endoscopy*
- Upper endoscopy can visualize the esophageal mucosa, but it is **contraindicated** in suspected esophageal rupture due to the risk of **perforating the esophagus further** or introducing air into the mediastinum.
- It is an invasive procedure that carries significant risks in this emergency.
Question 122: A 39-year-old man presents with painless swelling of the right testis and a sensation of heaviness. The physical examination revealed an intra-testicular solid mass that could not be felt separately from the testis. After a thorough evaluation, he was diagnosed with testicular seminoma. Which of the following group of lymph nodes are most likely involved?
A. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes (lateral group)
B. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
C. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes (medial group)
D. Para-rectal lymph nodes
E. Para-aortic lymph nodes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Para-aortic lymph nodes***
- The **testes** develop in the abdomen and descend into the scrotum, retaining their original lymphatic drainage. Therefore, **testicular cancer** typically metastasizes to the **para-aortic** (or retroperitoneal) lymph nodes, which are located near the renal veins at the level of L1-L2.
- This is the primary lymphatic drainage pathway for the testes.
*Superficial inguinal lymph nodes (lateral group)*
- These lymph nodes primarily drain the skin of the **scrotum**, perineum, and lower limbs, but not the **testes** themselves.
- Involvement would suggest spread to the scrotal skin or compromised lymphatic flow due to prior scrotal surgery or infection, which is not indicated here.
*Deep inguinal lymph nodes*
- **Deep inguinal lymph nodes** drain structures deeper in the leg and gluteal region, as well as receiving efferent vessels from the superficial inguinal nodes.
- They are not the primary drainage site for the **testes**.
*Superficial inguinal lymph nodes (medial group)*
- Similar to the lateral group, the **medial superficial inguinal lymph nodes** primarily drain the external genitalia (excluding the testes), perineum, and lower abdominal wall.
- They are not the direct drainage route for **testicular cancer**.
*Para-rectal lymph nodes*
- **Para-rectal lymph nodes** are located near the rectum and are involved in the drainage of the rectum and lower sigmoid colon.
- They have no direct connection to the lymphatic drainage of the **testes**.
Question 123: A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician for a scheduled colonoscopy. She was diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis at the age of 13 years. Last year, her flexible sigmoidoscopy showed 12 adenomatous polyps (< 6 mm) that were removed endoscopically. Her father and her paternal grandmother were diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 37 and 39 years, respectively. The patient appears nervous but otherwise well. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows no abnormalities. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, and creatinine are within the reference range. A colonoscopy shows hundreds of diffuse 4–9 mm adenomatous polyps covering the colon and > 30 rectal adenomas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Endoscopic biopsy of polyps
B. Proctocolectomy with ileoanal anastomosis (Correct Answer)
C. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast
D. Folinic acid (leucovorin) + 5-Fluorouracil + oxaliplatin therapy
E. Repeat colonoscopy in 6 months
Explanation: ***Proctocolectomy with ileoanal anastomosis***
- This patient has **familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)** with an advanced stage characterized by hundreds of diffuse polyps, indicating a high risk of **colorectal cancer**. A proctocolectomy with ileoanal anastomosis is the definitive surgical management to prevent cancer.
- The procedure removes the entire colon and most of the rectum, eliminating the source of future polyps and cancer while preserving an acceptable quality of life through the ileoanal pouch.
*Endoscopic biopsy of polyps*
- While biopsies are important for initial diagnosis, the diagnosis of FAP is already established, and the presence of **hundreds of diffuse polyps** means individual biopsies are not appropriate as a primary management strategy for cancer prevention.
- Doing multiple biopsies would be time-consuming and not prevent the inevitable progression to cancer given the extent of polyposis.
*CT scan of the abdomen with contrast*
- A CT scan is primarily used for **staging if cancer is suspected** or for evaluating metastases, not as a primary management step for polyps in FAP.
- The immediate concern is the incredibly high risk of developing cancer due to the polyps themselves, which surgical removal directly addresses.
