A 44-year-old man presents to his psychiatrist for a follow-up appointment. He is currently being treated for schizophrenia. He states that he is doing well but has experienced some odd movement of his face recently. The patient's sister is with him and states that he has been more reclusive lately and holding what seems to be conversations despite nobody being in his room with him. She has not noticed improvement in his symptoms despite changes in his medications that the psychiatrist has made at the last 3 appointments. His temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 157/88 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for rhythmic movements of the patient's mouth and tongue. Which of the following is a side effect of the next best step in management?
Q22
A 39-year-old man presents to a primary care clinic for a routine physical exam. He denies any complaints. He has a long beard and hair, wears several copper bracelets, and a crystal amulet. When asked about his diet, he discloses eating mostly canned foods, which he has stockpiled in his cabin in case there is a natural disaster or "apocalypse" (though he admits that this is highly unlikely). He has a few close friends, but feels awkward when meeting new people. He seems happy overall and has many long-standing interests, including hiking and astrology. He has been steadily employed as a data scientist and a paranormal investigator. He has never been diagnosed with a mental illness, though he has a family history of schizophrenia. Review of systems is negative for depressed mood, anxiety, or hallucinations. Thought process is linear and reality testing is intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Q23
A 17-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of increasingly withdrawn behavior for the last two years. His mother reports that in the last 2–3 years of high school, her son has spent most of his time in his room playing video games. He does not have any friends and has never had a girlfriend. He usually refuses to attend family dinner and avoids contact with his siblings. The patient states that he prefers being on his own. When asked how much playing video games means to him, he replies that “it's okay.” When his mother starts crying during the visit, he appears indifferent. Physical and neurologic examinations show no other abnormalities. On mental status examination, his thought process is organized and logical. His affect is flattened. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q24
A 63-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with her spouse for routine follow-up. She has a history of schizophrenia and is currently living at a nursing facility. Her symptoms first started 2 years ago, when she developed auditory hallucinations and her family noticed that her thoughts and speech became more tangential and disorganized. After being referred to a psychiatrist, the patient was started on medication. Currently she reports occasional auditory hallucinations, but her spouse states that her symptoms have improved dramatically with medication. On exam, her temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 110/74 mmHg, pulse is 64/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient has normal affect with well-formulated, non-pressured speech. She denies any auditory or visual hallucinations. Notably, however, the patient has repetitive lip-smacking behavior and occasionally sweeps her tongue across her lips. The spouse is curious about how this developed. Which of the following is the most likely medication this patient was started on?
Q25
A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with schizophrenia after nine months of experiencing auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions. Over the next year, she fails to experience symptom relief from separate and appropriately dosed trials of olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone. At this point, which of the following treatment options is most likely to be effective?
Q26
A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of fever and productive cough for the past 4 days. During this period, he has had shortness of breath and chest pain that is worse on inspiration. He also reports fatigue and nausea. He has refractory schizophrenia and recurrent asthma attacks. He used to attend college but was expelled after threatening to harm one of his professors 2 months ago. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Crackles and bronchial breath sounds are heard on auscultation of the left lung. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 1,100/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 5%
Eosinophils 0%
Lymphocytes 93%
Monocytes 2%
Platelet count 260,000/mm3
Which of the following medications is this patient most likely taking?
Q27
A 29-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her father because of a change in her behavior over the past 8 months. The father says that his daughter has become increasingly withdrawn; she has not answered any phone calls or visited her family and friends. The patient says that she has to stay at home because a foreign intelligence service is monitoring her. She thinks that they are using a magnetic field to read her mind. Mental status exam shows disjointed and perseverative thinking. She is anxious and has a flat affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q28
A 30-year-old man presents with restlessness and an inability to sit or lie down for the past 2 days. Past medical history is significant for schizophrenia, diagnosed 3 weeks ago and managed medically. Vital signs are a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg and a pulse of 96/min. On physical examination, the patient is fidgety and anxious but well-oriented. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Schizophrenia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 44-year-old man presents to his psychiatrist for a follow-up appointment. He is currently being treated for schizophrenia. He states that he is doing well but has experienced some odd movement of his face recently. The patient's sister is with him and states that he has been more reclusive lately and holding what seems to be conversations despite nobody being in his room with him. She has not noticed improvement in his symptoms despite changes in his medications that the psychiatrist has made at the last 3 appointments. His temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 157/88 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for rhythmic movements of the patient's mouth and tongue. Which of the following is a side effect of the next best step in management?
