A 24-year-old man and his mother arrive for a psychiatric evaluation. She is concerned about his health and behavior ever since he dropped out of graduate school and moved back home 8 months ago. He is always very anxious and preoccupied with thoughts of school and getting a job. He also seems to behave very oddly at times such as wearing his winter jacket in summer. He says that he hears voices but he can not understand what they are saying. When prompted he describes a plot to have him killed with poison seeping from the walls. Today, his heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, and temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F). On physical exam, he appears gaunt and anxious. His heart has a regular rate and rhythm and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. CMP, CBC, and TSH are normal. A urine toxicology test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q2
A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician because she has been hearing voices in her apartment during the past year. She also reports that she has been receiving warning messages in newspaper articles during this period. She thinks that “someone is trying to kill her”. She avoids meeting her family and friends because they do not believe her. She does not use illicit drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a normal affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term treatment?
Q3
A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician because she thinks that her “right wrist is broken.” She says that she has severe pain and that “the bone is sticking out.” She has not had any trauma to the wrist. Her medical records indicate that she was diagnosed with schizophrenia 2 years ago and treated with olanzapine; she has not filled any prescriptions over the past 4 months. Three weeks ago, she stopped going to work because she “did not feel like getting up” in the morning. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination of the right wrist shows no visible injury; there is no warmth, swelling, or erythema. Range of motion is limited by pain. On mental status examination, she has a flat affect. Her speech is pressured and she frequently changes the topic. She has short- and long-term memory deficits. Attention and concentration are poor. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Urine toxicology screening is negative. An x-ray of the wrist shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient's concerns?
Q4
A 22-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency room escorted by police. The officers state that the patient was found at a local mall, threatening to harm people in the parking lot, screaming at them, and chasing them. The patient states that those people were agents of the government sent to kill him. The patient is agitated and seems to be responding to internal stimuli. He refuses treatment and states that he wants to leave or he will hurt the hospital staff and other patients. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q5
A 45-year-old obese man is evaluated in a locked psychiatric facility. He was admitted to the unit after he was caught running through traffic naked while tearing out his hair. His urine toxicology screening was negative for illicit substances and after careful evaluation and additional history, provided by his parents, he was diagnosed with schizophrenia and was treated with aripiprazole. His symptoms did not improve after several dosage adjustments and he was placed on haloperidol, but this left him too lethargic and slow and he was placed on loxapine. After several dosage adjustments today, he is still quite confused. He describes giant spiders and robots that torture him in his room. He describes an incessant voice screaming at him to run away. He also strongly dislikes his current medication and would like to try something else. Which of the following is indicated in this patient?
Q6
A 31-year-old woman comes to the emergency department requesting an abortion. She hears voices telling her that she needs ""to undergo a cleanse."" She experiences daytime sleepiness because she repeatedly wakes up at night. She says that she is no longer interested in activities that she used to enjoy. About 2 months ago, her psychiatrist switched her medication from aripiprazole to risperidone because it was not effective even at maximum dose. Vital signs are within normal limits. Mental status examination shows accelerated speech, and the patient regularly switches the conversation to the natural habitat of bees. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Toxicology screening is negative. Pelvic ultrasonography shows a pregnancy at an estimated 15 weeks' gestation. Following admission to the hospital, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q7
A 16-year-old boy is brought in to a psychiatrist's office by his mother for increasingly concerning erratic behavior. Her son has recently entered a new relationship, and he constantly voices beliefs that his girlfriend is cheating on him. He ended his last relationship after voicing the same beliefs about his last partner. During the visit, the patient reports that these beliefs are justified, since everyone at school is “out to get him.” He says that even his teachers are against him, based on their criticism of his schoolwork. His mother adds that her son has always held grudges against people and has always taken comments very personally. The patient has no psychiatric history and is in otherwise good health. What condition is this patient genetically predisposed for?