*Folinic acid (leucovorin) + 5-Fluorouracil + oxaliplatin therapy*
- This is a chemotherapy regimen (**FOLFOX**) typically used for **established colorectal cancer**, particularly in advanced or metastatic stages.
- The patient has extensive polyposis but not yet confirmed colorectal cancer requiring chemotherapy, making this treatment premature and inappropriate.
*Repeat colonoscopy in 6 months*
- Repeating a colonoscopy in 6 months is insufficient for managing FAP with **hundreds of diffuse polyps**, as the risk of malignant transformation is imminent and widespread.
- The sheer volume of polyps makes endoscopic removal impractical and ineffective in preventing cancer; definitive surgery is required.
Question 124: A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain for the past day. The pain is situated in the right upper quadrant, colicky, 8/10, and radiates to the tip of the right shoulder with no aggravating or relieving factors. The pain is associated with nausea but no vomiting. She tried to take over-the-counter antacids which relieved her pain to a certain extent, but not entirely. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. She has no past medical illness. Her father died of pancreatic cancer at the age of 75, and her mother has diabetes controlled with medications. Temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), blood pressure is 125/89 mm Hg, pulse is 104/min, respiratory rate is 20/min, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. On abdominal examination, her abdomen is tender to shallow and deep palpation of the right upper quadrant.
Laboratory test
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
WBC 15,500/mm3
Platelets 145,000/mm3
Basic metabolic panel
Serum Na+ 137 mEq/L
Serum K+ 3.6 mEq/L
Serum Cl- 95 mEq/L
Serum HCO3- 25 mEq/L
BUN 10 mg/dL
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Liver function test
Total bilirubin 1.3 mg/dL
AST 52 U/L
ALT 60 U/L
Ultrasonography of the abdomen shows normal findings. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
A. Emergency cholecystectomy
B. CT scan
C. Reassurance and close follow up
D. Cholescintigraphy (Correct Answer)
E. Percutaneous cholecystostomy
Explanation: ***Cholescintigraphy***
- The patient presents with **right upper quadrant pain**, fever, **leukocytosis**, and elevated liver enzymes, pointing towards **acute cholecystitis**. Despite a normal ultrasound, cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan) is the gold standard for diagnosing acute cholecystitis when imaging is equivocal.
- Cholescintigraphy can assess the **patency of the cystic duct**, which is often obstructed in acute cholecystitis, by observing whether the gallbladder fills with tracer.
*Emergency cholecystectomy*
- **Acute cholecystitis** usually requires cholecystectomy, but it's typically performed **after confirmation** of the diagnosis, often after a period of stabilization with antibiotics and fluids, not immediately as an emergency for this stable patient.
- There is no evidence of severe complications such as **gallbladder perforation** or gangrene that would necessitate immediate emergency surgery without further diagnostic confirmation.
*CT scan*
- A **CT scan** is not the primary imaging modality for acute cholecystitis as it is **less sensitive** than ultrasound or cholescintigraphy for detecting gallbladder inflammation and cystic duct obstruction.
- While CT can identify complications such as abscess formation or perforation, the initial diagnostic work-up should focus on confirming the inflammation of the gallbladder itself.
*Reassurance and close follow up*
- The patient's symptoms (severe **colicky pain**, fever, **leukocytosis**, elevated liver enzymes) indicate an **acute inflammatory process** requiring active medical management and diagnosis, not mere reassurance.
- Delaying appropriate diagnosis and treatment for acute cholecystitis can lead to severe complications like gallbladder perforation, sepsis, or cholangitis.
*Percutaneous cholecystostomy*
- **Percutaneous cholecystostomy** is generally reserved for patients with acute cholecystitis who are **too unstable for surgery**, or in cases where surgical risk is very high.
- The patient is hemodynamically stable and does not have contraindications for surgery, making a definitive surgical approach (after diagnosis) preferable over a temporizing measure.
