An 81-year-old woman presents to your office accompanied by her husband. She has been doing well except for occasional word finding difficulty. Her husband is concerned that her memory is worsening over the past year. Recently, she got lost twice on her way home from her daughter’s house, was unable to remember her neighbor’s name, and could not pay the bills like she usually did. She has a history of hypertension and arthritis. She has no significant family history. Her medications include a daily multivitamin, hydrochlorothiazide, and ibuprofen as needed. Physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of this patient’s disease?
Q52
A 24-year-old woman comes to her physician because of fatigue. She has been coming to the office multiple times a month for various minor problems over the past six months. During the appointments, she insists on a first name basis and flirts with her physician. She always dresses very fashionably. When his assistant enters the room, she tends to start fidgeting and interrupt their conversation. When the physician tells her politely that her behavior is inappropriate, she begins to cry, complaining that no one understands her and that if people only listened to her, she would not be so exhausted. She then quickly gathers herself and states that she will just have to keep looking for a physician who can help her, although she has doubts she will ever find the right physician. She does not have a history of self harm or suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q53
A 25-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of diffuse muscle aches and pains. She states that she has trouble doing everyday tasks such as showering, cooking, and cleaning due to the pain. The patient has a past medical history of anxiety and bulimia nervosa and is currently not taking any medications. Upon further questioning, the patient states that her symptoms started last week when her boyfriend left her for another individual. The patient was quite upset, as she states she always had tended to all his needs and never argued with him. Since he has left, she has been unable to decide what she should do with herself during the day. The patient has been living with her mother for the past day and states that has helped greatly, as her mother helps her plan her days and gives her chores to do. Regardless, the patient states that her pain persists. The physician sets up a referral for the patient to work with a psychiatrist. Upon hearing this, the patient becomes visually bothered and questions if the physician is actually trying to help her. Which of the following personality disorder does this patient most likely suffer from?
Q54
A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of difficulty sleeping. She worries that the lack of sleep will ruin her career prospects as a model. She has been coming to the physician multiple times over the past year for minor problems. She is dressed very extravagantly and flirts with the receptionist. When she is asked to sit down in the waiting room, she begins to cry and says that no one listens to her. When she is called to the examination room, she moves close to the physician, repeatedly intends to touch his cheek, and makes inappropriate comments. She does not have a history of self-harm or suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q55
A 14-year-old male is brought to your psychiatric clinic after he was caught stealing his peers’ belongings multiple times by his teacher. He is a straight-A student with many friends and is an outstanding football player. He describes his family as very loving and gets along with his older siblings. He also states that he has no ill will towards anyone he stole from in class. Although never caught, he admits that he would often steal things in stores or locker rooms when no one was looking in order to satisfy an intense impulse. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for this patient?
Q56
A 35-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her coworkers after a sudden onset of vision loss. She is a lawyer and lost 3 cases in the past week. Yesterday, she experienced weakness and paralysis of her left wrist. Past medical history is significant for acid reflux. Physical examination reveals 2/4 in reflexes and 5/5 in muscular strength in all extremities. She appears indifferent to her current situation and presents with a flat affect. Slurring of words is absent. CT without contrast and MRI of the brain are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q57
A 25-year-old woman with a history of moderate persistent asthma presents to the emergency department with tachypnea, shortness of breath, and cough. She also mentions that she has recently started to notice red flecks in the sputum that she coughs up. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, and respiratory rate 26/min. Her physical examination is significant for moderate bilateral wheezes and poor air movement. The forced expiratory volume-1 (FEV-1) is less than 50% of the predicted value, and she is found to have a concurrent upper respiratory tract infection. She is given oxygen, albuterol, and corticosteroids for her exacerbation, and she starts to feel better after a few hours of monitoring in the emergency department. She is ultimately discharged home on a 14-day prednisone taper. Which of the following is a side effect she could experience on this short course of steroids?
Q58
A 27-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her parents because they are concerned about her mood. They say that she has “not been herself” since the death of her friend, who was killed 3 weeks ago when the fighter jet he piloted was shot down overseas. She says that since the incident, she feels sad and alone. She reports having repeated nightmares about her friend's death. Her appetite has decreased, but she is still eating regularly and is otherwise able to take care of herself. She does not leave her home for any social activities and avoids visits from friends. She went back to work after taking 1 week off after the incident. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she appears sad, has a full range of affect, and is cooperative. In addition to taking measures to evaluate this patient's anxiety, which of the following is the most appropriate statement by the physician at this time?