A. Anxiolysis
B. Dry mouth and dry eyes
C. QT prolongation on EKG
D. Infection (Correct Answer)
E. Worsening of psychotic symptoms
Explanation: ***Infection***
- The patient has **tardive dyskinesia** and **persistent psychotic symptoms** despite changes in medications. The next best step is to switch to **clozapine**.
- **Clozapine** can cause **agranulocytosis**, which increases the risk of serious infections and requires regular monitoring of white blood cell counts.
*Anxiolysis*
- While some antipsychotics can have anxiolytic effects, it is not the primary side effect or the most concerning one for the "next best step" in this context.
- The patient's primary issues are persistent psychosis and tardive dyskinesia, not anxiety that would be specifically targeted as the main side effect.
*Dry mouth and dry eyes*
- These are common **anticholinergic side effects** associated with many antipsychotics, including clozapine, but they are generally less severe and life-threatening compared to the risk of agranulocytosis.
- While unpleasant, they are not the most significant or defining side effect of the "next best step" in managing this patient's complex presentation.
*QT prolongation on EKG*
- **QT prolongation** is a known cardiac side effect of several antipsychotics, including clozapine.
- However, the risk of **agranulocytosis** with **clozapine** is arguably the most critical and distinct side effect requiring stringent monitoring, making it the "next best step" related answer.
*Worsening of psychotic symptoms*
- The "next best step" would be directed at *improving* psychotic symptoms, not worsening them. **Clozapine** is specifically indicated for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia**.
- Worsening psychosis would indicate treatment failure or an adverse reaction, not a typical side effect of the intended beneficial action.
Question 22: A 39-year-old man presents to a primary care clinic for a routine physical exam. He denies any complaints. He has a long beard and hair, wears several copper bracelets, and a crystal amulet. When asked about his diet, he discloses eating mostly canned foods, which he has stockpiled in his cabin in case there is a natural disaster or "apocalypse" (though he admits that this is highly unlikely). He has a few close friends, but feels awkward when meeting new people. He seems happy overall and has many long-standing interests, including hiking and astrology. He has been steadily employed as a data scientist and a paranormal investigator. He has never been diagnosed with a mental illness, though he has a family history of schizophrenia. Review of systems is negative for depressed mood, anxiety, or hallucinations. Thought process is linear and reality testing is intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A. Schizoid personality disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Brief psychotic disorder
D. Schizotypal personality disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Schizophreniform disorder
Explanation: ***Schizotypal personality disorder***
- This patient exhibits odd beliefs and **magical thinking** (copper bracelets, crystal amulet, paranormal investigator, astrology), eccentric behavior (stockpiled canned goods for an apocalypse), and **social anxiety** and discomfort with new people, which are characteristic features of schizotypal personality disorder.
- Despite the unusual beliefs, his **reality testing is intact**, and he lacks overt psychotic symptoms like hallucinations or delusions, differentiating it from psychotic disorders.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- Individuals with schizoid personality disorder show a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression, often described as showing emotional frigidity.
- While this patient has some awkwardness with new people, he has a few close friends, long-standing interests, and is capable of empathy, which is not typical of the **profound social isolation and indifference** seen in schizoid personality disorder.
*Schizophrenia*
- Schizophrenia is characterized by significant psychotic symptoms such as **delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior**, and negative symptoms (e.g., flattened affect, avolition) that impair functioning.
- This patient explicitly denies **depressed mood, anxiety, or hallucinations**, and his thought process is linear with intact reality testing, ruling out active schizophrenia.
*Brief psychotic disorder*
- Brief psychotic disorder involves the sudden onset of at least one psychotic symptom (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or grossly disorganized/catatonic behavior) lasting **more than one day but less than one month**, with eventual full return to premorbid functioning.
- This patient does not exhibit any **acute psychotic symptoms**; his peculiar beliefs and social discomfiture are long-standing personality traits, not a sudden onset of active psychosis.