Question 125: Three days after undergoing an open cholecystectomy, a 73-year-old man has fever and abdominal pain. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. He had smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years but quit 1 year ago. He does not drink alcohol. Prior to admission to the hospital, his medications included lisinopril, metformin, ipratropium, and tamsulosin. He appears acutely ill and lethargic. His temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), pulse is 108/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/84 mm Hg. He is oriented only to person. Examination shows a 10-cm subcostal incision that appears dry and non-erythematous. Scattered expiratory wheezing is heard throughout both lung fields. His abdomen is distended with tenderness to palpation over the lower quadrants. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.1 g/dl
Leukocyte count 19,000/mm3
Serum
Glucose 180 mg/dl
Urea Nitrogen 25 mg/dl
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dl
Lactic acid 2.5 mEq/L (N = 0.5 - 2.2 mEq/L)
Urine
Protein 1+
RBC 1–2/hpf
WBC 32–38/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's current condition?
A. Wound contamination
B. Peritoneal inflammation
C. Impaired alveolar ventilation
D. Intraabdominal abscess formation (Correct Answer)
E. Bladder outlet obstruction
Explanation: ***Intraabdominal abscess formation***
- The patient presents with **fever**, **leukocytosis**, **abdominal pain** and **distension** three days post-cholecystectomy. These symptoms, coupled with signs of systemic illness (lethargy, altered mental status, tachycardia, elevated lactic acid), are highly suggestive of an **intraabdominal infection** such as an abscess.
- The surgical site incision appears dry and non-erythematous, making a superficial wound infection less likely to explain the systemic symptoms and deep abdominal pain.
*Wound contamination*
- While wound contamination can cause infection, the incision site is described as **dry and non-erythematous**, suggesting that a superficial surgical site infection is not the primary cause of the patient's systemic illness and deep abdominal pain.
- A simple wound infection generally would not lead to such significant systemic symptoms, including **lethargy** and **altered mental status**, within three days post-surgery, especially without local signs of inflammation.
*Peritoneal inflammation*
- Peritoneal inflammation (peritonitis) is a consequence of an intraabdominal process like an abscess or anastomotic leak, rather than the primary underlying mechanism itself.
- The symptoms of **localized tenderness** and **distension** are more indicative of a contained process like an abscess rather than diffuse peritoneal inflammation as the initial cause.
*Impaired alveolar ventilation*
- While the patient has COPD and scattered expiratory wheezing, suggesting some degree of respiratory compromise, **impaired alveolar ventilation** alone does not explain the fever, elevated leukocyte count, abdominal pain, and an elevated lactic acid (though respiratory distress can contribute to lactic acidemia, an infection is a more direct cause here).
- Post-operative pulmonary complications are common, but the abdominal findings and systemic signs of infection point away from a purely respiratory origin for this acute deterioration.
*Bladder outlet obstruction*
- The patient has BPH and is on tamsulosin, but his current symptoms of fever, leukocytosis, abdominal pain, and elevated lactic acid are not typical for **bladder outlet obstruction**.
- Although the urine analysis shows pyuria (WBC 32-38/hpf), which could suggest a urinary tract infection (UTI), a UTI alone is less likely to cause this degree of systemic illness with **significant abdominal distension** and **tenderness** in the lower quadrants shortly after abdominal surgery; it's more probable that the pyuria is a secondary finding or contributing factor in a patient with a more severe intraabdominal process.
Question 126: A 58-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of worsening upper abdominal pain. She reports nausea and vomiting, and is unable to tolerate oral intake. She appears uncomfortable. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 92/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg. Examination shows yellowish discoloration of her sclera. Her abdomen is tender in the right upper quadrant. There is no abdominal distention or organomegaly. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Leukocyte count 16,000/mm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen
25 mg/dL
Creatinine 2 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 432 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase 196 U/L
Aspartate transaminase 207 U/L
Bilirubin
Total 3.8 mg/dL
Direct 2.7 mg/dL
Lipase 82 U/L (N = 14–280)
Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant shows dilated intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts and multiple hyperechoic spheres within the gallbladder. The pancreas is not well visualized. Intravenous fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy with ceftriaxone and metronidazole is begun. Twelve hours later, the patient appears acutely ill and is not oriented to time. Her temperature is 39.1°C (102.4°F), pulse is 105/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 112/82 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Abdominal CT scan
B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (Correct Answer)
D. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
E. Percutaneous cholecystostomy
Explanation: ***Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography***
- The patient exhibits signs of **cholangitis** (fever, jaundice, RUQ pain), complicated by **sepsis** and **altered mental status**, necessitating urgent biliary decompression.