Q59
A 34-year-old female presents to a counselor at the urging of her parents because they are concerned that she might be depressed. After recently breaking up with her long-term boyfriend, she moved back in with her parents because she could not handle making decisions alone. Soon after their breakup, she started going on 5–7 dates a week. She has been unemployed for 3 years, as her boyfriend took care of all the bills. In the past year, she thought of looking for a job but never felt confident enough to start the process. Her mom arranges her doctor's appointments and handles her car maintenance. She describes feeling uneasy when she is alone. She has hypothyroidism treated with levothyroxine. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Vital signs are normal. Mental status exam shows a neutral affect. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q60
A 71-year-old woman comes to her doctor because she is having trouble staying awake in the evening. Over the past year, she has noticed that she gets tired unusually early in the evenings and has trouble staying awake through dinner. She also experiences increased daytime sleepiness, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. She typically goes to bed around 9 PM and gets out of bed between 2 and 3 AM. She does not have any trouble falling asleep. She takes 30-minute to 1-hour daytime naps approximately 3 times per week. She has no history of severe illness and does not take any medication. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Mood Disorders US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: An 81-year-old woman presents to your office accompanied by her husband. She has been doing well except for occasional word finding difficulty. Her husband is concerned that her memory is worsening over the past year. Recently, she got lost twice on her way home from her daughter’s house, was unable to remember her neighbor’s name, and could not pay the bills like she usually did. She has a history of hypertension and arthritis. She has no significant family history. Her medications include a daily multivitamin, hydrochlorothiazide, and ibuprofen as needed. Physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of this patient’s disease?
A. Presenilin-2
B. ApoE2
C. ApoE4 (Correct Answer)
D. Female gender
E. Advanced age (>85 years)
Explanation: ***Correct: ApoE4***
- The patient's symptoms (progressive memory loss, getting lost on familiar routes, difficulty with routine tasks like paying bills) in an 81-year-old suggest **Alzheimer's disease**.
- The **ApoE4 allele** is a well-established genetic risk factor for **late-onset Alzheimer's disease**, significantly increasing the likelihood (3-fold increased risk for one allele, 12-fold for two alleles) and often lowering the age of onset.
- ApoE4 is the **most specific and discriminating risk factor** among the options provided.
*Incorrect: Presenilin-2*
- **Presenilin-2** mutations are associated with **early-onset familial Alzheimer's disease**, which typically manifests before age 65 and often has a strong family history.
- This patient is 81 years old and has no significant family history, making early-onset familial AD unlikely.
*Incorrect: ApoE2*
- The **ApoE2 allele** is actually associated with a **decreased risk** of Alzheimer's disease.
- It is thought to be protective due to its more efficient clearance of amyloid beta peptides from the brain.
*Incorrect: Female gender*
- While **female gender** is indeed a risk factor for Alzheimer's disease (women have approximately 2:1 higher lifetime risk even after adjusting for longevity), it is less specific than ApoE4 as a discriminating answer.
- All patients have a biological sex, but only some carry the ApoE4 allele, making ApoE4 a more useful clinical and epidemiological marker.
*Incorrect: Advanced age (>85 years)*
- **Advanced age** is actually the strongest non-modifiable risk factor for Alzheimer's disease, with incidence doubling every 5 years after age 65.
- However, in the context of this question, **ApoE4 is the better answer** because it represents a specific genetic risk factor that can be tested and is directly associated with disease pathogenesis, whereas advanced age is a universal demographic factor that applies to all individuals who live long enough.
