The prison doctor sees a 25-year-old man for some minor injuries sustained during a recent lunchroom brawl. The patient has a long history of getting into trouble. During his interview, he seems very charming and carefully deflects all responsibility to others and gets irritable and hostile once probed on the issues. He is married and has 2 young children for whom he does not pay child support. Which of the following details is most critical for diagnosing this patient’s condition?
Q62
A 60-year-old man presents with severe chronic neck pain. 6 months ago, the patient was in a motor vehicle accident where he sustained a severe whiplash injury. Initial radiographs were negative for fractures, and he was treated with cyclobenzaprine and tramadol and discharged with outpatient follow-up. He says that despite being compliant with his medication, the pain is not going away. It keeps him up at night and prevents him from focusing at work or at home. He also feels that none of the other doctors can help him. Past medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and gout for which he takes chlorthalidone, atorvastatin, and allopurinol. He has no family and lives alone. He has never attempted to take his life but thinks that it might be better than living in pain forever. He has a gun at home and plans to commit suicide in the near future. Which of the following is the single best initial treatment option for this patient’s condition?
Q63
A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by her boyfriend with a superficial cut to the wrist. Her vital signs are normal. On physical examination, the laceration is superficial and bleeding has stopped. She says that the injury was self-inflicted because her boyfriend canceled a dinner date due to his mother being unexpectedly hospitalized. She had tried to call, email, and text him to make sure he kept the date, but he eventually stopped replying to her messages. She loves her boyfriend and says she cannot live without him. However, she was worried that he might be cheating on her and using his mother as an excuse. She admits, however, that he actually has never cheated on her in the past. While she says that she usually feels emotionally empty, she is furious during the interview as she describes how much she hates her boyfriend. Which of the following defense mechanisms is this patient exhibiting?
Q64
A 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician because her mother is concerned that she has been talking to an imaginary friend for 2 months. The child calls her friend 'Lucy' and says “Lucy is my best friend”. The child has multiple conversation and plays with the 'Lucy' throughout the day. The girl attends preschool regularly. She can copy a circle, tells stories, and can hop on one foot. Her maternal uncle has schizophrenia. Her parents are currently divorcing. The child's father has a history of illicit drug use. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The mother is concerned about whether the child is acting out because of the divorce. Which of the following is the most appropriate next best step in management?
Q65
A 28-year-old woman is brought to a counselor by her father after he found out that she is being physically abused by her husband. The father reports that she refuses to end the relationship with her husband despite the physical abuse. She says that she feels uneasy when her husband is not around. She adds, “I'm worried that if I leave him, my life will only get worse.” She has never been employed since they got married because she is convinced that nobody would hire her. Her husband takes care of most household errands and pays all of the bills. Physical examination shows several bruises on the thighs and back. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q66
A 23-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by her mother after she is found to have cut both of her wrists with razor blades. The patient admits to a history of self-mutilation and attributed this incident to a recent breakup with a man she had been seeing for the previous 2 weeks. On morning rounds, the patient reports that the nurses are incompetent but the doctors are some of the best in the world. The patient's vitals are stable and her wrist lacerations are very superficial requiring only simple dressings without sutures. The patient is discharged a few days later and she feels well. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Q67
A 24-year-old woman with no past medical history is post operative day 2 from a cesarean section that resulted in the birth of her first child. She begins to cry when she's told that today's lunch will be gluten-free. Although the patient feels "exhausted" and has had trouble sleeping, she deeply desires to return home and take care of her newborn. The patient denies any changes in concentration or suicidal thoughts now or during the pregnancy. What is the diagnosis and likely outcome?
Q68
A 21-year-old female was brought to the emergency room after losing large amounts of blood from slicing her wrists longitudinally. A few days later, she was interviewed by the psychiatrist and discussed with him why she had tried to kill herself. "My evil boyfriend of 2 months left me because I never let him leave my side for fear that he would cheat on me and leave me...now I feel so empty without him." Which of the following personality disorders does this female most likely have?