*Schizophreniform disorder*
- Schizophreniform disorder involves symptoms that are identical to schizophrenia but last for a shorter duration, specifically **between one and six months**.
- As with schizophrenia, this patient does not demonstrate the core **psychotic symptoms** (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech) required for a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder, and his reality testing remains intact.
Question 23: A 17-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of increasingly withdrawn behavior for the last two years. His mother reports that in the last 2–3 years of high school, her son has spent most of his time in his room playing video games. He does not have any friends and has never had a girlfriend. He usually refuses to attend family dinner and avoids contact with his siblings. The patient states that he prefers being on his own. When asked how much playing video games means to him, he replies that “it's okay.” When his mother starts crying during the visit, he appears indifferent. Physical and neurologic examinations show no other abnormalities. On mental status examination, his thought process is organized and logical. His affect is flattened. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Schizoid personality disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Paranoid personality disorder
D. Schizophreniform disorder
E. Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation: ***Schizoid personality disorder***
- This patient exhibits key features of **schizoid personality disorder**, including **social detachment**, **restricted emotional expression**, and a **lack of desire for close relationships**. His indifference to his mother's crying and preference for solitary activities (video games) are very characteristic.
- While he spends a lot of time playing video games, his statement that "it's okay" when asked about their importance suggests a general lack of strong feelings or passions, which is consistent with the flat affect and anhedonia seen in this disorder.
*Antisocial personality disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a **disregard for social norms and the rights of others**, often involving **deceit, manipulation, and impulsivity**. This patient does not show evidence of violating social rules or harming others.
- While he may lack empathy (indifference to his mother's crying), the primary features defining antisocial personality disorder, such as a **history of conduct problems** or criminal behavior, are absent.
*Paranoid personality disorder*
- Individuals with **paranoid personality disorder** exhibit widespread **distrust and suspicion of others' motives**, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This patient does not display any signs of paranoia or suspiciousness.
- His social withdrawal stems from a lack of interest in social relationships rather than fear or distrust of others.
*Schizophreniform disorder*
- **Schizophreniform disorder** involves psychotic symptoms such as **hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, or grossly disorganized/catatonic behavior**, lasting from one to six months. This patient's thought process is described as organized and logical, and he presents no psychotic features.
- His symptoms are primarily related to personality traits and social functioning, without evidence of the more severe disruptions in thought and perception seen in psychotic disorders.
*Avoidant personality disorder*
- **Avoidant personality disorder** is characterized by **social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation**, leading to avoidance of social interaction despite a desire for connection.
- This patient's social withdrawal is due to a **lack of interest in relationships** rather than fear of rejection or inadequacy; he states he *prefers* to be on his own.
Question 24: A 63-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with her spouse for routine follow-up. She has a history of schizophrenia and is currently living at a nursing facility. Her symptoms first started 2 years ago, when she developed auditory hallucinations and her family noticed that her thoughts and speech became more tangential and disorganized. After being referred to a psychiatrist, the patient was started on medication. Currently she reports occasional auditory hallucinations, but her spouse states that her symptoms have improved dramatically with medication. On exam, her temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 110/74 mmHg, pulse is 64/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient has normal affect with well-formulated, non-pressured speech. She denies any auditory or visual hallucinations. Notably, however, the patient has repetitive lip-smacking behavior and occasionally sweeps her tongue across her lips. The spouse is curious about how this developed. Which of the following is the most likely medication this patient was started on?
A. Clozapine
B. Risperidone
C. Olanzapine
D. Haloperidol (Correct Answer)
E. Quetiapine
Explanation: ***Haloperidol***
- The patient's repetitive **lip-smacking** and **tongue-sweeping** behaviors are characteristic of **tardive dyskinesia**, an involuntary movement disorder.
- **First-generation antipsychotics** (FGAs) like haloperidol are highly associated with tardive dyskinesia due to their strong **D2 receptor blockade**.
*Clozapine*
- Clozapine is a **second-generation antipsychotic** (SGA) known for its very low risk of **tardive dyskinesia**.
- It is often used for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** and carries a risk of agranulocytosis.
*Risperidone*
- Risperidone is an **SGA** that has a **higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects** and tardive dyskinesia compared to other SGAs, but generally less than FGAs.
