A 24-year-old woman recently noticed a mass in her left breast. The examination shows a 4-cm mass in the left upper quadrant. The mass is firm, mobile, and has well-defined margins. She complains of occasional tenderness. There is no lymphatic involvement. Mammography showed a dense lesion. What is the most likely cause?
Q2
A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department after an altercation at a local bar. The patient was stabbed in the abdomen with a 6 inch kitchen knife in the epigastric region. His temperature is 97°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 97/68 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for the knife in the patient’s abdomen in the location where he was initially stabbed. The patient is started on blood products and IV fluids. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q3
A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. The patient describes the pain as severe, tearing, and radiating to the back. His history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, intermittent claudication, and a 60 pack-year history of smoking. He also has a previously diagnosed stable abdominal aortic aneurysm followed by ultrasound screening. On exam, the patient's temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), pulse is 113/min, blood pressure is 84/46 mmHg, respirations are 24/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient is pale and diaphoretic, and becomes confused as you examine him. Which of the following is most appropriate in the evaluation and treatment of this patient?
Q4
A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after the sudden onset of severe, generalized abdominal pain. The pain is constant and she describes it as 9 out of 10 in intensity. She has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and chronic lower back pain. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals with moderate flow and last 4 days. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is sexually active with one male partner and uses condoms inconsistently. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years and drinks 2–3 beers on the weekends. Current medications include ranitidine, hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin, and ibuprofen. The patient appears ill and does not want to move. Her temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), pulse is 125/min, respirations are 30/min, and blood pressure is 85/40 mm Hg. Examination shows a distended, tympanic abdomen with diffuse tenderness, guarding, and rebound; bowel sounds are absent. Her leukocyte count is 14,000/mm3 and hematocrit is 32%. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's pain?
Q5
A 39-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant abdominal discomfort for the past couple of hours. She says that the pain is dull in nature and denies any radiation. She admits to having similar episodes of pain in the past which subsided on its own. Her temperature is 37°C (99.6°F), respirations are 16/min, pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 122/98 mm Hg. Physical examination is normal except for diffuse tenderness of her abdomen. She undergoes a limited abdominal ultrasound which reveals a 1.4 cm gallbladder polyp. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q6
A 68-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of abdominal pain for 3 days. Physical examination shows guarding and tenderness to palpation over the left lower abdomen. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. A CT scan of the abdomen is shown. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the patient's imaging findings?
Q7
An 8-year old boy with no past medical history presents to the emergency room with 24-hours of severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and non-bloody diarrhea. His mom states that he has barely eaten in the past 24 hours and has been clutching his abdomen, first near his belly button and now near his right hip. His temperature is 101.4°F (38.5°C), blood pressure is 101/63 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 22/min. On physical exam, the patient is lying very still. There is abdominal tenderness and rigidity upon palpation of the right lower quadrant. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s clinical presentation?
Q8
A 44-year-old obese woman presents with abdominal pain. She says the pain started while she was having lunch at a fast-food restaurant with her children. The pain began shortly after eating and has persisted for 6 hours. She has vomited once. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 88, BP 110/70 mmHg, T 38.5°C (101.3°F). On physical exam, she is tender to palpation in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. Her skin appears normal. Her liver function tests, amylase, and lipase levels are normal. A right upper quadrant abdominal ultrasound is challenged by her body habitus and is not able to visualize any gallstones. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her presentation?
Q9
A 55-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 24-hour history of severe lower abdominal pain. She has had two episodes of nonbloody vomiting today and has been unable to keep down food or fluids. She has not had a bowel movement since the day before. She has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. She had a cholecystectomy 5 years ago. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 20 years. Current medications include chlorthalidone, atorvastatin, and naproxen. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse is 102/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg. She is 1.68 m (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighs 94.3 kg (207.9 lbs); BMI is 33.4 kg/m2. Abdominal examination shows a soft abdomen with hypoactive bowel sounds. There is moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. A tender mass is palpable on digital rectal examination. There is no guarding or rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 17,000/mm3
Hemoglobin 13.3 g/dl
Hematocrit 40%
Platelet count 188,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
K+ 4.1 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
HCO3- 22 mEq/L
Urea Nitrogen 18.1 mg/dl
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dl
Which of the following is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?