Q8
A 27-year-old woman is brought to the office at the insistence of her fiancé to be evaluated for auditory hallucinations for the past 8 months. The patient’s fiancé tells the physician that the patient often mentions that she can hear her own thoughts speaking aloud to her. The hallucinations have occurred intermittently for at least 1-month periods. Past medical history is significant for hypertension. Her medications include lisinopril and a daily multivitamin both of which she frequently neglects. She lost her security job 7 months ago after failing to report to work on time. The patient’s vital signs include: blood pressure 132/82 mm Hg; pulse 72/min; respiratory rate 18/min, and temperature 36.7°C (98.1°F). On physical examination, the patient has a flat affect and her focus fluctuates from the window to the door. She is disheveled with a foul smell. She has difficulty focusing on the discussion and does not quite understand what is happening around her. A urine toxicology screen is negative. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis for this patient?
Q9
A 24-year-old man is brought to the doctor's office by his mother because the patient believes aliens have begun to read his mind and will soon have him performing missions for them. The patient's mother says that the delusions have been intermittently present for periods of at least 1-month over the past year. When he is not having delusions, she says he still lacks expression and has no interest in socializing with his friends or going out. He has no past medical history and takes no prescription medications. The patient has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. Since the disturbance, he has not been able to maintain employment and lives at home with his mother. His vitals include: blood pressure 124/82 mm Hg, pulse 68/min, respiratory rate 14/min, temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F). On physical examination, the patient exhibits poor eye contact with a flat affect. His speech is circumferential, and he is currently experiencing bizarre delusions. The results from a urine drug screen are shown below:
Amphetamine negative
Benzodiazepine negative
Cocaine negative
GHB negative
Ketamine negative
LSD negative
Marijuana negative
Opioids negative
PCP negative
Which of the following is the correct diagnosis?
Q10
A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a homeless shelter because of bizarre behavior. He avoids contact with others and has complained to the supervising staff that he thinks people are reading his mind. Three days ago, he unplugged every electrical appliance on his floor of the shelter because he believed they were being used to transmit messages about him to others. The patient has schizophrenia and has been prescribed risperidone but has been unable to comply with his medications because of his unstable living situation. He is disheveled and malodorous. His thought process is disorganized and he does not make eye contact. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term pharmacotherapy?
Schizophrenia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 24-year-old man and his mother arrive for a psychiatric evaluation. She is concerned about his health and behavior ever since he dropped out of graduate school and moved back home 8 months ago. He is always very anxious and preoccupied with thoughts of school and getting a job. He also seems to behave very oddly at times such as wearing his winter jacket in summer. He says that he hears voices but he can not understand what they are saying. When prompted he describes a plot to have him killed with poison seeping from the walls. Today, his heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, and temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F). On physical exam, he appears gaunt and anxious. His heart has a regular rate and rhythm and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. CMP, CBC, and TSH are normal. A urine toxicology test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
B. Substance-induced psychosis
C. Schizophreniform disorder
D. Schizoaffective disorder
E. Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia***
- The patient presents with **delusions** ("plot to have him killed"), **hallucinations** ("hears voices"), **disorganized thinking** (preoccupied with school and job but no progress made, wearing winter jacket in summer can be a sign of disorganized behavior), and **negative symptoms** (appears gaunt and anxious, social withdrawal, drop out of school). These symptoms have been present since he dropped out of graduate school 8 months ago, indicating a **duration of at least 6 months**.
- The combination of these symptoms persisting for over 6 months, impacting his functioning, and absence of other medical or substance-related causes, is diagnostic of **schizophrenia**.
*Substance-induced psychosis*
- The **urine toxicology test is negative**, ruling out recent substance use as the cause of his psychotic symptoms.
- The **chronicity** of symptoms (8 months) is less typical for acute substance-induced psychosis, which generally resolves more quickly after the substance is cleared.
*Schizophreniform disorder*
- Schizophreniform disorder involves the same symptoms as schizophrenia but with a **duration of at least 1 month but less than 6 months**.
