A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father for difficulty in school. He reports that his son has been suspended several times over his high school career for instigating fights. Per the patient, he has always had trouble controlling his anger and would feel especially frustrated at school since he has difficulty “keeping up.” His past medical history is unremarkable and he is up-to-date on all his vaccinations. A physical examination demonstrates a 6-foot tall teenage boy with severe acne vulgaris throughout his face and back. He is later worked up to have a chromosomal abnormality. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation?
Q32
An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents because they are concerned with her behavior. She has temper outbursts six or seven times per week, which last anywhere between 5 minutes to half an hour or until she becomes tired. According to her father, she screams at others and throws things in anger “when things don't go her way.” He says these outbursts started when she was 6 and a half years old and even between the outbursts, she is constantly irritable. She had been suspended from school three times in the past year for physical aggression, but her grades have remained unaffected. She appears agitated and restless. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. During the mental status examination, she is uncooperative and refuses to answer questions. What is the most likely diagnosis in this child?
Q33
A 9-year-old boy is brought to the psychiatrist due to unusual behavior over the past several months. His mother reports that he has started to blink more frequently than usual. His parents initially attributed this behavior to attention-seeking but he has not stopped despite multiple disciplinary efforts and behavioral therapy from a clinical psychologist. He previously performed well in school but has recently become more disruptive and inattentive in class. He has not been sick recently and denies any drug use. His parents report multiple episodes in the past in which the child seemed overly elated and hyperactive for several days followed by periods in which he felt sad and withdrawn. On examination, he is a well-appearing boy in no acute distress. He is alert and oriented with a normal affect but gets distracted easily throughout the exam. He blinks both eyes several times throughout the examination. Strength, sensation, and gait are all normal. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for this patient?
Q34
A 12-year-old boy is referred to a pediatric neurologist because of repetitive motions such as blinking or tilting his head. He is brought in by his mother who says that he also clears his throat and hums repeatedly. These actions have been happening for the past year and his mother is concerned. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccinations and is meeting all developmental milestones. On physical exam, he shows no focal neurological deficits and is cognitively normal for his age. He occasionally sharply jerks his head to one side during the physical exam and utters obscene words. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of this condition?
Q35
A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of headache and difficulty sleeping for the past 2 days. She states that she has had similar symptoms over the past several months and that they occur every month around the same time. The episodes are also frequently accompanied by decreased concentration, angry feelings, and cravings for sweet foods. She says that during these episodes she is unable to work efficiently, and often has many arguments with her colleagues and friends. Menses occur at regular 26-day intervals and last 5 days. Her last menstrual period started about 3 weeks ago. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 8 years. She takes no medications. She appears irritable. The patient is oriented to person, place, and time. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Q36
A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fluctuating mood for the past 2 years. He feels great and full of energy for some months when he is very creative with tons of ideas just racing through his mind. He is noted to be very talkative and distracted by his different ideas. During these times, he is very productive and able to accomplish much at work and home. However, these periods are frequently followed by a prolonged depressed mood. During this time, he has low energy, poor concentration, and low self-esteem. The accompanying feeling of hopelessness from these cycling “ups” and “downs” have him eating and sleeping more during the “downs.” He does not remember a period within the last 2 years where he felt “normal.” What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q37
A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of several episodes of urinary incontinence over the past several months. She reports that she was not able to get to the bathroom in time. During the past 6 months, her husband has noticed that she is starting to forget important appointments and family meetings. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. The patient had smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is confused and has short-term memory deficits. She walks slowly taking short, wide steps. Muscle strength is normal. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's urinary incontinence?