Q69
A 16-year-old boy is brought to a psychotherapist for counseling because he was physically abused by his father. During the first therapy session, the patient recounts the numerous encounters that he had with his abuser. At the end of the session, the therapist, who lost her own son in a car accident when he was 15 years old, refuses to let the patient take the bus back alone to his custodial guardian's home. She offers to take him back in her own car instead, saying, “This way, I will rest assured that you have reached home safely”. The therapist's behavior can be best described as an instance of which of the following?
Q70
An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents for a 10-month history of disturbing dreams and daytime sleepiness. She has difficulty falling asleep and says she sometimes sees ghosts just before falling asleep at night. She has had a 7-kg (15-lb) weight gain during this period despite no changes in appetite. She is alert and oriented, and neurologic examination is unremarkable. During physical examination, she spontaneously collapses after the physician drops a heavy book, producing a loud noise. She remains conscious after the collapse. Polysomnography with electroencephalogram is most likely to show which of the following?
Mood Disorders US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: The prison doctor sees a 25-year-old man for some minor injuries sustained during a recent lunchroom brawl. The patient has a long history of getting into trouble. During his interview, he seems very charming and carefully deflects all responsibility to others and gets irritable and hostile once probed on the issues. He is married and has 2 young children for whom he does not pay child support. Which of the following details is most critical for diagnosing this patient’s condition?
A. Criminal record
B. History of substance abuse
C. Family history
D. Evidence of lack of remorse
E. Childhood history (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Childhood history***
- A diagnosis of **Antisocial Personality Disorder (ASPD)** requires evidence of **conduct disorder** symptoms beginning before age 15. The childhood history provides insight into the chronicity and developmental pattern of pervasive disregard and violation of the rights of others.
- The patient's current presentation of deceitfulness, impulsivity, irritability, and irresponsibility, along with a "long history of getting into trouble," aligns with ASPD criteria, which must be contextualized by their early onset of behavioral problems.
*Criminal record*
- While a criminal record often accompanies ASPD, it is a consequence of the disorder rather than a diagnostic criterion in itself. Many individuals with ASPD engage in criminal behavior, but the diagnosis focuses on a broader pattern of *disregard for the rights of others*, not just legal infractions.
- While it supports the pattern of antisocial behavior, it doesn't provide the crucial developmental information (onset before age 15) required for diagnosis.
*History of substance abuse*
- **Substance abuse** is highly comorbid with ASPD, often used as a coping mechanism or as a direct consequence of impulsive and risky behaviors. However, it is not a direct criterion for ASPD itself.
- While relevant to the patient's overall clinical picture and management, it does not directly contribute to the diagnostic criteria for ASPD.
*Family history*
- A family history of mental health disorders, including personality disorders, can increase the risk of developing ASPD, indicating a genetic predisposition. However, it is not a diagnostic criterion.
- While useful for understanding risk factors, family history does not provide specific information about the patient's individual behavioral patterns or the onset of symptoms crucial for diagnosis.
*Evidence of lack of remorse*
- **Lack of remorse** is an important diagnostic criterion for ASPD, demonstrating a profound deficit in empathy and moral reasoning. It's evident in the patient's deflection of responsibility.
- While a critical symptom, it's one of several criteria. Without evidence of a conduct disorder in childhood, even significant interpersonal impairment and lack of remorse in adulthood may not lead to an ASPD diagnosis.
Question 62: A 60-year-old man presents with severe chronic neck pain. 6 months ago, the patient was in a motor vehicle accident where he sustained a severe whiplash injury. Initial radiographs were negative for fractures, and he was treated with cyclobenzaprine and tramadol and discharged with outpatient follow-up. He says that despite being compliant with his medication, the pain is not going away. It keeps him up at night and prevents him from focusing at work or at home. He also feels that none of the other doctors can help him. Past medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and gout for which he takes chlorthalidone, atorvastatin, and allopurinol. He has no family and lives alone. He has never attempted to take his life but thinks that it might be better than living in pain forever. He has a gun at home and plans to commit suicide in the near future. Which of the following is the single best initial treatment option for this patient’s condition?