- **ERCP** allows for direct visualization of the biliary tree, removal of stones, and stent placement to relieve obstruction.
*Abdominal CT scan*
- While CT can provide more detailed anatomical information, it is not the most immediate or definitive therapeutic intervention for acute biliary obstruction and sepsis.
- **Delaying definitive biliary decompression** for imaging could worsen the patient's rapidly deteriorating clinical status.
*Laparoscopic cholecystectomy*
- **Cholecystectomy** is indicated for symptomatic gallstones, but in the setting of acute cholangitis, especially with increasing severity and signs of sepsis, it carries a higher risk.
- The primary and most urgent goal is to **decompress the obstructed biliary system**, which cholecystectomy alone may not achieve if the obstruction is in the common bile duct.
*Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy*
- **ESWL** is generally used for breaking up gallstones or kidney stones but is not suitable for the urgent management of **obstructive cholangitis with sepsis**.
- It does not provide immediate biliary decompression and is typically considered for less acute biliary issues or specific stone types.
*Percutaneous cholecystostomy*
- **PCD** involves placing a drain into the gallbladder percutaneously to decompress the gallbladder, often used in critically ill patients with acute cholecystitis who are not surgical candidates.
- However, the primary issue here is **common bile duct obstruction and cholangitis**, not just cholecystitis, so PCD would not address the main problem of biliary outflow obstruction.
Question 127: A 51-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of upper abdominal pain for the last several hours. He says that the pain travels to his back and is less severe when he leans forward. He is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis following enzyme analysis and CT scan of the abdomen and is subsequently managed in intensive care unit (ICU) with IV fluids, analgesics, nasogastric decompression, and supportive therapy. He recovers quickly and is discharged within a week. However, after 5 weeks, the patient develops projectile vomiting containing food but no bile. Physical examination shows visible peristalsis from left to right in the upper abdomen. A repeat CT scan is done. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Intravenous fluids, analgesia, and antiemetics
B. Octreotide infusion to reduce all gastrointestinal secretions
C. Endoscopic drainage (Correct Answer)
D. Need no management as this will resolve spontaneously
E. External percutaneous drainage of the lesion
Explanation: ***Endoscopic drainage***
- The patient's symptoms of **projectile vomiting** containing food but no bile, along with **visible peristalsis** and a history of acute pancreatitis 5 weeks prior, are highly suggestive of **gastric outlet obstruction** caused by a **pancreatic pseudocyst**.
- **Endoscopic drainage** is the preferred next step to relieve the obstruction and drain the pseudocyst, especially given the timeframe (typically after 4-6 weeks for maturation).
*Intravenous fluids, analgesia, and antiemetics*
- These are **supportive measures** for symptom relief but do not address the underlying **mechanical obstruction** caused by the pseudocyst.
- While important for comfort, this approach will not resolve the patient's **vomiting** or improve the gastric outlet obstruction.
*Octreotide infusion to reduce all gastrointestinal secretions*
- **Octreotide** is primarily used to reduce pancreatic secretions in conditions like pancreatic fistulas or to prevent complications after pancreatic surgery.
- It is **not effective** in resolving a mechanical obstruction like a pancreatic pseudocyst causing gastric outlet obstruction.
*Need no management as this will resolve spontaneously*
- A **pancreatic pseudocyst** causing gastric outlet obstruction is a significant complication that typically **will not resolve spontaneously**.
- Delaying intervention can lead to continued symptoms, **malnutrition**, and potential complications like infection or rupture.