Q38
A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend after she cut her forearms with a knife. She has had multiple visits to the emergency department in the past few months for self-inflicted wounds. She claims that her boyfriend is the worst person in the world. She and her boyfriend have broken up 20 times in the past 6 months. She says she cut herself not because she wants to kill herself; she feels alone and empty and wants her boyfriend to take care of her. Her boyfriend claims that she is prone to outbursts of physical aggression as well as mood swings. He says that these mood swings last a few hours and vary from states of exuberance and self-confidence to states of self-doubt and melancholy. On examination, the patient appears well-dressed and calm. She has normal speech, thought processes, and thought content. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q39
A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency room for a self-inflicted laceration of her distal volar forearm. The patient states that she knew her husband was having sexual thoughts about the woman from the grocery store, prompting her decision to cut her own wrist. In the emergency department the bleeding is stopped and the patient is currently medically stable. When interviewing the patient, she is teary and apologizes for her behavior. She is grateful to you for her care and regrets her actions. Of note, the patient has presented to the emergency department before for a similar reason when she was struggling with online dating. The patient states that she struggles with her romantic relationship though she deeply desires them. On physical exam you note a frightened young woman who is wearing a revealing dress that prominently displays her breasts. You tell the patient that she will have to stay in the psychiatric emergency department for the night which makes her furious. Which of the following personality disorders is the most likely diagnosis?
Q40
An 11-year-old boy’s parents brought him to a psychologist upon referral from the boy’s school teacher. The boy frequently bullies his younger classmates despite having been punished several times for this. His mother also reported that a year prior, she received complaints that the boy shoplifted from local shops in his neighborhood. The boy frequently stays out at night despite strict instructions by his parents to return home by 10 PM. Detailed history reveals that apart from such behavior, he is usually not angry or irritable. Although his abnormal behavior continues despite warnings and punishments, he neither argues with his parents nor teachers and does not display verbal or physical aggression. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Mood Disorders US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father for difficulty in school. He reports that his son has been suspended several times over his high school career for instigating fights. Per the patient, he has always had trouble controlling his anger and would feel especially frustrated at school since he has difficulty “keeping up.” His past medical history is unremarkable and he is up-to-date on all his vaccinations. A physical examination demonstrates a 6-foot tall teenage boy with severe acne vulgaris throughout his face and back. He is later worked up to have a chromosomal abnormality. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation?
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Down syndrome
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Conduct disorder
E. XYY syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***XYY syndrome***
- The patient's presentation of **tall stature**, severe **acne vulgaris**, learning difficulties, and behavioral problems like aggression and anger issues are characteristic features of **XYY syndrome**.
- This syndrome is due to the presence of an **extra Y chromosome**, often leading to increased testosterone levels and associated physical and behavioral phenotypes.
*Klinefelter syndrome*
- Characterized by **XXY karyotype**, leading to features like **tall stature**, small testes, **gynecomastia**, and often learning difficulties, but typically not severe acne or markedly aggressive behavior as the primary concern.
- Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome often have reduced fertility and hormonal imbalances that differ from those seen in XYY syndrome.
*Down syndrome*
- Caused by **trisomy 21** and presents with distinct facial features (**epicanthic folds**, flat nasal bridge), intellectual disability, and congenital heart defects, which are not described in this patient.
- Patients with Down syndrome are not typically known for excessive height or severe acne.
*Fragile X syndrome*
- This is an **X-linked genetic disorder** causing intellectual disability, characteristic long face, large ears, and macroorchidism, which are not mentioned in this patient's presentation.
- While behavioral issues can occur, the combination of tall stature and severe acne is not typical of Fragile X syndrome.
*Conduct disorder*
- This is a **behavioral disorder** characterized by a persistent pattern of violating the rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms, fitting the description of instigating fights and difficulty in school.
- However, conduct disorder is a **diagnosis of exclusion** and does not account for the physical findings of tall stature, severe acne, or the underlying chromosomal abnormality that was later identified.
Question 32: An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents because they are concerned with her behavior. She has temper outbursts six or seven times per week, which last anywhere between 5 minutes to half an hour or until she becomes tired. According to her father, she screams at others and throws things in anger “when things don't go her way.” He says these outbursts started when she was 6 and a half years old and even between the outbursts, she is constantly irritable. She had been suspended from school three times in the past year for physical aggression, but her grades have remained unaffected. She appears agitated and restless. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. During the mental status examination, she is uncooperative and refuses to answer questions. What is the most likely diagnosis in this child?