Question 52: A 24-year-old woman comes to her physician because of fatigue. She has been coming to the office multiple times a month for various minor problems over the past six months. During the appointments, she insists on a first name basis and flirts with her physician. She always dresses very fashionably. When his assistant enters the room, she tends to start fidgeting and interrupt their conversation. When the physician tells her politely that her behavior is inappropriate, she begins to cry, complaining that no one understands her and that if people only listened to her, she would not be so exhausted. She then quickly gathers herself and states that she will just have to keep looking for a physician who can help her, although she has doubts she will ever find the right physician. She does not have a history of self harm or suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Schizotypal personality disorder
B. Dependent personality disorder
C. Schizoid personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Borderline personality disorder
Explanation: ***Histrionic personality disorder***
- This patient exhibits classic features of **Histrionic Personality Disorder**, including **attention-seeking behavior**, **inappropriate sexually provocative interactions** (flirting), rapidly shifting and shallow emotions, and using physical appearance to draw attention.
- Her excessive emotionality, self-dramatization ("no one understands her"), and perceiving relationships as more intimate than they are fit the diagnostic criteria.
*Schizotypal personality disorder*
- Characterized by **magical thinking**, **peculiar speech or behavior**, and **social anxiety** due to paranoid fears, none of which are primarily displayed here.
- While there is social awkwardness, it's not driven by paranoid ideation but rather a need for attention.
*Dependent personality disorder*
- Individuals with dependent personality disorder exhibit an excessive need to be cared for, leading to **submissive and clinging behavior** and an **intense fear of separation**. This patient's behavior is assertive and attention-seeking, not submissive.
- They often have difficulty making everyday decisions without excessive reassurance and may go to great lengths to obtain nurturance and support from others.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a **pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression. This patient actively seeks interaction and attention.
- Individuals with schizoid personality disorder typically prefer solitude and show **indifference to praise or criticism**.
*Borderline personality disorder*
- While there might be some overlap in emotional intensity, borderline personality disorder is primarily characterized by **instability in relationships, self-image, affects, and impulsivity**, often including **recurrent suicidal behavior or self-mutilating acts**.
- The patient's presentation lacks the significant impulsivity, chronic feelings of emptiness, or history of self-harm/suicidal ideation typically seen in Borderline Personality Disorder.
Question 53: A 25-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of diffuse muscle aches and pains. She states that she has trouble doing everyday tasks such as showering, cooking, and cleaning due to the pain. The patient has a past medical history of anxiety and bulimia nervosa and is currently not taking any medications. Upon further questioning, the patient states that her symptoms started last week when her boyfriend left her for another individual. The patient was quite upset, as she states she always had tended to all his needs and never argued with him. Since he has left, she has been unable to decide what she should do with herself during the day. The patient has been living with her mother for the past day and states that has helped greatly, as her mother helps her plan her days and gives her chores to do. Regardless, the patient states that her pain persists. The physician sets up a referral for the patient to work with a psychiatrist. Upon hearing this, the patient becomes visually bothered and questions if the physician is actually trying to help her. Which of the following personality disorder does this patient most likely suffer from?
A. Paranoid
B. Borderline
C. Avoidant
D. Histrionic
E. Dependent (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dependent***
- The patient exhibits strong **submissiveness** and a pervasive need to be taken care of, as evidenced by her inability to make decisions and relying on her mother to plan her days and give her chores.
- She shows a fear of **separation** and an urgent search for a new relationship or support system, highlighted by her difficulty functioning after her boyfriend left and her extreme devotion to his needs.
*Paranoid*
- Characterized by a pervasive **distrust and suspiciousness of others**, interpreting their motives as malevolent.
- This patient does not display these features; her discomfort with the referral is more about fear of abandonment and lack of self-reliance, not suspicion.
*Borderline*
- Involves instability in relationships, self-image, affects, and marked **impulsivity**, often with frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment.
- While there is a fear of abandonment, the patient's primary presentation is submissiveness and need for care, rather than the characteristic impulsivity, emotional lability, and unstable self-image seen in borderline personality disorder.
*Avoidant*
- Marked by **social inhibition**, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, leading to avoidance of social interaction.
- This patient seeks close relationships and relies on others, which is opposite to the social withdrawal and avoidance characteristic of avoidant personality disorder.
*Histrionic*
- Characterized by excessive **emotionality** and attention-seeking behavior, often dramatic and theatrical.
- While the patient might seek attention in her relationship, her core issue of submissiveness and reliance on others for decision-making does not align with the overtly dramatic and exhibitionistic traits of histrionic personality disorder.