*External percutaneous drainage of the lesion*
- **Percutaneous drainage** might be considered for infected or symptomatic pseudocysts, but **endoscopic drainage** is generally preferred for pseudocysts causing gastric outlet obstruction and that have matured sufficiently.
- It allows for direct internal drainage into the gut, avoiding an **external fistula** and offering a more definitive solution for the obstruction.
Question 128: A 72-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of pain and bulging in his groin. He is otherwise healthy and has never had surgery. He is referred to a general surgeon, and is scheduled for an elective hernia repair the following week. On closer inspection in the operating room, the surgeon notes a hernia sac that protrudes medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Which of the following accurately describes this patient's condition?
A. Direct inguinal hernia (Correct Answer)
B. Isolated rectus diastasis
C. Direct incisional hernia
D. Hiatal hernia
E. Femoral hernia
Explanation: ***Direct inguinal hernia***
- This hernia protrudes directly through the **posterior wall of the inguinal canal** via Hesselbach's triangle (medial to the inferior epigastric vessels), rather than entering through the deep inguinal ring like an indirect hernia.
- They are more common in older men due to weakening of the abdominal wall and are acquired (not congenital).
*Isolated rectus diastasis*
- This is a **separation of the rectus abdominis muscles** at the linea alba, often presenting as a bulge in the midline of the abdomen.
- It is not a true hernia as it involves no fascial defect or protrusion through the abdominal wall, and the patient presents with a true hernia.
*Direct incisional hernia*
- An incisional hernia occurs at the site of a **previous surgical incision**, where the abdominal wall has been weakened.
- This patient has no history of prior surgery, ruling out an incisional hernia.
*Hiatal hernia*
- A hiatal hernia involves the **protrusion of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus** of the diaphragm into the chest cavity.
- Symptoms are typically gastrointestinal (e.g., GERD), and the bulge would be in the chest/abdomen, not the groin.
*Femoral hernia*
- A femoral hernia protrudes through the **femoral ring**, below the inguinal ligament, and is more common in women.
- The description of the hernia sac protruding medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through the posterior wall is characteristic of a direct inguinal hernia, not a femoral one.
Question 129: A 65-year-old obese female presents to the emergency room complaining of severe abdominal pain. She reports pain localized to the epigastrium that radiates to the right scapula. The pain occurred suddenly after a fast food meal with her grandchildren. Her temperature is 100.9°F (38.2°C), blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, pulse is 108/min, and respirations are 20/min. On examination, she demonstrates tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium. She experiences inspiratory arrest during deep palpation of the right upper quadrant but this exam finding is not present on the left upper quadrant. A blockage at which of the following locations is most likely causing this patient’s symptoms?
A. Common hepatic duct
B. Ampulla of Vater
C. Cystic duct (Correct Answer)
D. Pancreatic duct of Wirsung
E. Common bile duct
Explanation: ***Cystic duct***
- This patient presents with **fever**, **right upper quadrant pain with inspiratory arrest (Murphy's sign)**, and a history of fatty meal ingestion, all classic signs of **acute cholecystitis** due to a gallstone obstructing the cystic duct.
- Obstruction of the cystic duct leads to bile stasis, inflammation, and potential infection within the gallbladder, causing the characteristic symptoms.
*Common hepatic duct*
- Obstruction of the **common hepatic duct** would typically cause **jaundice**, as it would block bile flow from both the left and right hepatic ducts, leading to systemic bilirubin accumulation.
- While it can cause right upper quadrant pain, the presence of Murphy's sign points more specifically to gallbladder inflammation.
*Ampulla of Vater*
- Obstruction at the **Ampulla of Vater** would lead to both **obstructive jaundice** and **pancreatitis** (due to blockage of both bile and pancreatic ducts), which are not fully reflected in this patient's presentation.
- The patient's symptoms are more localized to the gallbladder rather than a diffuse obstruction of bile flow.