A. Pediatric bipolar disorder
B. Conduct disorder
C. Intermittent explosive disorder
D. Oppositional defiant disorder
E. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder***
- This diagnosis is characterized by **frequent, severe temper outbursts** that are out of proportion to the situation, along with persistent **irritable or angry mood** between outbursts, lasting for at least 12 months. The girl's symptoms, including frequent outbursts starting before age 10 and chronic irritability, fit these criteria.
- The onset of symptoms occurred at 6.5 years of age, and the child is currently 8-years-old, which falls within the diagnostic age range (onset before age 10, diagnosis between 6 and 18 years).
*Pediatric bipolar disorder*
- This typically involves distinct periods of **elevated or expansive mood** and increased energy (mania or hypomania) that last for at least several days, which are not described in this case.
- While irritability can be a feature of pediatric bipolar disorder, the primary feature here is persistent irritability and temper outbursts without clear episodes of mood elevation.
*Conduct disorder*
- Conduct disorder involves a pervasive pattern of **disregard for the rights of others** and societal norms, including aggression towards people and animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious rule violations.
- While the girl shows aggression, there is no evidence of the broader pattern of repetitive and persistent rule-breaking or delinquent behaviors characteristic of conduct disorder.
*Intermittent explosive disorder*
- This is characterized by recurrent behavioral outbursts representing a **failure to control aggressive impulses**, often leading to assaultive acts or destruction of property. However, the outbursts are typically episodic, and the mood between episodes is generally normal.
- The key differentiating factor here is the girl's **persistent irritability or angry mood** between outbursts, which is a hallmark of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, not intermittent explosive disorder.
*Oppositional defiant disorder*
- Oppositional defiant disorder involves a pattern of **angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior**, or vindictiveness lasting at least six months.
- While there is overlap, the **severity and frequency of the temper outbursts experienced by this child** go beyond what is typically seen in ODD, making DMDD a more appropriate diagnosis. Temper outbursts in ODD are generally less severe and less chronic than those in DMDD.
Question 33: A 9-year-old boy is brought to the psychiatrist due to unusual behavior over the past several months. His mother reports that he has started to blink more frequently than usual. His parents initially attributed this behavior to attention-seeking but he has not stopped despite multiple disciplinary efforts and behavioral therapy from a clinical psychologist. He previously performed well in school but has recently become more disruptive and inattentive in class. He has not been sick recently and denies any drug use. His parents report multiple episodes in the past in which the child seemed overly elated and hyperactive for several days followed by periods in which he felt sad and withdrawn. On examination, he is a well-appearing boy in no acute distress. He is alert and oriented with a normal affect but gets distracted easily throughout the exam. He blinks both eyes several times throughout the examination. Strength, sensation, and gait are all normal. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for this patient?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Guanfacine
C. Amitriptyline
D. Venlafaxine
E. Lithium (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lithium***
- This patient presents with **episodic mood disturbances** including periods of being "overly elated and hyperactive for several days followed by periods in which he felt sad and withdrawn," which is highly suggestive of **pediatric bipolar disorder**.
- While he also displays **inattention, disruptive behavior, and motor tics** (eye blinking), the prominent **cyclical mood episodes** indicate that the primary diagnosis is a **mood disorder** that requires stabilization before addressing comorbid ADHD or tic symptoms.
- **Lithium** is a **first-line mood stabilizer** for bipolar disorder in children and adolescents. Stabilizing the mood is critical before treating ADHD symptoms, as stimulants or even non-stimulant ADHD medications can exacerbate manic symptoms.
- Lithium requires monitoring of blood levels and thyroid/renal function, but it remains the most appropriate choice for this presentation.
*Guanfacine*
- **Guanfacine** is a **selective alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** used for ADHD and can help with comorbid tics. While this patient has ADHD-like symptoms and a motor tic, the more pressing concern is the **cyclical mood episodes** described.
- Treating ADHD without first addressing the underlying mood disorder in pediatric bipolar disorder can worsen mood instability and manic symptoms.