Q10
A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain for the last several hours. The pain is cramp-like in nature, constant, 8/10, and has worsened over time. It is associated with bilious vomiting. He gives a history of episodic right upper abdominal pain for the past few months, mostly after consuming fatty foods, radiating to the tip of the right scapula. He reports no change in bowel habits, bladder habits, or change in weight. His past medical history includes diabetes and hypertension, and he takes hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, ramipril, and atorvastatin. Temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min, respiratory rate is 20/min, and BMI is 23 kg/m2. On physical examination, his abdomen is distended and diffusely tender.
Laboratory test
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
WBC 16,000/mm3
Platelets 150,000/mm3
Basic metabolic panel
Serum Na+ 148 mEq/L
Serum K+ 3.3 mEq/L
Serum Cl- 89 mEq/L
An abdominal CT scan is shown. What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s current presentation?
Abdominal emergencies US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 24-year-old woman recently noticed a mass in her left breast. The examination shows a 4-cm mass in the left upper quadrant. The mass is firm, mobile, and has well-defined margins. She complains of occasional tenderness. There is no lymphatic involvement. Mammography showed a dense lesion. What is the most likely cause?
A. Phyllodes tumor
B. Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)
C. Inflammatory carcinoma
D. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
E. Fibroadenoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fibroadenoma***
- The patient's age (24 years old) and the description of the mass as **firm, mobile, with well-defined margins** are classic features of a fibroadenoma.
- Fibroadenomas are **benign stromal and epithelial tumors** of the breast, often presenting as non-tender or occasionally tender masses, especially common in younger women.
*Phyllodes tumor*
- While also a fibroepithelial tumor, phyllodes tumors tend to grow **rapidly** and can reach **larger sizes** (often >5 cm), with some having malignant potential.
- They are typically seen in **older women** (perimenopausal or postmenopausal) compared to the patient's age.
*Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)*
- IDC often presents as a **hard, irregular, fixed mass** with **poorly defined margins**, which is contrary to the description of a mobile, well-defined mass.
- Although it can occur at this age, it is less likely given the benign-appearing physical characteristics of the mass.
*Inflammatory carcinoma*
- This is an aggressive form of breast cancer characterized by **rapid onset of redness, warmth, swelling**, and a "peau d'orange" appearance due to lymphatic involvement, none of which are described.
- It does not typically present as a mobile, well-defined mass.
*Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)*
- DCIS is a **non-invasive** carcinoma where atypical cells are confined to the breast ducts and usually presents as **microcalcifications on mammography**, often without a palpable mass.
- When it does present as a palpable mass, it is typically not mobile with well-defined margins.
Question 2: A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department after an altercation at a local bar. The patient was stabbed in the abdomen with a 6 inch kitchen knife in the epigastric region. His temperature is 97°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 97/68 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for the knife in the patient’s abdomen in the location where he was initially stabbed. The patient is started on blood products and IV fluids. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST) exam
B. CT scan of the abdomen
C. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
D. Exploratory laparoscopy
E. Exploratory laparotomy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Exploratory laparotomy***
- A patient presenting with a **penetrating abdominal injury** and signs of **hemodynamic instability** (BP 97/68 mmHg, pulse 127/min) requires immediate surgical intervention without further diagnostic studies.
- Since the knife is still in place, it is presumed to have caused a significant underlying visceral injury, and **exploratory laparotomy** is the definitive treatment to assess and repair internal damage.
*Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST) exam*
- A FAST exam is useful for detecting **free fluid** in the abdomen in hemodynamically unstable patients with **blunt trauma**, but it is typically not sufficient for penetrating injuries.
- For a penetrating injury, even a negative FAST exam would not rule out significant organ damage that requires surgical exploration.
*CT scan of the abdomen*
- A CT scan can provide detailed imaging of abdominal organs and vessels but requires a **hemodynamically stable** patient, which this patient is not.