- The patient's symptoms have been present for **8 months**, exceeding the criteria for schizophreniform disorder.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- Schizoaffective disorder requires the presence of a **major mood episode** (depressive or manic) concurrent with criteria A of schizophrenia. Additionally, **delusions or hallucinations for at least 2 weeks** must occur in the absence of a major mood episode at some point during the illness.
- While the patient appears anxious, there is **no clear evidence of a persistent major depressive or manic episode** that would qualify for schizoaffective disorder.
*Brief psychotic disorder*
- Brief psychotic disorder is characterized by psychotic symptoms lasting **more than 1 day but less than 1 month**.
- The patient's symptoms have been ongoing for **8 months**, far exceeding the duration for brief psychotic disorder.
Question 2: A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician because she has been hearing voices in her apartment during the past year. She also reports that she has been receiving warning messages in newspaper articles during this period. She thinks that “someone is trying to kill her”. She avoids meeting her family and friends because they do not believe her. She does not use illicit drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a normal affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term treatment?
A. Lithium carbonate
B. Fluphenazine
C. Clozapine
D. Quetiapine (Correct Answer)
E. Midazolam
Explanation: ***Quetiapine***
- This patient presents with **psychotic symptoms** (auditory hallucinations, delusions of persecution and reference) lasting over a year, consistent with **schizophrenia**.
- **Quetiapine** is a **second-generation antipsychotic** (atypical antipsychotic) commonly used as a long-term treatment for schizophrenia due to its efficacy in managing positive and negative symptoms and typically favorable side effect profile compared to first-generation agents.
*Lithium carbonate*
- **Lithium** is primarily used as a **mood stabilizer** for bipolar disorder, particularly for managing manic and mixed episodes.
- While it can have some antipsychotic effects, it is not the first-line long-term treatment for **schizophrenia** with prominent psychotic symptoms.
*Fluphenazine*
- **Fluphenazine** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** (typical antipsychotic) and is effective for positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- However, it has a higher risk of **extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)** and **tardive dyskinesia** compared to second-generation antipsychotics, making second-generation agents often preferred for long-term treatment.
*Clozapine*
- **Clozapine** is a highly effective **second-generation antipsychotic** for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** but is not a first-line agent for initial treatment due to significant side effects.
- Its use is limited by the risk of **agranulocytosis**, requiring regular blood monitoring, and other serious side effects like myocarditis and seizures.
*Midazolam*
- **Midazolam** is a **benzodiazepine** used for acute sedation, anxiety, or insomnia due to its rapid onset and short duration of action.
- It has no role in the long-term treatment of **psychotic disorders** like schizophrenia.
Question 3: A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician because she thinks that her “right wrist is broken.” She says that she has severe pain and that “the bone is sticking out.” She has not had any trauma to the wrist. Her medical records indicate that she was diagnosed with schizophrenia 2 years ago and treated with olanzapine; she has not filled any prescriptions over the past 4 months. Three weeks ago, she stopped going to work because she “did not feel like getting up” in the morning. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination of the right wrist shows no visible injury; there is no warmth, swelling, or erythema. Range of motion is limited by pain. On mental status examination, she has a flat affect. Her speech is pressured and she frequently changes the topic. She has short- and long-term memory deficits. Attention and concentration are poor. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Urine toxicology screening is negative. An x-ray of the wrist shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient's concerns?
A. “It seems as though you are having a schizophrenia relapse. If you don't follow my recommendations and take your medications, you will most likely have further and possibly more severe episodes.”
B. “I cannot see any injury of your wrist and the physical exam as well as the x-ray don't show any injury. I imagine that feeling as if your wrist was broken may be very uncomfortable. Can you tell me more about what it feels like?” (Correct Answer)
C. I understand your concerns; however, your symptoms seem to be psychological in nature. I would be happy to refer you to a mental health professional.
D. You are clearly distressed. However, your tests do not suggest a physical problem that can be addressed with medications or surgery. I suggest that we meet and evaluate your symptoms on a regular basis.