- Guanfacine would be appropriate as an **adjunct** after mood stabilization is achieved.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is an **SSRI** used for depression and anxiety. In a child with bipolar disorder, antidepressants can precipitate **manic or hypomanic episodes** and worsen mood cycling.
- SSRIs should generally be avoided or used with extreme caution (alongside a mood stabilizer) in pediatric bipolar disorder.
*Venlafaxine*
- **Venlafaxine** is an **SNRI** used for depression and anxiety. Similar to SSRIs, SNRIs can trigger **mood destabilization** and mania in patients with bipolar disorder.
- It is not appropriate as monotherapy in a child with suspected bipolar disorder and could worsen the clinical picture.
*Amitriptyline*
- **Amitriptyline** is a **tricyclic antidepressant** with significant anticholinergic side effects and a less favorable safety profile in children.
- Like other antidepressants, it can induce **mania or mood cycling** in bipolar disorder and is not a first-line treatment for this presentation.
- TCAs are generally avoided in pediatric psychiatry due to safety concerns and the availability of better-tolerated alternatives.
Question 34: A 12-year-old boy is referred to a pediatric neurologist because of repetitive motions such as blinking or tilting his head. He is brought in by his mother who says that he also clears his throat and hums repeatedly. These actions have been happening for the past year and his mother is concerned. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccinations and is meeting all developmental milestones. On physical exam, he shows no focal neurological deficits and is cognitively normal for his age. He occasionally sharply jerks his head to one side during the physical exam and utters obscene words. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of this condition?
A. Coprolalia (Correct Answer)
B. X-linked MECP2 mutation with female predominance
C. Severe atrophy of the caudate and putamen
D. 3 Hz spike-wave pattern on EEG
E. CAG repeat on the short arm of chromosome 4
Explanation: ***Coprolalia***
- The boy's symptoms, including **multiple motor tics** (blinking, head tilting, head jerking) and **vocal tics** (throat clearing, humming, uttering obscene words), are classic for **Tourette syndrome**.
- **Coprolalia**, the involuntary utterance of obscene words, is a characteristic, albeit uncommon, feature of Tourette syndrome, clearly demonstrated in the clinical presentation.
*X-linked MECP2 mutation with female predominance*
- This describes **Rett syndrome**, a neurodevelopmental disorder almost exclusively affecting females due to its X-linked dominant inheritance pattern.
- Rett syndrome presents with **developmental regression**, loss of purposeful hand skills, and stereotypical hand movements, which are not seen in this boy who is meeting developmental milestones.
*Severe atrophy of the caudate and putamen*
- This is a hallmark pathological finding in **Huntington's disease**, a neurodegenerative disorder.
- Huntington's disease typically presents in adulthood with **progressive chorea**, cognitive decline, and psychiatric symptoms, which are distinct from the tics described.
*3 Hz spike-wave pattern on EEG*
- This characteristic EEG finding is pathognomonic for **absence seizures**, a type of generalized epilepsy.
- Absence seizures manifest as brief episodes of **staring spells** with impaired consciousness, not the complex motor and vocal tics described.
*CAG repeat on the short arm of chromosome 4*
- This genetic abnormality is the cause of **Huntington's disease**.
- As mentioned, Huntington's disease has a different clinical presentation and age of onset compared to the boy's symptoms.
Question 35: A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of headache and difficulty sleeping for the past 2 days. She states that she has had similar symptoms over the past several months and that they occur every month around the same time. The episodes are also frequently accompanied by decreased concentration, angry feelings, and cravings for sweet foods. She says that during these episodes she is unable to work efficiently, and often has many arguments with her colleagues and friends. Menses occur at regular 26-day intervals and last 5 days. Her last menstrual period started about 3 weeks ago. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 8 years. She takes no medications. She appears irritable. The patient is oriented to person, place, and time. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Naproxen
B. Avoidance of nicotine
C. Cognitive behavioral therapy
D. Bilateral oophorectomy
E. Fluoxetine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fluoxetine***
- The patient's symptoms (headache, difficulty sleeping, decreased concentration, angry feelings, food cravings, irritability) occurring monthly around her menstrual cycle, significantly impacting her functioning and relationships, are highly suggestive of **Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD)**.