Question 54: A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of difficulty sleeping. She worries that the lack of sleep will ruin her career prospects as a model. She has been coming to the physician multiple times over the past year for minor problems. She is dressed very extravagantly and flirts with the receptionist. When she is asked to sit down in the waiting room, she begins to cry and says that no one listens to her. When she is called to the examination room, she moves close to the physician, repeatedly intends to touch his cheek, and makes inappropriate comments. She does not have a history of self-harm or suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Schizotypal personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Dependent personality disorder
D. Narcissistic personality disorder
E. Histrionic personality disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Histrionic personality disorder***
- This patient displays classic features of **histrionic personality disorder**, including **attention-seeking behaviors** (flirting, extravagant dress, dramatic crying), **inappropriate sexually seductive behavior** toward the physician, and **rapidly shifting and shallow emotions** (cries that no one listens to her, then attempts to touch the physician).
- Her excessive emotionality and constant need to be the center of attention, coupled with a tendency to use physical appearance to draw attention to herself, align well with the diagnostic criteria.
*Schizotypal personality disorder*
- Characterized by a pervasive pattern of **social and interpersonal deficits** marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as by **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentricities of behavior.
- This patient does not exhibit evidence of odd beliefs, magical thinking, unusual perceptual experiences, or paranoid ideation typical of schizotypal personality disorder.
*Borderline personality disorder*
- Marked by a pervasive pattern of **instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects**, and marked impulsivity. Patients often exhibit intense fears of abandonment, chronic feelings of emptiness, and self-harming behaviors.
- While there is some emotional dysregulation and intense relationships, the patient does not report **self-harm, suicidal ideation**, or the severe identity disturbance common in borderline personality disorder.
*Dependent personality disorder*
- Individuals with dependent personality disorder exhibit an excessive need to be cared for, leading to **submissive and clinging behavior** and fears of separation. They often have difficulty making everyday decisions without excessive reassurance.
- This patient's behaviors are geared towards attracting attention and being the center of it, rather than seeking reassurance or exhibiting submissive behavior.
*Narcissistic personality disorder*
- Characterized by a pervasive pattern of **grandiosity, a need for admiration**, and a lack of empathy. Patients often believe they are special and unique and expect to be recognized as superior.
- While this patient seeks attention, her behavior is more about being dramatic and emotionally expressive rather than a sense of inflated self-importance or a deep need for admiration stemming from grandiosity.
Question 55: A 14-year-old male is brought to your psychiatric clinic after he was caught stealing his peers’ belongings multiple times by his teacher. He is a straight-A student with many friends and is an outstanding football player. He describes his family as very loving and gets along with his older siblings. He also states that he has no ill will towards anyone he stole from in class. Although never caught, he admits that he would often steal things in stores or locker rooms when no one was looking in order to satisfy an intense impulse. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for this patient?
A. Kleptomania (Correct Answer)
B. Antisocial Personality Disorder
C. Conduct disorder
D. Schizophrenia
E. Manic episode
Explanation: ***Kleptomania***
- The patient's presentation of stealing for an **intense impulse** rather than for financial gain or to express anger, along with an absence of other behavioral issues, aligns with the diagnostic criteria for **kleptomania**.
- The patient describes feeling no ill will towards those he stole from, suggesting the stealing is driven by a compulsive urge rather than malicious intent or antisocial behavior.
*Antisocial Personality Disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **disregard for and violation of the rights of others**, beginning in childhood or early adolescence, and extending into adulthood.
- The patient's good academic standing, many friends, loving family, and lack of ill will towards his victims do not fit the typical pattern of deceitfulness, impulsivity, irritability, or aggression seen in **antisocial personality disorder**.
*Conduct disorder*
- **Conduct disorder** involves a repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated.
- While stealing is a feature, a diagnosis of conduct disorder requires a broader pattern of aggressive, destructive, deceitful, or rule-violating behaviors, which are not present in this patient's otherwise well-adjusted life (e.g., good student, many friends, loving family).
*Schizophrenia*
- **Schizophrenia** is a severe mental disorder characterized by thought disorders, delusions, hallucinations, and grossly disorganized behavior, which are not present in this patient.
- The patient's symptoms are solely focused on impulse-driven stealing and do not include any psychotic features.
*Manic episode*
- A **manic episode** involves a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and abnormally and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy.