E. I can imagine that you are uncomfortable. That certainly looks painful. Let's take care of this injury first and then we should talk about your problems getting up in the morning.
Explanation: ***“I cannot see any injury of your wrist and the physical exam as well as the x-ray don't show any injury. I imagine that feeling as if your wrist was broken may be very uncomfortable. Can you tell me more about what it feels like?”***
- This response **validates the patient's experience of pain and distress** while gently reorienting them to the objective findings (no physical injury).
- It opens a dialog to explore the **patient's subjective experience** and build trust, which is crucial for addressing underlying psychiatric issues in a patient with schizophrenia.
*“It seems as though you are having a schizophrenia relapse. If you don't follow my recommendations and take your medications, you will most likely have further and possibly more severe episodes.”*
- This statement is **confrontational and judgmental**, potentially alienating the patient and making them less likely to engage in treatment.
- Directly labeling a relapse and warning of future severity without first building rapport can trigger **defensiveness and non-compliance**.
*I understand your concerns; however, your symptoms seem to be psychological in nature. I would be happy to refer you to a mental health professional.*
- While accurate about the psychological nature of symptoms, this response **dismisses the patient's immediate physical complaint** and might make them feel unheard.
- It prematurely jumps to a referral without fully exploring the current presentation or establishing a therapeutic alliance, which can be perceived as the physician "passing the buck."
*I can imagine that you are uncomfortable. That certainly looks painful. Let's take care of this injury first and then we should talk about your problems getting up in the morning.*
- This response **validates a non-existent injury**, reinforcing the patient's delusion and potentially diverting attention from the underlying psychiatric condition.
- Prioritizing a non-existent injury would lead to inappropriate medical interventions and delay necessary psychiatric care.
*You are clearly distressed. However, your tests do not suggest a physical problem that can be addressed with medications or surgery. I suggest that we meet and evaluate your symptoms on a regular basis.*
- While acknowledging distress and the lack of physical pathology, this response is somewhat **vague and lacks a clear plan** for addressing the primary concern of perceived injury.
- "Regular evaluation" without specific intent to explore the psychological component or re-initiate psychiatric treatment may not be sufficient for a patient experiencing a schizophrenia relapse.
Question 4: A 22-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency room escorted by police. The officers state that the patient was found at a local mall, threatening to harm people in the parking lot, screaming at them, and chasing them. The patient states that those people were agents of the government sent to kill him. The patient is agitated and seems to be responding to internal stimuli. He refuses treatment and states that he wants to leave or he will hurt the hospital staff and other patients. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Let the patient leave against medical advice.
B. Begin treatment due to patient's lack of decision-making capacity. (Correct Answer)
C. Wait for a psychiatrist to determine patient capacity.
D. Determine patient competency.
E. Ask the police to escort the patient to jail.
Explanation: ***Begin treatment due to patient's lack of decision-making capacity.***
- The patient exhibits features of acute psychosis, including **paranoid delusions**, **hallucinations** (responding to internal stimuli), and **agitation**, which significantly impair his ability to make rational decisions about his care.
- Due to the **imminent risk of harm to himself and others**, and his inability to understand the consequences of leaving, treatment is ethically and legally justified even without his consent under the principle of **parens patriae** and the duty to protect.
*Let the patient leave against medical advice.*
- Allowing the patient to leave against medical advice would expose others to potential harm given his threats and agitated state, and would neglect the physician's duty to protect.
- A patient lacking **decision-making capacity** cannot validly refuse treatment, especially when there's a risk of harm to self or others.
*Wait for a psychiatrist to determine patient capacity.*
- While a psychiatric evaluation is crucial, the **immediate danger** posed by the patient's agitation and threats necessitates prompt intervention.
- Delaying treatment to wait for a formal capacity assessment could compromise safety. The emergency physician can initially determine capacity for the purpose of urgent intervention.
*Determine patient competency.*
- **Competency** is a legal term determined by a court, whereas **capacity** is a clinical determination made by a physician.
- The immediate clinical need is to assess and manage the patient's capacity to make medical decisions, not their legal competency.