A. Treat the patient with outpatient psychotherapy only
B. Treat the patient with outpatient pharmacotherapy only
C. Treat the patient with outpatient pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy only
D. Work with local police to confiscate the gun and release the patient home
E. Admission into the hospital (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Admission into the hospital***
- This patient expresses a **clear intent to commit suicide** ("plans to commit suicide in the near future") and has access to a lethal means (**a gun at home**). This represents an **imminent risk** requiring immediate inpatient psychiatric hospitalization to ensure safety.
- The patient's profound, intractable pain, feelings of helplessness ("none of the other doctors can help him"), social isolation ("no family and lives alone"), and significant functional impairment further contribute to a **high-risk profile** that cannot be managed safely in an outpatient setting.
*Treat the patient with outpatient psychotherapy only*
- While psychotherapy is an important component of treating chronic pain and depression, it is **insufficient for immediate safety** given the patient's expressed suicidal intent and access to a firearm.
- Outpatient therapy does not provide the **24-hour supervision and structured environment** necessary to prevent a suicide attempt in a high-risk individual.
*Treat the patient with outpatient pharmacotherapy only*
- Initiating or adjusting pharmacotherapy in an outpatient setting would take time to be effective and would **not address the immediate danger** posed by the patient's suicidal ideation and access to a weapon.
- This approach fails to prioritize **patient safety** in a crisis situation.
*Treat the patient with outpatient pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy only*
- Similar to the above, even a combined outpatient approach **cannot guarantee immediate safety** when there is a stated plan and means for suicide.
- The severity of the patient's symptoms and the high risk of self-harm necessitate a **more restrictive and supervised environment**.
*Work with local police to confiscate the gun and release the patient home*
- Confiscating the gun addresses one aspect of safety but does **not mitigate the underlying suicidal ideation** or the patient's overall risk.
- Releasing him home, despite the removal of a specific lethal means, still leaves him in a situation of **high social isolation and distress** without adequate immediate support or supervision, potentially leading to other methods of self-harm.
Question 63: A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by her boyfriend with a superficial cut to the wrist. Her vital signs are normal. On physical examination, the laceration is superficial and bleeding has stopped. She says that the injury was self-inflicted because her boyfriend canceled a dinner date due to his mother being unexpectedly hospitalized. She had tried to call, email, and text him to make sure he kept the date, but he eventually stopped replying to her messages. She loves her boyfriend and says she cannot live without him. However, she was worried that he might be cheating on her and using his mother as an excuse. She admits, however, that he actually has never cheated on her in the past. While she says that she usually feels emotionally empty, she is furious during the interview as she describes how much she hates her boyfriend. Which of the following defense mechanisms is this patient exhibiting?
A. Transference
B. Splitting (Correct Answer)
C. Suppression
D. Repression
E. Regression
Explanation: ***Splitting***
- **Splitting** is apparent in her rapid shift from "loving" her boyfriend to "hating" him, as well as her conflicting thoughts ("cannot live without him" yet "he might be cheating").
- This defense mechanism involves viewing people or situations as either all good or all bad, without integrating positive and negative qualities, often seen in **borderline personality disorder**.
*Transference*
- **Transference** involves redirecting feelings and desires, especially those unconsciously retained from childhood, toward a new object or person.
- While she has intense feelings toward her boyfriend, there's no indication that she is displacing feelings from a past significant relationship onto him.
*Suppression*
- **Suppression** is a conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts or feelings out of awareness.
- The patient is actively expressing her strong emotions and thoughts, not consciously trying to avoid them.
*Repression*
- **Repression** is an unconscious mechanism where unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or memories are excluded from conscious awareness.
- The patient is fully aware of her feelings and actions, even if they are contradictory, indicating this is not an unconscious process.