- Delaying definitive management by performing a CT scan in an unstable patient with a penetrating abdominal injury could worsen outcomes.
*Diagnostic peritoneal lavage*
- DPL is an invasive procedure that can detect the presence of **intra-abdominal bleeding** but has largely been replaced by FAST exams and CT scans for blunt trauma.
- In the setting of a clear penetrating injury with hemodynamic instability, DPL would delay definitive surgical management and is less specific than direct exploration.
*Exploratory laparoscopy*
- Laparoscopy can be used for **diagnostic** and **therapeutic** purposes in stable patients with penetrating abdominal trauma to assess the extent of injury.
- However, given the patient's **hemodynamic instability**, an open exploratory laparotomy provides faster access and control of potential major bleeding or organ damage.
Question 3: A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. The patient describes the pain as severe, tearing, and radiating to the back. His history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, intermittent claudication, and a 60 pack-year history of smoking. He also has a previously diagnosed stable abdominal aortic aneurysm followed by ultrasound screening. On exam, the patient's temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), pulse is 113/min, blood pressure is 84/46 mmHg, respirations are 24/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient is pale and diaphoretic, and becomes confused as you examine him. Which of the following is most appropriate in the evaluation and treatment of this patient?
A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Abdominal CT with contrast
C. Surgery (Correct Answer)
D. Abdominal MRI
E. Abdominal CT without contrast
Explanation: ***Surgery***
- The patient presents with classic signs of a **ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)**, including sudden, severe, tearing abdominal pain radiating to the back, and signs of **hypovolemic shock** (hypotension, tachycardia, pallor, diaphoresis, confusion). Immediate surgical intervention is life-saving.
- Given the patient's **hemodynamic instability** and strong clinical suspicion for AAA rupture, delaying treatment for imaging studies is inappropriate and would significantly worsen the prognosis.
*Abdominal ultrasound*
- While ultrasound can detect an AAA, it is **less effective in identifying rupture**, especially retroperitoneal hemorrhage, and in hemodynamically unstable patients, the time spent on imaging is time lost for definitive treatment.
- The patient's critical condition warrants immediate intervention, and ultrasound would not provide enough detail or be fast enough to guide surgical planning in an emergency.
*Abdominal CT with contrast*
- CT angiography is the **gold standard for diagnosing AAA rupture** in stable patients, as it can visualize the aneurysm, rupture site, and extent of hemorrhage.
- However, for a **hemodynamically unstable patient** with a high clinical suspicion of rupture, taking the patient to CT risks further deterioration and delays life-saving surgery.
*Abdominal MRI*
- MRI is **contraindicated in unstable patients** due to the time required for imaging and the logistical challenges of monitoring critically ill patients in the MRI suite.
- It also provides no additional benefit over CT in an acute rupture setting and is generally not used for emergency AAA rupture diagnosis.
*Abdominal CT without contrast*
- A non-contrast CT might show the aneurysm and some signs of hemorrhage, but it would provide **less diagnostic information** regarding the rupture site and relationship to surrounding structures compared to a contrast-enhanced study.
- Like other imaging modalities, it still represents a **critical delay** for a patient in hypovolemic shock from a ruptured AAA, for whom immediate surgical intervention is paramount.
Question 4: A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after the sudden onset of severe, generalized abdominal pain. The pain is constant and she describes it as 9 out of 10 in intensity. She has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and chronic lower back pain. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals with moderate flow and last 4 days. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is sexually active with one male partner and uses condoms inconsistently. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years and drinks 2–3 beers on the weekends. Current medications include ranitidine, hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin, and ibuprofen. The patient appears ill and does not want to move. Her temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), pulse is 125/min, respirations are 30/min, and blood pressure is 85/40 mm Hg. Examination shows a distended, tympanic abdomen with diffuse tenderness, guarding, and rebound; bowel sounds are absent. Her leukocyte count is 14,000/mm3 and hematocrit is 32%. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's pain?
A. Bowel obstruction
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
D. Acute mesenteric ischemia
E. Perforation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Perforation***
- The sudden onset of **severe, generalized abdominal pain**, **peritoneal signs** (diffuse tenderness, guarding, rebound, absent bowel sounds), and signs of **sepsis/shock** (fever, tachycardia, hypotension) are highly indicative of an intra-abdominal perforation.