- **Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)** like fluoxetine are considered first-line pharmacological treatment for PMDD due to their efficacy in reducing both psychological and physical symptoms.
*Naproxen*
- **Naproxen**, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is primarily used for pain relief and inflammation, such as menstrual cramps (dysmenorrhea).
- While it might help with headaches or other pain, it does not address the **psychological and emotional symptoms** characteristic of PMDD.
*Avoidance of nicotine*
- **Smoking cessation** is crucial for overall health and can reduce the severity of some premenstrual symptoms.
- However, it is a lifestyle modification that would be an adjunctive recommendation, not the **most appropriate primary treatment** for the cyclical, severe symptoms described, which highly suggest PMDD.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy*
- **Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)** is an effective non-pharmacological treatment for PMDD, helping patients manage stress, mood swings, and coping mechanisms.
- While recommended, given the severity and impact of her symptoms on her daily life, **pharmacological intervention** (like an SSRI) is often considered the most appropriate initial treatment, potentially in conjunction with CBT.
*Bilateral oophorectomy*
- **Bilateral oophorectomy** (surgical removal of both ovaries) induces menopause and permanently stops the ovarian hormone fluctuations that trigger PMDD.
- This is a **radical, irreversible surgical intervention** reserved for extremely severe and refractory cases of PMDD where all other medical treatments have failed, not a first-line treatment.
Question 36: A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fluctuating mood for the past 2 years. He feels great and full of energy for some months when he is very creative with tons of ideas just racing through his mind. He is noted to be very talkative and distracted by his different ideas. During these times, he is very productive and able to accomplish much at work and home. However, these periods are frequently followed by a prolonged depressed mood. During this time, he has low energy, poor concentration, and low self-esteem. The accompanying feeling of hopelessness from these cycling “ups” and “downs” have him eating and sleeping more during the “downs.” He does not remember a period within the last 2 years where he felt “normal.” What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dysthymic disorder
B. Bipolar II disorder
C. Persistent depressive disorder
D. Bipolar I disorder
E. Cyclothymic disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cyclothymic disorder***
- The patient experiences chronic **fluctuating moods**, with numerous periods of **hypomanic symptoms** (elevated energy, racing thoughts, increased productivity) and numerous periods of **depressive symptoms** (low energy, poor concentration, hopelessness) over at least 2 years.
- The symptoms are not severe enough to meet full criteria for a **manic episode**, **hypomanic episode**, or **major depressive episode**, and there has been no period longer than 2 months without symptoms.
*Dysthymic disorder*
- This is the **DSM-IV term** for what is now called **persistent depressive disorder** in DSM-5, involving a **chronic depressed mood** that lasts for at least 2 years.
- It does not include periods of significant elevated mood or hypomania.
- The patient's presentation includes distinct periods of **elevated mood and energy**, which are not characteristic of dysthymic disorder.
*Bipolar II disorder*
- Bipolar II disorder requires at least one **major depressive episode** and at least one **hypomanic episode**.
- While the patient exhibits hypomanic and depressive symptoms, the periods of depression do not meet the full criteria for a **major depressive episode** (e.g., duration, number of symptoms) and the hypomanic symptoms are subsyndromal.
*Persistent depressive disorder*
- This is the **DSM-5 term** for chronic low-grade depression (formerly called dysthymic disorder), characterized by depressed mood for at least 2 years without manic or hypomanic symptoms.
- The patient's history of elevated mood and energy precludes this diagnosis.
*Bipolar I disorder*
- Bipolar I disorder requires at least one **manic episode**, which is characterized by a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and abnormally and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy, lasting at least 1 week and causing significant impairment.
- The patient's "ups" are described as productive and not causing significant impairment or involving psychotic features, indicating **hypomanic symptoms** rather than full mania.
Question 37: A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of several episodes of urinary incontinence over the past several months. She reports that she was not able to get to the bathroom in time. During the past 6 months, her husband has noticed that she is starting to forget important appointments and family meetings. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. The patient had smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is confused and has short-term memory deficits. She walks slowly taking short, wide steps. Muscle strength is normal. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's urinary incontinence?