*Regression*
- **Regression** involves reverting to childlike behaviors or earlier developmental stages in response to stress.
- While her actions are impulsive and emotionally driven, there's no specific indication of a return to a more primitive or immature behavior pattern characteristic of regression.
Question 64: A 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician because her mother is concerned that she has been talking to an imaginary friend for 2 months. The child calls her friend 'Lucy' and says “Lucy is my best friend”. The child has multiple conversation and plays with the 'Lucy' throughout the day. The girl attends preschool regularly. She can copy a circle, tells stories, and can hop on one foot. Her maternal uncle has schizophrenia. Her parents are currently divorcing. The child's father has a history of illicit drug use. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The mother is concerned about whether the child is acting out because of the divorce. Which of the following is the most appropriate next best step in management?
A. Reassure the mother (Correct Answer)
B. Perform MRI of the brain
C. Schedule psychiatry consult
D. Inform Child Protective Services
E. Screen urine for drugs
Explanation: ***Reassure the mother***
- Imaginary friends are a **normal developmental phenomenon** in preschool-aged children, often associated with creativity and good social skills.
- The child's developmental milestones (copying a circle, hopping, telling stories) are appropriate for her age, indicating **healthy cognitive and motor development**.
*Perform MRI of the brain*
- There are **no neurological symptoms** or concerning signs in this case that would warrant an MRI of the brain.
- Imaginary friends are not indicative of a brain abnormality or neurological disorder.
*Schedule psychiatry consult*
- A psychiatry consult is **not indicated** as the child's behavior is developmentally appropriate.
- While there is a family history of schizophrenia and parental stress, the child is exhibiting typical childhood play and not symptoms of a mental health disorder.
*Inform Child Protective Services*
- There is **no evidence of child abuse or neglect** in the provided information.
- Although the parents are divorcing and the father has a history of drug use, there are no specific concerns raised about the child's safety or well-being that would require CPS involvement.
*Screen urine for drugs*
- A drug screen is **not relevant** to the child's behavior or a concern for drug use by the child.
- While the father has a history of illicit drug use, this does not automatically imply the child is being exposed to drugs, and the child's symptoms are unrelated to drug exposure.
Question 65: A 28-year-old woman is brought to a counselor by her father after he found out that she is being physically abused by her husband. The father reports that she refuses to end the relationship with her husband despite the physical abuse. She says that she feels uneasy when her husband is not around. She adds, “I'm worried that if I leave him, my life will only get worse.” She has never been employed since they got married because she is convinced that nobody would hire her. Her husband takes care of most household errands and pays all of the bills. Physical examination shows several bruises on the thighs and back. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Schizoid personality disorder
B. Separation anxiety disorder
C. Avoidant personality disorder
D. Dependent personality disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Borderline personality disorder
Explanation: ***Dependent personality disorder***
- This patient exhibits a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, leading to **submissive and clinging behavior, and fears of separation**. Key features include difficulties making decisions, avoiding disagreement due to fear of loss of support, and preoccupation with fears of being left to care for herself.
- Her comments about her life getting worse if she leaves her husband, her inability to seek employment, and her husband managing all household affairs are consistent with her **reluctance to leave an abusive relationship** because of an exaggerated fear of being alone or unable to care for herself.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- Characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression.
- Individuals with this disorder typically show **little interest in forming close relationships**, in contrast to the patient's clinging behavior.
*Separation anxiety disorder*
- Primarily marked by **excessive anxiety concerning separation from home or from those to whom the individual is attached**, often seen in childhood, but can occur in adults.
- While there is some anxiety about separation, the patient's broader pattern of submissive behavior, difficulty with independent functioning, and belief she cannot care for herself points more strongly to a **personality disorder** rather than an anxiety disorder focused solely on separation.
*Avoidant personality disorder*
- Involves extreme social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and **hypersensitivity to negative evaluation**.
- These individuals **desire social connection but avoid it due to fear of rejection**, which contrasts with the patient's clinging and submissive efforts to maintain a relationship.