- The **tympanic abdomen** suggests **pneumoperitoneum** (free air), a pathognomonic finding of hollow viscus perforation.
- The patient's history of chronic NSAID use (ibuprofen) for back pain increases the risk of **peptic ulcer disease** and subsequent perforation.
*Bowel obstruction*
- While bowel obstruction can cause severe abdominal pain and distension, it typically presents with **colicky pain**, not usually this sudden and generalized, and often with **hyperactive bowel sounds** initially, progressing to absent.
- **Peritoneal signs** (guarding, rebound tenderness) are less characteristic of simple obstruction unless perforation has occurred as a complication.
*Colorectal cancer*
- Colorectal cancer typically presents with **chronic symptoms** such as changes in bowel habits, weight loss, or gastrointestinal bleeding, not sudden, severe generalized abdominal pain with peritoneal signs.
- While it can lead to obstruction or perforation, the acute presentation here points more directly to the acute complication rather than the underlying cancer itself as the cause of this acute pain.
*Ruptured ectopic pregnancy*
- A ruptured ectopic pregnancy would likely present with **vaginal bleeding** (though absent here, her last menstruation was 2 weeks ago so it would be too early for menstruation anyway) and potential **shoulder pain** due to phrenic nerve irritation from hemoperitoneum.
- While she is of reproductive age and sexually active, the absence of missed menses, positive pregnancy test, or specific gynecological findings makes this less likely than perforation given the widespread peritoneal signs and risk factors.
*Acute mesenteric ischemia*
- Acute mesenteric ischemia causes severe abdominal pain often described as **"pain out of proportion to examination findings"** which is the opposite of this patient's presentation with significant physical exam findings.
- It usually presents with risk factors like **atrial fibrillation** or significant vascular disease, and while this patient has hyperlipidemia and hypertension, the peritoneal signs point away from ischemia as the primary cause of acute pain.
Question 5: A 39-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant abdominal discomfort for the past couple of hours. She says that the pain is dull in nature and denies any radiation. She admits to having similar episodes of pain in the past which subsided on its own. Her temperature is 37°C (99.6°F), respirations are 16/min, pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 122/98 mm Hg. Physical examination is normal except for diffuse tenderness of her abdomen. She undergoes a limited abdominal ultrasound which reveals a 1.4 cm gallbladder polyp. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Barium swallow study
B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
D. No further treatment required
E. Cholecystectomy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cholecystectomy***
- This patient has a **gallbladder polyp** measuring **1.4 cm**, which is above the threshold for concern (typically >1 cm), indicating a higher risk of **malignancy**.
- Given her recurrent **right upper quadrant pain**, even if dull and self-resolving, surgical removal (cholecystectomy) is the recommended management to prevent complications and rule out cancer.
*Barium swallow study*
- A **barium swallow study** is used to evaluate the **esophagus** and **upper gastrointestinal tract** for conditions like dysphagia, reflux, or strictures.
- It is not indicated for the evaluation or management of gallbladder polyps or right upper quadrant pain of biliary origin.
*Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)*
- **MRCP** is a non-invasive imaging technique primarily used to visualize the **biliary and pancreatic ducts** for conditions like gallstones, strictures, or tumors.
- While it can provide more detail on biliary anatomy, it is not the primary intervention for a large gallbladder polyp with symptomatic presentation; surgery is more definitive given the size.
*Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)*
- **ERCP** is an invasive endoscopic procedure used to diagnose and treat conditions of the **biliary and pancreatic ducts**, often involving stone removal or stent placement.
- It carries risks and is typically reserved for therapeutic interventions or when MRCP is inconclusive, and not for the initial management of a symptomatic gallbladder polyp.
*No further treatment required*
- A **gallbladder polyp over 1 cm** carries a significant risk of **malignant transformation** and requires intervention.
- This patient also has recurrent symptoms, which further supports the need for treatment rather than watchful waiting, to alleviate symptoms and address the polyp.