*Ask the police to escort the patient to jail.*
- While the patient's actions are disruptive, his behavior stems from a medical condition (schizophrenia), making him a patient in need of medical care, not primarily a criminal.
- Incarceration would not address the underlying acute psychiatric emergency and could worsen his condition or delay appropriate treatment.
Question 5: A 45-year-old obese man is evaluated in a locked psychiatric facility. He was admitted to the unit after he was caught running through traffic naked while tearing out his hair. His urine toxicology screening was negative for illicit substances and after careful evaluation and additional history, provided by his parents, he was diagnosed with schizophrenia and was treated with aripiprazole. His symptoms did not improve after several dosage adjustments and he was placed on haloperidol, but this left him too lethargic and slow and he was placed on loxapine. After several dosage adjustments today, he is still quite confused. He describes giant spiders and robots that torture him in his room. He describes an incessant voice screaming at him to run away. He also strongly dislikes his current medication and would like to try something else. Which of the following is indicated in this patient?
A. Haloperidol
B. Olanzapine
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Fluphenazine
E. Clozapine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Clozapine***
- This patient has **treatment-resistant schizophrenia**, indicated by a lack of response to multiple trials of antipsychotics, including aripiprazole (atypical), haloperidol (typical), and loxapine (atypical).
- **Clozapine** is the only antipsychotic proven effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia, significantly reducing psychotic symptoms and suicidality.
*Haloperidol*
- Haloperidol is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that the patient has already tried and found to be too sedating and slow.
- Continuing with haloperidol would likely result in persistent side effects and inadequate symptom control given his prior negative experience.
*Olanzapine*
- Olanzapine is a **second-generation atypical antipsychotic**; however, it is not typically indicated as a first-line treatment for treatment-resistant schizophrenia after failure of multiple agents.
- While effective for schizophrenia, it would be less effective than clozapine in a patient who has failed several previous antipsychotic trials.
*Chlorpromazine*
- Chlorpromazine is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that carries a higher risk of sedation, extrapyramidal symptoms, and anticholinergic side effects.
- It is unlikely to be more effective than haloperidol, which the patient already found too sedating and slow, and would not be the preferred choice for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
*Fluphenazine*
- Fluphenazine is a **first-generation antipsychotic** with potent dopamine D2 receptor blockade, often leading to significant extrapyramidal side effects.
- Like other first-generation antipsychotics, it is not indicated as the next step for treatment-resistant schizophrenia after failure of multiple trials.
Question 6: A 31-year-old woman comes to the emergency department requesting an abortion. She hears voices telling her that she needs ""to undergo a cleanse."" She experiences daytime sleepiness because she repeatedly wakes up at night. She says that she is no longer interested in activities that she used to enjoy. About 2 months ago, her psychiatrist switched her medication from aripiprazole to risperidone because it was not effective even at maximum dose. Vital signs are within normal limits. Mental status examination shows accelerated speech, and the patient regularly switches the conversation to the natural habitat of bees. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Toxicology screening is negative. Pelvic ultrasonography shows a pregnancy at an estimated 15 weeks' gestation. Following admission to the hospital, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Quetiapine therapy
B. Lithium therapy
C. Clomipramine therapy
D. Clozapine therapy (Correct Answer)
E. Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation: ***Clozapine therapy***
- This patient presents with **treatment-resistant psychosis** having failed aripiprazole at maximum dose and showing persistent symptoms despite 2 months on risperidone. She exhibits **auditory hallucinations**, **mood symptoms** (anhedonia, sleep disturbance), and **thought disorganization** (tangentiality), suggesting possible schizoaffective disorder.
- **Clozapine is the gold standard treatment** for schizophrenia that has failed at least two adequate trials of other antipsychotics. It is the **only FDA-approved medication** specifically indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
- While clozapine requires close monitoring for **agranulocytosis** (weekly CBC for 6 months, then biweekly), it can be used during pregnancy when benefits outweigh risks. The patient requires psychiatric stabilization, and clozapine offers the best chance of symptom control given her refractory illness.