*Borderline personality disorder*
- Characterized by significant **instability in moods, interpersonal relationships, self-image, and behaviors**.
- While there can be fear of abandonment, this disorder typically involves **impulsivity, intense anger, and frantic efforts to avoid abandonment**, which are not the primary features described in this patient.
Question 66: A 23-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by her mother after she is found to have cut both of her wrists with razor blades. The patient admits to a history of self-mutilation and attributed this incident to a recent breakup with a man she had been seeing for the previous 2 weeks. On morning rounds, the patient reports that the nurses are incompetent but the doctors are some of the best in the world. The patient's vitals are stable and her wrist lacerations are very superficial requiring only simple dressings without sutures. The patient is discharged a few days later and she feels well. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Dialectical behavior therapy (Correct Answer)
D. Cognitive behavioral therapy
E. Lithium
Explanation: ***Dialectical behavior therapy***
- The patient's presentation with **recurrent self-harm**, **mood instability** following a brief relationship, and **splitting** ("nurses are incompetent but doctors are the best") are classic features of **borderline personality disorder (BPD)**.
- **Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)** is the gold-standard and most effective initial treatment for BPD, specifically targeting **emotional dysregulation**, self-harm, and suicidal behaviors.
*Amitriptyline*
- **Amitriptyline** is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)**, primarily used for depression and chronic pain.
- While antidepressants might be used *adjunctively* for comorbid mood symptoms in BPD, they are not the primary or most appropriate *initial* treatment for the core features of BPD itself, and TCAs have a high overdose risk.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, commonly used for depression, anxiety disorders, and some eating disorders.
- Similar to other antidepressants, SSRIs may treat comorbid depressive or anxiety symptoms in BPD but do not address the fundamental **personality organization issues** or behavioral patterns like self-harm and splitting characteristic of BPD.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy*
- **Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)** is effective for a wide range of mental health conditions, including depression and anxiety, by focusing on changing negative thought patterns and behaviors.
- While elements of CBT are incorporated into DBT, **DBT is specifically adapted and more effective for BPD** due to its emphasis on **emotion regulation**, distress tolerance, and interpersonal effectiveness skills, which are crucial for this patient's presentation.
*Lithium*
- **Lithium** is a mood stabilizer primarily used to treat **bipolar disorder**.
- Although there can be some overlap in symptoms (e.g., mood swings), the patient's presentation is more indicative of BPD due to the **recurrent self-harm, interpersonal instability**, and **splitting**, rather than the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder.
Question 67: A 24-year-old woman with no past medical history is post operative day 2 from a cesarean section that resulted in the birth of her first child. She begins to cry when she's told that today's lunch will be gluten-free. Although the patient feels "exhausted" and has had trouble sleeping, she deeply desires to return home and take care of her newborn. The patient denies any changes in concentration or suicidal thoughts now or during the pregnancy. What is the diagnosis and likely outcome?
A. Major depressive episode; this patient is at high risk of recurrence
B. Postpartum depression; the patient will likely remain depressed for at least six more months
C. Postpartum psychosis; symptoms will resolve in time, but she needs treatment with antipsychotics, lithium, and/or antidepressants
D. Postpartum bipolar disorder; this patient will likely have future bipolar episodes
E. Postpartum "blues"; her symptoms are likely self-limited (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Postpartum "blues"; her symptoms are likely self-limited***
- The patient exhibits mild, transient mood lability (crying over gluten-free lunch) and fatigue, which are characteristic of **postpartum blues**.
- Symptoms typically begin within 2-3 days postpartum and resolve spontaneously within **two weeks**, without significant impairment in functioning, making them self-limited.
*Major depressive episode; this patient is at high risk of recurrence*
- While she has some symptoms like fatigue and sleep disturbance, she denies changes in concentration or suicidal ideation, and expresses a desire to care for her child, which argues against a **major depressive episode**.