Question 6: A 68-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of abdominal pain for 3 days. Physical examination shows guarding and tenderness to palpation over the left lower abdomen. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. A CT scan of the abdomen is shown. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the patient's imaging findings?
A. Impaired organ ascent
B. Abnormal organ rotation
C. Absent tissue differentiation
D. Abnormal outpouching of hollow organ (Correct Answer)
E. Failed neural crest cell migration
Explanation: ***Abnormal outpouching of hollow organ***
- The CT scan findings depict **diverticulitis**, characterized by inflammation of **diverticula**, which are **outpouchings of the colon wall**.
- These outpouchings develop due to **increased intraluminal pressure** causing the mucosa and submucosa to herniate through muscular layers.
*Impaired organ ascent*
- This mechanism is associated with conditions like **malrotation** or an **undescended cecum**, which would present with different imaging findings and clinical context.
- **Impaired organ ascent** does not cause the distinct colonic outpouchings seen in diverticular disease.
*Abnormal organ rotation*
- This typically refers to **intestinal malrotation**, a congenital anomaly where the intestines do not rotate correctly during fetal development.
- It often leads to **volvulus** or internal hernias and is not related to diverticular formation in an older adult.
*Absent tissue differentiation*
- This mechanism describes developmental failures where tissues do not mature into specialized cell types, seen in conditions like **teratomas** or severe **organ dysgenesis**.
- It is not relevant to the acquired or age-related formation of colonic diverticula.
*Failed neural crest cell migration*
- This is the underlying cause for conditions such as **Hirschsprung disease**, where the absence of **ganglion cells** in the colon results in functional obstruction.
- Hirschsprung disease primarily affects newborns and infants, presenting with constipation and abdominal distension, which does not match the patient's presentation or imaging.
Question 7: An 8-year old boy with no past medical history presents to the emergency room with 24-hours of severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and non-bloody diarrhea. His mom states that he has barely eaten in the past 24 hours and has been clutching his abdomen, first near his belly button and now near his right hip. His temperature is 101.4°F (38.5°C), blood pressure is 101/63 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 22/min. On physical exam, the patient is lying very still. There is abdominal tenderness and rigidity upon palpation of the right lower quadrant. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s clinical presentation?
A. Granulomatous inflammation of the appendix
B. Structural abnormality of the appendix
C. Diverticulum in the terminal ileum
D. Fecalith obstruction of the appendix
E. Appendiceal lymphoid hyperplasia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Appendiceal lymphoid hyperplasia***
- Appendiceal lymphoid hyperplasia is the **most common cause of appendicitis in children**, often triggered by viral infections leading to swollen appendiceal lymphoid tissue.
- The constellation of symptoms—**periumbilical pain migrating to the right lower quadrant**, **nausea, vomiting, fever**, and **RLQ tenderness/rigidity**—is classic for appendicitis.
*Granulomatous inflammation of the appendix*
- This is a rare cause of appendicitis, usually associated with **Crohn's disease** or infectious processes like **tuberculosis**.
- No history in this patient suggests a chronic inflammatory or infectious condition that would typically precede granulomatous inflammation.
*Structural abnormality of the appendix*
- **Structural abnormalities**, such as congenital malformations or strictures, are infrequent causes of appendicitis.
- While they can predispose to obstruction, lymphoid hyperplasia is a far more common etiology in children.
*Diverticulum in the terminal ileum*
- A diverticulum in the terminal ileum (e.g., **Meckel's diverticulum**) can cause similar symptoms if inflamed or complicated by hemorrhage or obstruction.
- However, appendicitis due to lymphoid hyperplasia is statistically more common in this age group, and the pain migration strongly points to the appendix.
*Fecalith obstruction of the appendix*
- **Fecalith obstruction** is a common cause of appendicitis in adults but **less frequent in children** compared to lymphoid hyperplasia.
- While it can lead to acute appendicitis, lymphoid hyperplasia due to viral illness is the predominant cause in younger patients.