- The prominent and classic presentation of tardive dyskinesia points more strongly to an FGA.
*Olanzapine*
- Olanzapine is an **SGA** with a relatively low risk of **tardive dyskinesia** but is associated with significant **metabolic side effects** (weight gain, dyslipidemia, hyperglycemia).
- Its side effect profile generally does not match the described neurological symptoms as the most likely cause.
*Quetiapine*
- Quetiapine is an **SGA** well-known for its very **low risk of extrapyramidal side effects** and tardive dyskinesia due to its weak D2 receptor binding and rapid dissociation.
- It is often favored for patients who are sensitive to motor side effects.
Question 25: A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with schizophrenia after nine months of experiencing auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions. Over the next year, she fails to experience symptom relief from separate and appropriately dosed trials of olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone. At this point, which of the following treatment options is most likely to be effective?
A. Clonidine
B. Haloperidol
C. Clozapine (Correct Answer)
D. Aripiprazole
E. Cognitive behavioral therapy
Explanation: ***Clozapine***
- **Clozapine** is the drug of choice for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia**, defined as inadequate response to two or more different antipsychotics (including at least one second-generation agent) given at adequate doses and for sufficient durations.
- Its unique mechanism of action, involving dopamine and serotonin receptors, makes it effective in about 30-50% of patients who do not respond to other antipsychotics.
*Clonidine*
- **Clonidine** is primarily an **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** used for hypertension, ADHD, and substance withdrawal, not a primary treatment for schizophrenia.
- It does not have significant antipsychotic properties to address hallucinations and delusions.
*Haloperidol*
- **Haloperidol** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that the patient's prior treatment with olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone (all second-generation antipsychotics) already demonstrated failure with similar mechanisms of action.
- Since the patient has already failed multiple antipsychotics, switching to another typical antipsychotic is unlikely to be effective.
*Aripiprazole*
- **Aripiprazole** is another **second-generation antipsychotic** that works similarly to the ones the patient has already failed (olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone).
- Given the lack of response to previous trials, it is unlikely to provide superior efficacy in this case of treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy*
- **Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)** is a helpful adjunct to pharmacotherapy for schizophrenia, but it is **not a monotherapy** for acute psychotic symptoms or treatment-resistant cases.
- While supportive and beneficial for managing symptoms and improving coping skills, it does not replace the need for effective pharmacological treatment in resistant schizophrenia.
Question 26: A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of fever and productive cough for the past 4 days. During this period, he has had shortness of breath and chest pain that is worse on inspiration. He also reports fatigue and nausea. He has refractory schizophrenia and recurrent asthma attacks. He used to attend college but was expelled after threatening to harm one of his professors 2 months ago. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Crackles and bronchial breath sounds are heard on auscultation of the left lung. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 1,100/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 5%
Eosinophils 0%
Lymphocytes 93%
Monocytes 2%
Platelet count 260,000/mm3
Which of the following medications is this patient most likely taking?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Risperidone
C. Haloperidol
D. Olanzapine
E. Clozapine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Clozapine***
- The patient exhibits severe **agranulocytosis** (WBC count 1,100/mm³ with 5% neutrophils, indicating an absolute neutrophil count of 55/mm³), a life-threatening side effect uniquely associated with **clozapine** among antipsychotics.
- Given his history of **refractory schizophrenia** (implying resistance to other antipsychotics), clozapine is the most likely antipsychotic he would be prescribed.
*Chlorpromazine*
- This first-generation antipsychotic can cause adverse effects like **sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and anticholinergic symptoms**, but severe agranulocytosis is rare.
- While it can cause leukopenia, the profound agranulocytosis seen in the patient is not characteristic of chlorpromazine.
*Risperidone*
- Atypical antipsychotic known for side effects such as **hyperprolactinemia, weight gain, and metabolic syndrome**.
- Though it can cause neutropenia or leukopenia, it rarely causes the severe agranulocytosis observed here.
*Haloperidol*
- A high-potency first-generation antipsychotic primarily associated with **extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)** and **neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)**.
- It does not typically cause the severe bone marrow suppression, specifically agranulocytosis, observed in this patient.
*Olanzapine*
- This atypical antipsychotic is associated with significant **weight gain, sedation, and metabolic syndrome**.