- A diagnosis of major depressive episode requires five or more symptoms for at least two weeks, including either **depressed mood** or **anhedonia**, which are not fully met here.
*Postpartum depression; the patient will likely remain depressed for at least six more months*
- This patient's symptoms are mild and have only been present for two days, making **postpartum depression** (which typically lasts longer and is more severe) less likely.
- Postpartum depression involves persistent symptoms that significantly impair functioning and often require intervention; these symptoms are not yet severe or prolonged enough.
*Postpartum psychosis; symptoms will resolve in time, but she needs treatment with antipsychotics, lithium, and/or antidepressants*
- There is no mention of **hallucinations, delusions, severe confusion, or disorganized behavior**, which are hallmarks of postpartum psychosis.
- Postpartum psychosis is a severe psychiatric emergency requiring immediate inpatient treatment and does not resolve simply with time without significant intervention.
*Postpartum bipolar disorder; this patient will likely have future bipolar episodes*
- While **sleep disturbance** is present, there are no classic manic or hypomanic symptoms such as **euphoria, grandiosity, increased goal-directed activity, or racing thoughts**.
- A single, acute presentation like this, without a history of bipolar disorder or clear manic symptoms, does not typically lead to a diagnosis of postpartum bipolar disorder.
Question 68: A 21-year-old female was brought to the emergency room after losing large amounts of blood from slicing her wrists longitudinally. A few days later, she was interviewed by the psychiatrist and discussed with him why she had tried to kill herself. "My evil boyfriend of 2 months left me because I never let him leave my side for fear that he would cheat on me and leave me...now I feel so empty without him." Which of the following personality disorders does this female most likely have?
A. Avoidant
B. Dependent
C. Borderline (Correct Answer)
D. Paranoid
E. Histrionic
Explanation: ***Borderline***
- The patient exhibits core features of **borderline personality disorder (BPD)**, including **impulsivity** (suicide attempt via wrist-slicing), **unstable relationships** marked by fear of abandonment, and intense feelings of **emptiness**.
- Her statement about her boyfriend refusing to let him leave her side reflects classic BPD traits of **frantic efforts to avoid abandonment** and a **pattern of intense and unstable interpersonal relationships**.
*Avoidant*
- Individuals with **avoidant personality disorder** are characterized by **social inhibition**, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, which are not the primary features presented in this scenario.
- They tend to *avoid* social interactions due to fear of criticism, rather than engaging in intense, unstable relationships and dramatic self-harm as described.
*Dependent*
- While a **dependent personality disorder** involves a pervasive and excessive need to be cared for, leading to submissive and clinging behavior, it typically doesn't manifest with the same level of **impulsivity**, **self-harm**, or extreme relationship instability seen here.
- The "fear that he would cheat on me and leave me" relates more to the **frantic efforts to avoid abandonment** characteristic of borderline personality, rather than general clinginess and submission.
*Paranoid*
- **Paranoid personality disorder** is characterized by pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others, often interpreting their motives as malevolent.
- The patient's behaviors (suicide attempt, fear of abandonment in a short-term relationship, feeling empty) do not align with the prominent **distrust and suspiciousness** of paranoid personality.
*Histrionic*
- **Histrionic personality disorder** involves excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior. While the suicide attempt might be seen as attention-seeking, the underlying **fear of abandonment**, **feelings of emptiness**, and extremely rapid relationship deterioration are more indicative of borderline personality.
- Histrionic individuals tend to be dramatic and theatrical, using physical appearance to draw attention, which is not emphasized in this clinical picture.
Question 69: A 16-year-old boy is brought to a psychotherapist for counseling because he was physically abused by his father. During the first therapy session, the patient recounts the numerous encounters that he had with his abuser. At the end of the session, the therapist, who lost her own son in a car accident when he was 15 years old, refuses to let the patient take the bus back alone to his custodial guardian's home. She offers to take him back in her own car instead, saying, “This way, I will rest assured that you have reached home safely”. The therapist's behavior can be best described as an instance of which of the following?