A. Bacterial infection of the urinary tract
B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus (Correct Answer)
C. Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia
D. Impaired detrusor contractility
E. Loss of sphincter function
Explanation: ***Normal pressure hydrocephalus***
- The patient's presentation with **urinary incontinence**, **memory deficits/dementia**, and an **ataxic gait** (slow, short, wide steps) represents the classic triad of **Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)**.
- While the incontinence itself is urge-type (not getting to the bathroom in time), the constellation of symptoms points to NPH as the underlying neurological cause.
*Bacterial infection of the urinary tract*
- Although urinary tract infections can cause **acute urinary incontinence**, especially in the elderly, they do not explain the accompanying **memory loss** and **gait disturbance**.
- There are no symptoms typical of infection such as **dysuria**, **frequency**, or **fever** mentioned in the vignette.
*Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia*
- This condition involves involuntary contraction of the urethral sphincter during detrusor contraction, typically seen in **spinal cord injury** patients, and is characterized by **incomplete bladder emptying**, not primarily urge incontinence alone.
- It does not account for the **cognitive decline** or **gait abnormalities** presented.
*Impaired detrusor contractility*
- **Impaired detrusor contractility** (underactive bladder) typically leads to **overflow incontinence** with incomplete emptying, characterized by a constant dribble and difficulty initiating urination, which contrasts with the presented urge incontinence.
- This condition does not explain the patient's **dementia** or **gait disturbance**.
*Loss of sphincter function*
- **Loss of sphincter function** (stress incontinence) typically causes urine leakage with increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., coughing, sneezing, lifting), which is different from the patient's report of not making it to the bathroom in time which points towards urge incontinence.
- This condition also does not explain the neurological symptoms of **dementia** and **gait ataxia**.
Question 38: A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend after she cut her forearms with a knife. She has had multiple visits to the emergency department in the past few months for self-inflicted wounds. She claims that her boyfriend is the worst person in the world. She and her boyfriend have broken up 20 times in the past 6 months. She says she cut herself not because she wants to kill herself; she feels alone and empty and wants her boyfriend to take care of her. Her boyfriend claims that she is prone to outbursts of physical aggression as well as mood swings. He says that these mood swings last a few hours and vary from states of exuberance and self-confidence to states of self-doubt and melancholy. On examination, the patient appears well-dressed and calm. She has normal speech, thought processes, and thought content. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dependent personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Bipolar II disorder
D. Cyclothymic disorder
E. Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation: ***Borderline personality disorder***
- This patient exhibits characteristic features of **borderline personality disorder**, including **impulsivity** (self-harm), **unstable relationships** (frequent breakups, idealization/devaluation of boyfriend), **affective instability** (rapid mood swings lasting hours), and feelings of **emptiness** and **abandonment**.
- **Self-harm** in BPD is often a coping mechanism for intense emotional pain or a way to elicit care, rather than a genuine suicide attempt, as stated by the patient.
*Dependent personality disorder*
- Characterized by an **excessive need to be cared for**, leading to submissive and clinging behavior and fears of separation, which is not the primary presentation here.
- While there is a desire for care, the prominent features of **impulsivity**, **affective instability**, and **unstable relationships** are not typical of dependent personality disorder.
*Bipolar II disorder*
- Involves episodes of **hypomania** and **major depression**, with mood swings typically lasting for at least **four days** (hypomania) or **two weeks** (major depression), much longer than the hours described here.
- The patient's presentation emphasizes **interpersonal instability** and **self-harm** more than episodic mood disturbances.
*Cyclothymic disorder*
- Involves **numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms** and numerous periods of **depressive symptoms** for at least two years, but these symptoms are less severe than full-blown hypomanic or major depressive episodes.
- The rapid mood shifts within hours and the intensity of **interpersonal dysfunction** and **self-harm** are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.
*Histrionic personality disorder*
- Characterized by **excessive emotionality** and **attention-seeking behavior**, often sexually provocative, and using physical appearance to draw attention.