*Pancreatic duct of Wirsung*
- Obstruction of the **pancreatic duct of Wirsung** typically causes **acute pancreatitis**, characterized by severe epigastric pain often radiating to the back, elevated lipase and amylase, and potentially nausea/vomiting.
- While the patient has epigastric pain, the radiation to the right scapula and positive Murphy's sign are more indicative of biliary pathology.
*Common bile duct*
- Obstruction of the **common bile duct** (choledocholithiasis) would cause **jaundice** due to the blockage of bile flow from the liver to the small intestine.
- Although it can cause right upper quadrant pain and fever (if cholangitis develops), the prominent **Murphy's sign** makes acute cholecystitis from cystic duct obstruction a more direct diagnosis.
Question 130: A 37-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. She reports that the pain is not new and usually starts within half an hour of eating a meal. The pain has been previously diagnosed as biliary colic, and she underwent a cholecystectomy three months ago for symptomatic biliary colic. Her liver reportedly looked normal at that time. The patient dates the onset of these episodes to shortly after she underwent a sleeve gastrectomy several years ago, and the episodes were more severe immediately following that surgery. Her postsurgical course was otherwise uncomplicated, and she has lost fifty pounds since then. She has a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis, and obesity. She denies alcohol or tobacco use. Her home medications are hydrochlorothiazide, enalapril, atorvastatin, and vitamin supplements. RUQ ultrasound reveals a surgically absent gallbladder and a dilated common bile duct without evidence of stones. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) shows no evidence of biliary compression or obstruction, and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) shows no evidence of biliary stones or sludge. Laboratory tests are performed which reveal the following:
ALT: 47 U/L
AST: 56 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase: 165 U/L
Total bilirubin: 1.6 mg/dL
Amylase: 135 U/L
Lipase: 160 U/L
Which of the following is definitive treatment of this patient's condition?
A. Pancreatic enzyme replacement
B. Pancreaticoduodenectomy
C. Biliary stent
D. Sphincterotomy (Correct Answer)
E. Surgical revascularization
Explanation: ***Sphincterotomy***
- The patient's symptoms (postprandial RUQ pain, elevated LFTs, dilated common bile duct without stones after cholecystectomy) are highly suggestive of **sphincter of Oddi dysfunction (SOD)**. Sphincterotomy is the definitive treatment for SOD, relieving the obstruction caused by sphincter spasm or stenosis.
- This procedure can be performed endoscopically (ERCP with sphincterotomy) and aims to cut the muscle of the sphincter of Oddi, allowing bile and pancreatic juices to drain freely, thereby resolving pain.
*Pancreatic enzyme replacement*
- This treatment is primarily used for **exocrine pancreatic insufficiency** (e.g., in chronic pancreatitis or cystic fibrosis) where the pancreas does not produce enough digestive enzymes.
- The patient's amylase and lipase levels are only mildly elevated, not indicative of severe pancreatic insufficiency, and enzyme replacement would not address the mechanical obstruction of the sphincter of Oddi if SOD is present.
*Pancreaticoduodenectomy*
- **Pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure)** is a major surgical operation typically performed for periampullary tumors, chronic pancreatitis with ductal obstruction, or severe trauma involving the head of the pancreas.
- It is an overly aggressive and inappropriate intervention for suspected sphincter of Oddi dysfunction, which is a functional or mechanical obstruction of the distal common bile duct or pancreatic duct.
*Biliary stent*
- A biliary stent is used to **bypass an obstruction** in the bile duct, often in cases of strictures (benign or malignant) or stones that cannot be otherwise removed.
- While it might provide temporary relief by facilitating bile flow, it does not address the underlying pathology of sphincter of Oddi dysfunction and is not considered a definitive treatment.
*Surgical revascularization*
- **Surgical revascularization** procedures are performed to restore blood flow to an organ, typically in cases of arterial insufficiency (e.g., mesenteric ischemia affecting the bowel, or renal artery stenosis).
- The patient's symptoms and diagnostic findings point to a biliary issue, not a vascular problem, and there is no indication of ischemia that would warrant revascularization.