*Electroconvulsive therapy*
- ECT is highly effective for severe psychiatric illness but is typically reserved for: **severe catatonia**, medication failures **including clozapine**, or situations requiring **rapid response** when medications are contraindicated.
- This patient has not yet tried clozapine, which should be the next step before considering ECT. She does not have catatonia (insomnia and tangentiality are not catatonic features).
- ECT would be appropriate if clozapine fails or is contraindicated, but it is not the most appropriate **next** step when a proven medication option remains untried.
*Quetiapine therapy*
- Quetiapine is another atypical antipsychotic, but simply switching to another non-clozapine antipsychotic after two failures is not the recommended approach for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
- The patient has already failed aripiprazole and shows insufficient response to risperidone, indicating the need for clozapine rather than another trial of a conventional atypical antipsychotic.
*Lithium therapy*
- Lithium is a mood stabilizer used primarily for bipolar disorder and can be used as augmentation in treatment-resistant psychosis. However, it is **not first-line monotherapy** for psychotic symptoms.
- Lithium has **teratogenic risks** including Ebstein's anomaly when used in the first trimester, and requires careful therapeutic monitoring. Given that this patient is at 15 weeks gestation and needs antipsychotic control, clozapine monotherapy is more appropriate than introducing lithium.
*Clomipramine therapy*
- Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant primarily used for **obsessive-compulsive disorder** and severe depression. It is not indicated for treatment-resistant psychosis.
- While the patient has depressive features (anhedonia, sleep disturbance), her primary presentation is psychotic with treatment resistance, requiring antipsychotic optimization rather than antidepressant therapy.
Question 7: A 16-year-old boy is brought in to a psychiatrist's office by his mother for increasingly concerning erratic behavior. Her son has recently entered a new relationship, and he constantly voices beliefs that his girlfriend is cheating on him. He ended his last relationship after voicing the same beliefs about his last partner. During the visit, the patient reports that these beliefs are justified, since everyone at school is “out to get him.” He says that even his teachers are against him, based on their criticism of his schoolwork. His mother adds that her son has always held grudges against people and has always taken comments very personally. The patient has no psychiatric history and is in otherwise good health. What condition is this patient genetically predisposed for?
A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Narcolepsy
D. Substance use disorder
E. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia***
- The patient's symptoms of **pervasive distrust**, **suspiciousness**, beliefs that others are "out to get him," and taking comments personally are characteristic of **paranoid personality disorder**.
- **Paranoid personality disorder (PPD)** is considered part of the **schizotypal spectrum** or **cluster A personality disorders**, and individuals with PPD have a higher genetic predisposition to develop **schizophrenia** and other psychotic disorders.
*Antisocial personality disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by **disregard for and violation of the rights of others**, impulsivity, and lack of remorse, which are not the primary features described here.
- While individuals with this disorder may exhibit manipulative behavior, their core issue is not paranoid ideation but rather a pattern of social irresponsibility and law-breaking.
*Major depressive disorder*
- This condition is characterized by **persistent sadness**, loss of interest or pleasure, and other vegetative symptoms, which are not present in this patient's presentation.
- The patient's primary symptoms revolve around **paranoia and suspiciousness**, not mood disturbances.
*Narcolepsy*
- Narcolepsy is a **neurological condition** characterized by overwhelming daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep.
- This diagnosis is entirely unrelated to the patient's psychological symptoms of paranoia and distrust.
*Substance use disorder*
- While substance use can sometimes induce paranoid thinking, the patient's long-standing history of **grudges** and taking comments personally, even prior to potential substance exposure (implied by no psychiatric history mentioned for substance abuse), suggests a more ingrained personality trait rather than solely substance-induced paranoia.
- There is **no information provided about substance use**, making this a less likely primary condition or genetic predisposition.