- While it can cause some hematologic abnormalities, it is not known to cause severe agranulocytosis to the same extent as clozapine.
Question 27: A 29-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her father because of a change in her behavior over the past 8 months. The father says that his daughter has become increasingly withdrawn; she has not answered any phone calls or visited her family and friends. The patient says that she has to stay at home because a foreign intelligence service is monitoring her. She thinks that they are using a magnetic field to read her mind. Mental status exam shows disjointed and perseverative thinking. She is anxious and has a flat affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Delusional disorder
B. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
C. Paranoid personality disorder
D. Schizophreniform disorder
E. Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia***
- The patient's presentation with **delusions of persecution and thought broadcasting**, accompanied by **disjointed, perseverative thinking**, and **flat affect** for 8 months, is highly indicative of schizophrenia.
- Schizophrenia is characterized by a combination of positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech), negative symptoms (flat affect, social withdrawal), and cognitive symptoms (disorganized thinking) lasting for at least 6 months.
*Delusional disorder*
- Delusional disorder is characterized by the presence of **non-bizarre delusions for at least 1 month** without other significant psychotic symptoms or marked impairment in functioning.
- The patient's symptoms include **disorganized thinking and flat affect**, which are not typical of delusional disorder and suggest a broader psychotic illness.
*Paranoid personality disorder*
- Characterized by a pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, where their motives are interpreted as malevolent, but **without the presence of frank delusions or other psychotic symptoms**.
- The patient is experiencing **fixed, false beliefs (delusions)** involving mind reading and foreign intelligence, which goes beyond the pervasive distrust seen in paranoid personality disorder.
*Schizophreniform disorder*
- Schizophreniform disorder presents with symptoms identical to schizophrenia, but the **duration is between 1 and 6 months**.
- Since the patient's symptoms have been present for **8 months**, it exceeds the diagnostic criteria for schizophreniform disorder, making schizophrenia a more likely diagnosis.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- Characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings.
- While the patient exhibits social withdrawal, this condition does **not involve delusions, disorganized thinking, or other psychotic features**.
Question 28: A 30-year-old man presents with restlessness and an inability to sit or lie down for the past 2 days. Past medical history is significant for schizophrenia, diagnosed 3 weeks ago and managed medically. Vital signs are a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg and a pulse of 96/min. On physical examination, the patient is fidgety and anxious but well-oriented. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Akathisia (Correct Answer)
B. Essential tremor
C. Drug-induced parkinsonism
D. Psychotic agitation
E. Acute dystonia
Explanation: ***Akathisia***
- **Akathisia** is a common extrapyramidal symptom characterized by **inner restlessness** and an inability to sit still, often leading to fidgeting and pacing.
- This symptom frequently arises after initiating or increasing the dose of **antipsychotic medications**, particularly **first-generation antipsychotics**, consistent with the patient's recent schizophrenia diagnosis and treatment.
*Essential tremor*
- **Essential tremor** is typically a kinetic tremor (tremor with movement) or postural tremor (tremor when holding a posture) that primarily affects the hands and head, rather than an intense feeling of inner restlessness.
- While it can cause discomfort, it doesn't manifest as an inability to sit or lie down due to an internal urge for constant movement like akathisia.
*Drug-induced parkinsonism*
- **Drug-induced parkinsonism** presents with symptoms like **bradykinesia (slow movement)**, rigidity, and resting tremor, mimicking Parkinson's disease.
- It does not primarily involve the subjective feeling of restlessness or the inability to sit or lie down, which is characteristic of akathisia.
*Psychotic agitation*
- **Psychotic agitation** is a state of severe restlessness and heightened activity often accompanied by disordered thinking, irritability, and potentially aggression, typically stemming from the underlying psychotic disorder itself.
- While psychosis can involve restlessness, akathisia is a specific drug-induced movement disorder with a characteristic internal sensation of unease, distinct from the broader disorganization seen in general psychotic agitation.
*Acute dystonia*
- **Acute dystonia** involves sustained or repetitive muscle contractions, leading to abnormal, often painful, postures or movements, such as torticollis or oculogyric crisis.
- It does not explain the patient's generalized restlessness and inability to remain still, which points more towards akathisia rather than specific muscle spasms.