- While impulsivity can be a feature of mania, the patient's presentation lacks other hallmark symptoms such as decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, flight of ideas, or increased talkativeness, and the stealing is described as an isolated intense impulse rather than part of a broader mood disturbance.
Question 56: A 35-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her coworkers after a sudden onset of vision loss. She is a lawyer and lost 3 cases in the past week. Yesterday, she experienced weakness and paralysis of her left wrist. Past medical history is significant for acid reflux. Physical examination reveals 2/4 in reflexes and 5/5 in muscular strength in all extremities. She appears indifferent to her current situation and presents with a flat affect. Slurring of words is absent. CT without contrast and MRI of the brain are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Conversion disorder (Correct Answer)
B. Transient ischemic attack
C. Factitious disorder
D. Major depressive disorder
E. Somatization disorder
Explanation: ***Conversion disorder***
- The sudden onset of **neurological symptoms** (vision loss, wrist paralysis) without a medical explanation, particularly in the context of psychological stress (**losing cases**), is characteristic of conversion disorder.
- The patient's **indifference** to her symptoms (**la belle indifférence**) further supports this diagnosis, as does the normal neurological examination and imaging.
*Transient ischemic attack*
- While TIAs can cause sudden neurological deficits, they typically involve a **brief, full recovery** of symptoms within 24 hours, and are often associated with vascular risk factors.
- The patient's symptoms are sustained, and her physical examination is unremarkable, which is inconsistent with acute ischemia.
*Factitious disorder*
- In factitious disorder, individuals **intentionally feign or induce symptoms** for the primary purpose of assuming the sick role.
- This patient presents with real, albeit psychologically-driven, symptoms and does not appear to be consciously fabricating illness.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While the patient is experiencing stress, the primary features of depression are persistent sadness, anhedonia, and other mood disturbances, not **acute neurological deficits** as the presenting complaint.
- Her flat affect could be a symptom, but the core issue is unexplained neurological dysfunction.
*Somatization disorder*
- Somatization disorder (now part of **somatic symptom disorder**) involves multiple, chronic, and often vague physical complaints across various body systems that are not adequately explained by medical conditions.
- This patient presents with acute, specific neurological symptoms, not a chronic and diffuse pattern of complaints.
Question 57: A 25-year-old woman with a history of moderate persistent asthma presents to the emergency department with tachypnea, shortness of breath, and cough. She also mentions that she has recently started to notice red flecks in the sputum that she coughs up. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, and respiratory rate 26/min. Her physical examination is significant for moderate bilateral wheezes and poor air movement. The forced expiratory volume-1 (FEV-1) is less than 50% of the predicted value, and she is found to have a concurrent upper respiratory tract infection. She is given oxygen, albuterol, and corticosteroids for her exacerbation, and she starts to feel better after a few hours of monitoring in the emergency department. She is ultimately discharged home on a 14-day prednisone taper. Which of the following is a side effect she could experience on this short course of steroids?
A. Impaired wound healing
B. Amenorrhea
C. Fat deposits in the face
D. Emotional instability (Correct Answer)
E. Cushing’s syndrome
Explanation: ***Emotional instability***
- A short course of corticosteroids can significantly impact **mood and cognition**, leading to symptoms like **anxiety**, **irritability**, **insomnia**, or even an acute psychotic episode.
- These psychiatric side effects are relatively common, even with short-term use, due to the direct effects of glucocorticoids on the **central nervous system**.
*Impaired wound healing*
- While chronic corticosteroid use can impair wound healing by inhibiting **collagen synthesis** and **fibroblast proliferation**, it is less likely to be a prominent side effect with a short, 14-day taper.
- Significant wound healing issues are typically seen with **prolonged high-dose therapy**.
*Amenorrhea*
- **Menstrual irregularities** and amenorrhea are usually associated with **long-term steroid use**, leading to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.
- A short, 14-day course is unlikely to cause a significant or lasting impact on the **menstrual cycle**.
*Fat deposits in the face*
- The development of **"moon face"** (fat deposits in the face) is a characteristic feature of **Cushing's syndrome** resulting from **chronic, high-dose corticosteroid use**.
- This symptom primarily develops over **weeks to months** of continuous exposure, not from a short-term taper.