Question 8: A 44-year-old obese woman presents with abdominal pain. She says the pain started while she was having lunch at a fast-food restaurant with her children. The pain began shortly after eating and has persisted for 6 hours. She has vomited once. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 88, BP 110/70 mmHg, T 38.5°C (101.3°F). On physical exam, she is tender to palpation in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. Her skin appears normal. Her liver function tests, amylase, and lipase levels are normal. A right upper quadrant abdominal ultrasound is challenged by her body habitus and is not able to visualize any gallstones. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her presentation?
A. Cholangitis
B. Cancer of the biliary tree
C. Gallstone disease (Correct Answer)
D. Pancreatic inflammation
E. Acalculous cholecystitis
Explanation: ***Gallstone disease (Acute Cholecystitis)***
- This patient presents with **acute calculous cholecystitis**, an acute inflammatory complication of gallstone disease
- Classic presentation: **obese, female, forty** (4 F's), with **postprandial RUQ pain** after a fatty meal, **fever**, and **RUQ tenderness**
- The **fever (38.5°C)** distinguishes acute cholecystitis from simple biliary colic, indicating gallbladder inflammation
- **Normal LFTs, amylase, and lipase** indicate the stone is in the gallbladder (not CBD or causing pancreatitis)
- Ultrasound limitation due to **body habitus** does not rule out gallstones - clinical diagnosis takes precedence
- Murphy's sign (not mentioned but implied by RUQ tenderness) would support this diagnosis
*Cholangitis*
- **Cholangitis** requires **Charcot's triad**: fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain
- This patient has **no jaundice** and **normal LFTs**, ruling out biliary obstruction and cholangitis
- Cholangitis would show elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase
*Cancer of the biliary tree*
- **Biliary malignancy** presents with **progressive painless jaundice**, weight loss, and pruritus
- The **acute onset** after a fatty meal and **fever** are inconsistent with malignancy
- This age and presentation do not suggest cancer
*Pancreatic inflammation*
- **Pancreatitis** would cause **elevated amylase and lipase**, which are explicitly **normal** in this patient
- Pain typically radiates to the back and is epigastric rather than specifically RUQ
- This rules out pancreatic inflammation
*Acalculous cholecystitis*
- **Acalculous cholecystitis** occurs in critically ill patients (ICU, sepsis, burns, prolonged fasting, TPN)
- This patient is **not critically ill** and has classic risk factors for **calculous** cholecystitis (obese, female, fertile age, fatty meal)
- Even though stones weren't visualized on ultrasound, the clinical picture strongly suggests **gallstone-related** acute cholecystitis
Question 9: A 55-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 24-hour history of severe lower abdominal pain. She has had two episodes of nonbloody vomiting today and has been unable to keep down food or fluids. She has not had a bowel movement since the day before. She has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. She had a cholecystectomy 5 years ago. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 20 years. Current medications include chlorthalidone, atorvastatin, and naproxen. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse is 102/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg. She is 1.68 m (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighs 94.3 kg (207.9 lbs); BMI is 33.4 kg/m2. Abdominal examination shows a soft abdomen with hypoactive bowel sounds. There is moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. A tender mass is palpable on digital rectal examination. There is no guarding or rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 17,000/mm3
Hemoglobin 13.3 g/dl
Hematocrit 40%
Platelet count 188,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
K+ 4.1 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
HCO3- 22 mEq/L
Urea Nitrogen 18.1 mg/dl
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dl
Which of the following is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Abdominal x-ray
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Exploratory laparotomy
D. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
E. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CT scan of the abdomen with contrast***
- A CT scan with contrast is the **gold standard** for diagnosing diverticulitis,
especially given the patient's acute presentation, fever, leukocytosis, and
localized left lower quadrant tenderness. It can visualize **diverticula**,
wall thickening, inflammation, and potential complications like abscesses.
- The patient's presentation with acute, severe lower
abdominal pain, fever, leukocytosis, and a palpable tender mass on
rectal exam suggests **acute diverticulitis**, making a CT scan the most
appropriate diagnostic next step.
*Abdominal x-ray*
- An abdominal X-ray can detect **free air** (suggesting
perforation) or **bowel obstruction**, but it is generally *not sensitive
or specific enough* to diagnose diverticulitis or its complications.
