Abdominal emergencies — MCQs

Abdominal emergencies — MCQs

Abdominal emergencies — MCQs

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134 questions— Page 12 of 14
Q111

A 5-week-old infant boy presents to the pediatrician with intermittent vomiting for the last 2 weeks. The mother reports that the vomiting is non-bilious and immediately follows feeding. After vomiting, the baby is hungry and wants to feed again. The frequency of vomiting has been increasing progressively over 2 weeks. The vital signs are within normal limits. The examination of the abdomen reveals the presence of a firm mass of approx. 2 cm in length, above and to the right of the umbilicus. The mass is movable, olive-shaped, and hard on palpation. Which of the following is the most likely surgical treatment for this infant’s condition?

Q112

A 67-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband because of a 1-hour history of severe groin pain, nausea, and vomiting. She has had a groin swelling that worsens with standing, coughing, and straining for the past 3 months. Her pulse is 120/min. Examination shows pallor; there is swelling, erythema, and tenderness to palpation of the right groin that is centered below the inguinal ligament. The most likely cause of this patient's condition is entrapment of an organ between which of the following structures?

Q113

A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department for abdominal pain. The patient states the pain started this morning and has been worsening steadily. He decided to come to the emergency department when he began vomiting. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, alcohol abuse, and hypertension. His current medications include captopril, insulin, metformin, sodium docusate, and ibuprofen. His temperature is 104.0°F (40°C), blood pressure is 160/97 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Abdominal exam reveals left lower quadrant tenderness. Cardiac exam reveals a crescendo systolic murmur heard best by the right upper sternal border. Lab values are ordered and return as below. Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL Hematocrit: 42% Leukocyte count: 19,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential Platelet count: 226,000/mm^3 Serum: Na+: 139 mEq/L Cl-: 101 mEq/L K+: 4.4 mEq/L HCO3-: 24 mEq/L BUN: 22 mg/dL Glucose: 144 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL Ca2+: 9.8 mg/dL Which of the following is the most accurate test for this patient's condition?

Q114

A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with bloody urine. He first noticed the blood 1 week ago. He otherwise feels healthy. His past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus for 18 years, for which he takes insulin injections. He has smoked 30–40 cigarettes per day for the past 29 years and drinks alcohol socially. Today his vital signs include: temperature 36.6°C (97.8°F), blood pressure 135/82 mm Hg, and heart rate 105/min. There are no findings on physical examination. Urinalysis shows 15–20 red cells/high power field. Which of the following is the next best test to evaluate this patient’s condition?

Q115

A 74-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of lower abdominal pain for 3 hours. The pain is sharp, constant, and does not radiate. He has not urinated for 24 hours and he has not passed stool for over 3 days. He was diagnosed with herpes zoster 3 weeks ago and has been taking amitriptyline for post-herpetic neuralgia for 1 week. Last year he was diagnosed with nephrolithiasis and was treated with lithotripsy. He has a history of hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and coronary artery disease. His other medications include amlodipine, metoprolol, tamsulosin, aspirin, and simvastatin. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 102/min, and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows a palpable lower midline abdominal mass that is tender to palpation. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. A pelvic ultrasound shows an anechoic mass in the lower abdomen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Q116

A 75-year-old Caucasian man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. The patient states he was at home eating dinner when he began to experience severe abdominal pain. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and atherosclerosis. He lives at home alone, smokes cigarettes, and drinks 1 to 2 alcoholic drinks per day. The patient is given IV morphine and an ultrasound is obtained demonstrating a dilated abdominal aorta. The patient states that his father died of a similar finding and is concerned about his prognosis. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for this patient's presentation?

Q117

A 59-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of bilateral calf cramping with walking for the past 7 months. His pain goes away when he stops walking; however, his condition affects his work as a mail carrier. His medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and 25-pack-year smoking history. His ankle-brachial index (ABI) is found to be 0.70. The patient is diagnosed with mild to moderate peripheral artery disease. A supervised exercise program for 3 months, aspirin, and cilostazol are started. Which of the following is the best next step if the patient has no improvement?

Q118

A 70-year-old man presents for his annual check-up. He says he feels well except for occasional abdominal pain. He describes the pain as 4/10–5/10 in intensity, diffusely localized to the periumbilical and epigastric regions, radiating to the groin. The pain occurs 1–2 times a month and always subsides on its own. The patient denies any recent history of fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, change in body weight, or change in bowel and/or bladder habits. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and peripheral vascular disease, managed with lisinopril and simvastatin. The patient reports a 40-pack-year smoking history and 1–2 alcoholic drinks a day. The blood pressure is 150/100 mm Hg and the pulse is 80/min. Peripheral pulses are 2+ bilaterally in all extremities. Abdominal exam reveals a bruit in the epigastric region along with mild tenderness to palpation with no rebound or guarding. There is also a pulsatile abdominal mass felt on deep palpation at the junction of the periumbilical and the suprapubic regions. The remainder of the physical exam is normal. Laboratory studies show: Serum total cholesterol 175 mg/dL Serum total bilirubin 1 mg/dL Serum amylase 25 U/L Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 U/L Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 16 U/L Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

Q119

A 64-year-old woman has progressively worsening abdominal pain 5 hours after an open valve replacement with cardiopulmonary bypass. The pain is crampy and associated with an urge to defecate. The patient reports having had 2 bloody bowel movements in the last hour. Her operation was complicated by significant intraoperative blood loss, which prolonged the operation and necessitated 2 transfusions of red blood cells. She has hypercholesterolemia and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient received prophylactic perioperative antibiotics and opioid pain management during recovery. Her temperature is 37.9°C (98.9°F), pulse is 95/min, and blood pressure is 115/69 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft abdomen with mild tenderness to palpation in the left quadrants but no rebound tenderness or guarding. Bowel sounds are decreased. Rectal examination shows blood on the examining finger. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

Q120

A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician with a history of bright red blood in her stools for 3 days. She has defecated once per day. She does not have fever, pain on defecation, or abdominal pain. She was treated for a urinary tract infection with levofloxacin around 3 months ago. Menses occur at regular intervals of 28–30 days and lasts 3–4 days. Her father died of colon cancer 4 years ago. Her only medication is an iron supplement. She is 162 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 101.2 kg (223 lbs); BMI is 38.3 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 89/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Rectal examination shows anal skin tags. Anoscopy shows multiple enlarged bluish veins above the dentate line at 7 and 11 o'clock positions. When asked to exhale through a closed nostril a mass prolapses but spontaneously reduces when breathing normally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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