Question 8: A 27-year-old woman is brought to the office at the insistence of her fiancé to be evaluated for auditory hallucinations for the past 8 months. The patient’s fiancé tells the physician that the patient often mentions that she can hear her own thoughts speaking aloud to her. The hallucinations have occurred intermittently for at least 1-month periods. Past medical history is significant for hypertension. Her medications include lisinopril and a daily multivitamin both of which she frequently neglects. She lost her security job 7 months ago after failing to report to work on time. The patient’s vital signs include: blood pressure 132/82 mm Hg; pulse 72/min; respiratory rate 18/min, and temperature 36.7°C (98.1°F). On physical examination, the patient has a flat affect and her focus fluctuates from the window to the door. She is disheveled with a foul smell. She has difficulty focusing on the discussion and does not quite understand what is happening around her. A urine toxicology screen is negative. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis for this patient?
A. Schizoaffective disorder
B. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
C. Schizoid personality disorder
D. Schizophreniform disorder
E. Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia***
- The patient exhibits core symptoms of schizophrenia, including **auditory hallucinations** (hearing thoughts speaking aloud), **disorganized thinking** (difficulty focusing, fluctuating focus), and **negative symptoms** (flat affect, disheveled, foul smell, loss of job due to poor function). These symptoms have been present for **at least 6 months** (8 months of hallucinations, 7 months of job loss), which meets the diagnostic criteria.
- The duration of symptoms (over 6 months) differentiates it from schizophreniform disorder, and the absence of prominent mood episodes rules out schizoaffective disorder.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- This diagnosis requires a **major mood episode** (depressive or manic) concurrent with Criterion A of schizophrenia, along with a period of **at least 2 weeks of delusions or hallucinations in the absence of prominent mood symptoms**.
- While the patient has some signs of distress (lost job, disorganized), a full major mood episode is not described, and the primary symptoms are clearly psychotic.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- This is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression, often appearing indifferent to praise or criticism.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily psychotic (hallucinations, disorganized thought), not just social withdrawal or emotional flatness. She doesn't necessarily avoid social contact, but her psychosis interferes with it.
*Schizophreniform disorder*
- This disorder presents with symptoms identical to schizophrenia but with a **duration of at least 1 month but less than 6 months**.
- The patient's symptoms, particularly the auditory hallucinations, have been present for 8 months and are therefore outside the timeframe for schizophreniform disorder.
*Schizotypal personality disorder*
- This disorder involves a pervasive pattern of **social and interpersonal deficits** marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentric behaviors.
- While there may be some odd beliefs or magical thinking, **full-blown psychotic symptoms like prominent auditory hallucinations** (hearing thoughts speaking aloud) are generally not present as consistently or severely as seen in this patient, who meets criteria for a major psychotic disorder.
Question 9: A 24-year-old man is brought to the doctor's office by his mother because the patient believes aliens have begun to read his mind and will soon have him performing missions for them. The patient's mother says that the delusions have been intermittently present for periods of at least 1-month over the past year. When he is not having delusions, she says he still lacks expression and has no interest in socializing with his friends or going out. He has no past medical history and takes no prescription medications. The patient has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. Since the disturbance, he has not been able to maintain employment and lives at home with his mother. His vitals include: blood pressure 124/82 mm Hg, pulse 68/min, respiratory rate 14/min, temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F). On physical examination, the patient exhibits poor eye contact with a flat affect. His speech is circumferential, and he is currently experiencing bizarre delusions. The results from a urine drug screen are shown below:
Amphetamine negative
Benzodiazepine negative
Cocaine negative
GHB negative
Ketamine negative
LSD negative
Marijuana negative
Opioids negative
PCP negative
Which of the following is the correct diagnosis?
A. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
B. Schizoaffective disorder
C. Schizotypal personality disorder
D. Schizoid personality disorder
E. Schizophreniform disorder
Explanation: ***Correct: Schizophrenia***
- The patient presents with **bizarre delusions** (positive symptom), **flat affect**, **lack of interest in socializing**, and **social withdrawal** (negative symptoms), characteristic of schizophrenia.