- It would likely miss key findings of inflammation or abscess
formation associated with diverticulitis.
*Abdominal ultrasound*
- While useful for some abdominal conditions, ultrasound often has
**limited views** of the colon due to **bowel gas** and is less effective
at detecting deep-seated inflammation or abscesses in diverticulitis compared to CT.
- Its diagnostic utility for diverticulitis is generally *lower* than
CT, especially in obese patients where visualization can be challenging.
*Exploratory laparotomy*
- This is an **invasive surgical procedure** used for diagnosis and
treatment when other methods have failed or there is clear evidence of a
surgical emergency (e.g., massive bleeding, perforation with diffuse
peritonitis).
- It is *not the initial diagnostic step* for suspected diverticulitis;
less invasive imaging is always performed first.
*Flexible sigmoidoscopy*
- Flexible sigmoidoscopy is **contraindicated** in acute diverticulitis
due to the high **risk of perforation** of an inflamed and fragile colon.
- Endoscopic procedures are typically performed after acute inflammation
has subsided, usually several weeks later, to assess the extent of
diverticular disease and rule out other pathologies.
Question 10: A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain for the last several hours. The pain is cramp-like in nature, constant, 8/10, and has worsened over time. It is associated with bilious vomiting. He gives a history of episodic right upper abdominal pain for the past few months, mostly after consuming fatty foods, radiating to the tip of the right scapula. He reports no change in bowel habits, bladder habits, or change in weight. His past medical history includes diabetes and hypertension, and he takes hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, ramipril, and atorvastatin. Temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min, respiratory rate is 20/min, and BMI is 23 kg/m2. On physical examination, his abdomen is distended and diffusely tender.
Laboratory test
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
WBC 16,000/mm3
Platelets 150,000/mm3
Basic metabolic panel
Serum Na+ 148 mEq/L
Serum K+ 3.3 mEq/L
Serum Cl- 89 mEq/L
An abdominal CT scan is shown. What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s current presentation?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Peptic ulcer disease
C. Ileal stricture
D. Cholelithiasis (Correct Answer)
E. Intestinal adhesion
Explanation: ***Cholelithiasis***
- The patient's history of episodic **right upper abdominal pain** radiating to the **right scapula**, particularly after consuming fatty foods, is highly suggestive of **biliary colic** due to cholelithiasis.
- While the current presentation points to a bowel obstruction (distended, diffusely tender abdomen, bilious vomiting, WBC 16,000/mm3), the underlying cause is likely a complication of chronic gallstone disease, such as **gallstone ileus** where a gallstone erodes into the small bowel causing an obstruction.
- The CT scan would typically show **pneumobilia** (air in the biliary tree), a gallstone in the bowel lumen, and bowel obstruction—the classic **Rigler's triad** of gallstone ileus.
*Pancreatitis*
- Although gallstones can cause pancreatitis, typical pain in pancreatitis usually radiates to the **back** and is often relieved by leaning forward.
- The patient's pain distribution and the historical context of fatty food intolerance point more directly to biliary issues.
- Pancreatitis would also typically present with elevated **amylase and lipase** levels.
*Peptic ulcer disease*
- Pain from peptic ulcer disease is typically epigastric and can be relieved or worsened by food, but it usually does not manifest as cramp-like pain radiating to the right scapula.
- There is no mention of **melena** or **hematemesis**, which are common with complicated peptic ulcers.
- Peptic ulcers do not typically cause mechanical bowel obstruction.
*Ileal stricture*
- While an ileal stricture could cause bowel obstruction symptoms, there is no history of inflammatory bowel disease, prior surgery, radiation, or other risk factors for stricture formation.
- The preceding history of post-prandial right upper quadrant pain makes gallstone-related pathology more probable than an isolated stricture.
*Intestinal adhesion*
- Intestinal adhesions typically occur secondary to **previous abdominal surgery**, which the patient does not have a history of.
- While adhesions can cause bowel obstruction, they wouldn't explain the chronic, episodic right upper abdominal pain related to fatty food intake.