A. Countertransference (Correct Answer)
B. Sublimation
C. Identification
D. Isolation
E. Displacement
Explanation: ***Countertransference***
- **Countertransference** occurs when a therapist’s past experiences and unresolved emotional issues unconsciously influence their perceptions and reactions to a patient.
- In this scenario, the therapist's overprotective behavior stems from her own grief regarding her deceased son, causing her to project her personal feelings onto the patient.
*Sublimation*
- **Sublimation** is a mature defense mechanism where unacceptable urges or impulses are transformed into socially acceptable behaviors.
- The therapist's actions, while well-intentioned, are driven by an emotional reaction rather than a healthy redirection of impulses, and they cross ethical boundaries.
*Identification*
- **Identification** is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously adopts the characteristics, attitudes, or behaviors of another person, often in response to fear or admiration.
- While the therapist might empathize with the patient, her behavior is more about her own unresolved issues (grief) being projected onto the patient, rather than adopting the patient's characteristics.
*Isolation*
- **Isolation** is a defense mechanism where an individual separates a thought or memory from the emotion associated with it.
- The therapist's behavior shows an emotional response, not an attempt to detach emotion from a situation.
*Displacement*
- **Displacement** is a defense mechanism where emotions, usually negative ones like anger, are redirected from the original source to a less threatening target.
- The therapist is not redirecting a negative emotion; instead, she is acting out her unresolved grief and anxiety related to her son on the patient.
Question 70: An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents for a 10-month history of disturbing dreams and daytime sleepiness. She has difficulty falling asleep and says she sometimes sees ghosts just before falling asleep at night. She has had a 7-kg (15-lb) weight gain during this period despite no changes in appetite. She is alert and oriented, and neurologic examination is unremarkable. During physical examination, she spontaneously collapses after the physician drops a heavy book, producing a loud noise. She remains conscious after the collapse. Polysomnography with electroencephalogram is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Slow spike-wave pattern
B. Periodic sharp waves
C. Decreased delta wave sleep duration
D. Diffuse slowing of waves
E. Rapid onset of REM sleep (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rapid onset of REM sleep***
- The patient's symptoms of **daytime sleepiness**, **hallucinations** (seeing ghosts before sleep, i.e., **hypnagogic hallucinations**), **sleep-onset difficulty**, and the spontaneous collapse (likely **cataplexy** triggered by strong emotion/surprise) are characteristic of **narcolepsy**.
- **Narcolepsy** is often associated with a disinhibition of REM sleep, leading to its occurrence at sleep onset or within 15 minutes of falling asleep, which would be detected by **polysomnography** with **EEG**.
*Slow spike-wave pattern*
- This pattern is characteristic of **absence seizures** (petit mal seizures), which involve brief staring spells and loss of consciousness, not the constellation of sleep disturbances and cataplexy seen here.
- Absence seizures typically do not cause significant **daytime sleepiness** or **hallucinations**.
*Periodic sharp waves*
- **Periodic sharp wave complexes** are pathognomonic for **Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease** (CJD), a rapidly progressive neurodegenerative disorder.
- CJD presents with dementia, myoclonus, and other neurological signs, which are distinct from the patient's symptoms.
*Decreased delta wave sleep duration*
- **Delta wave sleep** (slow-wave sleep or N3 sleep) is a stage of deep non-REM sleep, which is important for restorative sleep.
- While sleep architecture can be disturbed in various sleep disorders, a primary decrease in delta wave sleep duration is not the most specific or hallmark finding for narcolepsy; rather, narcolepsy is defined by its REM sleep abnormalities.
*Diffuse slowing of waves*
- **Diffuse slowing of brain waves** on EEG is a non-specific finding often associated with **encephalopathy**, metabolic disturbances, or diffuse brain dysfunction.
- It does not specifically account for the unique constellation of symptoms seen in this patient, particularly the abrupt onset of sleep-related phenomena and **cataplexy**.