*Cushing’s syndrome*
- **Cushing's syndrome** is a constellation of symptoms resulting from **prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol**, endogenous or exogenous.
- A 14-day prednisone taper is **insufficient duration** to induce the full clinical picture of Cushing's syndrome.
Question 58: A 27-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her parents because they are concerned about her mood. They say that she has “not been herself” since the death of her friend, who was killed 3 weeks ago when the fighter jet he piloted was shot down overseas. She says that since the incident, she feels sad and alone. She reports having repeated nightmares about her friend's death. Her appetite has decreased, but she is still eating regularly and is otherwise able to take care of herself. She does not leave her home for any social activities and avoids visits from friends. She went back to work after taking 1 week off after the incident. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she appears sad, has a full range of affect, and is cooperative. In addition to taking measures to evaluate this patient's anxiety, which of the following is the most appropriate statement by the physician at this time?
A. I can see that you have gone through a lot recently, but I think that your reaction is especially severe and has persisted for longer than normal. Would you be open to therapy or medication to help you manage better?
B. I am worried that you may be having an abnormally severe reaction to what is an understandably stressful event. I recommend attending behavioral therapy sessions to help you deal with this challenge.
C. Your grief over the loss of your friend appears to have a negative effect on your social and functional capabilities. I recommend starting antidepressants to help you deal with this challenge.
D. I'm so sorry, but the loss of loved ones is a part of life. Let's try to find better ways for you to deal with this event.
E. I understand that the sudden loss of your friend has affected you deeply. Sometimes in situations like yours, people have thoughts that life is not worth living; have you had such thoughts? (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***I understand that the sudden loss of your friend has affected you deeply. Sometimes in situations like yours, people have thoughts that life is not worth living; have you had such thoughts?***
- This statement empathetically acknowledges the patient's grief while **directly assessing for suicidal ideation**, which is crucial in any evaluation of a patient experiencing significant emotional distress, especially after a recent loss.
- The patient's presentation, including sadness, social withdrawal, decreased appetite, and nightmares, is consistent with **grief**, but the physician must rule out more severe conditions like **major depressive disorder (MDD)**, for which suicidal thoughts are a key diagnostic criterion and safety concern.
*I can see that you have gone through a lot recently, but I think that your reaction is especially severe and has persisted for longer than normal. Would you be open to therapy or medication to help you manage better?*
- This statement is somewhat judgmental ("especially severe and has persisted for longer than normal") for a patient only three weeks out from a traumatic loss, which could invalidate her feelings.
- While therapy or medication might be considered, it's generally too early to classify her normal grief response as an abnormal or prolonged reaction without first screening for immediate safety concerns like suicidal ideation.
*I am worried that you may be having an abnormally severe reaction to what is an understandably stressful event. I recommend attending behavioral therapy sessions to help you deal with this challenge.*
- Similar to the previous option, labeling her reaction as "abnormally severe" at this early stage (3 weeks post-loss) can be perceived as invalidating and may make the patient less open to further discussion or treatment.
- Recommending therapy without first assessing for suicidal ideation or a more comprehensive diagnostic evaluation is premature and misses a critical screening step.
*Your grief over the loss of your friend appears to have a negative effect on your social and functional capabilities. I recommend starting antidepressants to help you deal with this challenge.*
- While her social and functional capabilities are affected, grief is a normal human response, and recommending antidepressants after only 3 weeks post-loss, without a full psychiatric evaluation or ruling out suicidal ideation, is often premature.
- **Antidepressants** are typically considered for **MDD** or **prolonged grief disorder**, usually after a longer period (e.g., 6 months for adults) or if symptoms are markedly severe and debilitating, especially with an immediate safety concern.
*I'm so sorry, but the loss of loved ones is a part of life. Let's try to find better ways for you to deal with this event.*
- This statement, particularly "the loss of loved ones is a part of life," can come across as dismissive and insensitive to the patient's individual pain and trauma.
- It minimizes her experience and does not create an empathetic environment necessary for a patient to open up about potentially sensitive topics, such as suicidal thoughts.