- The symptoms have been present **intermittently over the past year**, with the mother noting that even when delusions are absent, the patient continues to exhibit negative symptoms (flat affect, social withdrawal).
- This indicates **continuous signs of illness for at least 6 months** with **at least 1 month of active psychotic symptoms**, fulfilling **DSM-5 criteria** for schizophrenia.
- The patient demonstrates **significant functional impairment** (unable to maintain employment), which is required for diagnosis.
- **Substance-induced psychosis** is ruled out by negative urine drug screen.
*Incorrect: Schizoaffective disorder*
- Requires the presence of a **major mood episode (depressive or manic)** concurrent with psychotic symptoms for a substantial portion of the illness.
- Psychotic symptoms must also persist for **at least 2 weeks in the absence of a major mood episode**.
- This patient shows **no evidence of major mood symptoms** (no depression or mania described).
*Incorrect: Schizotypal personality disorder*
- Involves **cognitive or perceptual distortions** (odd beliefs, magical thinking) and eccentric behavior, but symptoms are typically **less severe** than frank psychosis.
- Patients usually maintain **better baseline functioning** than those with schizophrenia.
- This patient's **severe delusions, significant functional impairment**, and chronic deterioration are more consistent with schizophrenia than a personality disorder.
*Incorrect: Schizoid personality disorder*
- Characterized by **detachment from social relationships** and restricted emotional expression.
- **Does not include psychotic symptoms** such as delusions or hallucinations.
- This patient's bizarre delusions rule out this purely personality-based diagnosis.
*Incorrect: Schizophreniform disorder*
- Diagnosed when symptoms of schizophrenia are present for **1 to 6 months** (more than 1 month but less than 6 months).
- This patient's symptoms have been present **over the past year**, exceeding the 6-month maximum duration for schizophreniform disorder.
- The chronic nature and duration of symptoms establish the diagnosis of schizophrenia instead.
Question 10: A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a homeless shelter because of bizarre behavior. He avoids contact with others and has complained to the supervising staff that he thinks people are reading his mind. Three days ago, he unplugged every electrical appliance on his floor of the shelter because he believed they were being used to transmit messages about him to others. The patient has schizophrenia and has been prescribed risperidone but has been unable to comply with his medications because of his unstable living situation. He is disheveled and malodorous. His thought process is disorganized and he does not make eye contact. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term pharmacotherapy?
A. Intravenous propranolol
B. Intramuscular benztropine
C. Oral haloperidol
D. Intramuscular risperidone (Correct Answer)
E. Oral diazepam
Explanation: ***Intramuscular risperidone***
- Given the patient's **non-compliance** due to an unstable living situation, a **long-acting injectable antipsychotic** like intramuscular risperidone is the most appropriate choice for long-term management. This ensures consistent medication delivery regardless of daily adherence.
- This medication directly addresses the **positive symptoms of schizophrenia** (paranoia, disorganized thought) that are evident in the patient's bizarre behavior and delusional beliefs.
*Intravenous propranolol*
- Propranolol is a **beta-blocker** used to treat anxiety, hypertension, and tremors, but it is **not an antipsychotic** and does not address the core symptoms of schizophrenia.
- It could potentially be used for symptom control like akathisia if present, but not as primary long-term pharmacotherapy for psychosis.
*Intramuscular benztropine*
- Benztropine is an **anticholinergic medication** primarily used to treat **extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)** induced by antipsychotics (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism).
- It does not have antipsychotic effects and would not treat the patient's psychotic symptoms.
*Oral haloperidol*
- While haloperidol is an **effective antipsychotic**, it is an **oral formulation**. Given the patient's history of **non-compliance** with oral medication (risperidone), switching to another oral antipsychotic, even one as potent as haloperidol, is unlikely to solve the adherence issue, especially in an unstable living situation.
- Long-term management requires a strategy that overcomes the compliance barrier.
*Oral diazepam*
- Diazepam is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control.
- It has **no antipsychotic properties** and would not treat the underlying psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia. It would only provide temporary sedation.