Question 59: A 34-year-old female presents to a counselor at the urging of her parents because they are concerned that she might be depressed. After recently breaking up with her long-term boyfriend, she moved back in with her parents because she could not handle making decisions alone. Soon after their breakup, she started going on 5–7 dates a week. She has been unemployed for 3 years, as her boyfriend took care of all the bills. In the past year, she thought of looking for a job but never felt confident enough to start the process. Her mom arranges her doctor's appointments and handles her car maintenance. She describes feeling uneasy when she is alone. She has hypothyroidism treated with levothyroxine. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Vital signs are normal. Mental status exam shows a neutral affect. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Avoidant personality disorder
B. Histrionic personality disorder
C. Borderline personality disorder
D. Separation anxiety disorder
E. Dependent personality disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dependent personality disorder***
- The patient exhibits a pervasive and excessive need to be cared for, leading to **submissive and clinging behavior** and fears of separation, as evidenced by her inability to make decisions, reliance on parents, and discomfort when alone.
- Her history of unemployment and reliance on her boyfriend, followed by moving back with parents and having her mom handle appointments and car maintenance, strongly supports an inability to function independently and an excessive need for reassurance and support, characteristic of **dependent personality disorder**.
*Avoidant personality disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **social inhibition**, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, which are not the primary features here.
- While she may lack confidence in looking for a job, her constant search for new relationships (5-7 dates a week) and reliance on others for decision-making point away from the **social avoidance** central to this diagnosis.
*Histrionic personality disorder*
- This disorder is marked by **excessive emotionality** and **attention-seeking behavior**, often through seductive or provocative means.
- Although she is actively dating, the core issue appears to be her need for care and support rather than a desire to be the center of attention or dramatize her emotions.
*Borderline personality disorder*
- Characterized by a pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity, such as **frantic efforts to avoid abandonment** or **recurrent suicidal behavior**.
- While she might fear abandonment (expressed as uneasiness when alone), the overall clinical picture lacks the impulsivity, mood swings, self-harm, or intense anger typically seen in borderline personality disorder.
*Separation anxiety disorder*
- This disorder typically manifests with excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from attachment figures, often seen in childhood, but can occur in adults.
- While she expresses **uneasiness when alone**, the pervasive pattern of **submissive behavior**, difficulty making decisions, and chronic dependency on others for all aspects of life points more towards a personality disorder rather than an anxiety disorder primarily focused on separation.
Question 60: A 71-year-old woman comes to her doctor because she is having trouble staying awake in the evening. Over the past year, she has noticed that she gets tired unusually early in the evenings and has trouble staying awake through dinner. She also experiences increased daytime sleepiness, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. She typically goes to bed around 9 PM and gets out of bed between 2 and 3 AM. She does not have any trouble falling asleep. She takes 30-minute to 1-hour daytime naps approximately 3 times per week. She has no history of severe illness and does not take any medication. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Non-REM sleep arousal disorder
B. Depressive disorder
C. Delayed sleep phase disorder
D. Advanced sleep phase disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Insomnia disorder
Explanation: ***Advanced sleep phase disorder***
- The patient's early evening fatigue, difficulty staying awake through dinner, and habitual bedtime of 9 PM with waking between 2-3 AM are classic symptoms of **advanced sleep phase disorder**.
- This condition involves a consistent advance of the **major sleep episode**, occurring significantly earlier than desired and resulting in early morning awakening.
*Non-REM sleep arousal disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of **incomplete awakening** from sleep, often accompanied by behaviors like sleepwalking or sleep terrors.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily related to timing of sleep, not **arousals** from sleep.
*Depressive disorder*
- While **sleep disturbance** (insomnia or hypersomnia) is common in depression, the specific pattern of early sleep onset and early morning awakening without difficulty falling asleep points away from a primary depressive disorder here.
- The patient does not describe other critical symptoms of depression such as anhedonia, low mood, or feelings of worthlessness.
*Delayed sleep phase disorder*
- This disorder involves a **delay** in the timing of the major sleep episode, meaning individuals go to bed and wake up much later than conventional times.
- The patient's symptoms are the **opposite** of delayed sleep phase disorder, as she is going to bed and waking up earlier.
*Insomnia disorder*
- Characterized by **difficulty falling asleep**, staying asleep, or early morning awakenings with inability to return to sleep, leading to significant distress or impairment.
- The patient explicitly states she has **no trouble falling asleep**, which rules out primary insomnia as the main issue.