- While emotionality is present, the **self-harm**, **emptiness**, and **rapid mood shifts** are not core features of histrionic personality disorder.
Question 39: A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency room for a self-inflicted laceration of her distal volar forearm. The patient states that she knew her husband was having sexual thoughts about the woman from the grocery store, prompting her decision to cut her own wrist. In the emergency department the bleeding is stopped and the patient is currently medically stable. When interviewing the patient, she is teary and apologizes for her behavior. She is grateful to you for her care and regrets her actions. Of note, the patient has presented to the emergency department before for a similar reason when she was struggling with online dating. The patient states that she struggles with her romantic relationship though she deeply desires them. On physical exam you note a frightened young woman who is wearing a revealing dress that prominently displays her breasts. You tell the patient that she will have to stay in the psychiatric emergency department for the night which makes her furious. Which of the following personality disorders is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Borderline (Correct Answer)
B. Dependent
C. Antisocial
D. Histrionic
E. Avoidant
Explanation: ***Borderline***
- The patient exhibits **impulsivity** (self-harm), **unstable relationships**, fear of abandonment (husband's "sexual thoughts"), and rapid mood shifts (tearful apology followed by fury), which are characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder.
- Recurrent self-harm and previous presentations for similar reasons (struggling with online dating) highlight a pattern of **unstable self-image** and coping mechanisms.
*Dependent*
- While individuals with Dependent Personality Disorder desire relationships, their primary feature is an excessive need to be cared for, leading to **submissive behavior** and fear of separation, rather than the dramatic impulsivity and anger seen in the patient.
- The patient's fury and self-harm suggest a more volatile and emotionally dysregulated presentation than typically associated with dependency.
*Antisocial*
- Antisocial Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of **disregard for and violation of the rights of others**, often involving deceitfulness, impulsivity, and lack of remorse. The patient's apology and regret for her actions are inconsistent with this diagnosis.
- There is no evidence of habitual law-breaking, exploitation of others, or a general callous disregard for others' feelings, which are core features of antisocial personality.
*Histrionic*
- Histrionic Personality Disorder is characterized by excessive **emotionality** and **attention-seeking behavior**, often through provocative actions (like dressing revealingly). However, the patient's severe self-harm, unstable relationships, intense abandonment fears, and rapid mood swings are more indicative of borderline personality.
- While the revealing dress might suggest some histrionic traits, the overarching presentation of chronic relationship instability, impulsivity, and self-mutilation points more strongly to Borderline Personality Disorder.
*Avoidant*
- Avoidant Personality Disorder involves extreme **social inhibition**, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, leading to avoidance of social interactions despite a desire for intimacy.
- The patient's active pursuit of relationships, even if unstable, and her dramatic, impulsive behaviors are inconsistent with the core features of social avoidance and timidity seen in Avoidant Personality Disorder.
Question 40: An 11-year-old boy’s parents brought him to a psychologist upon referral from the boy’s school teacher. The boy frequently bullies his younger classmates despite having been punished several times for this. His mother also reported that a year prior, she received complaints that the boy shoplifted from local shops in his neighborhood. The boy frequently stays out at night despite strict instructions by his parents to return home by 10 PM. Detailed history reveals that apart from such behavior, he is usually not angry or irritable. Although his abnormal behavior continues despite warnings and punishments, he neither argues with his parents nor teachers and does not display verbal or physical aggression. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, hyperactivity-impulsivity type
B. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
C. Intermittent explosive disorder
D. Conduct disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Oppositional defiant disorder
Explanation: ***Conduct disorder***
- The boy's behaviors, including **bullying**, **shoplifting**, and **violating rules** (staying out past curfew), represent a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms, which are core features of **conduct disorder**.
- The history indicates these behaviors have been ongoing for at least a year and are not just isolated incidents, fulfilling the diagnostic criteria for **duration and pervasiveness**.
*Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, hyperactivity-impulsivity type*
- While ADHD involves **hyperactivity** and **impulsivity**, it does not typically manifest with deliberate violations of others' rights or societal norms like **bullying** and **shoplifting**.
- There is no mention of symptoms such as **difficulty sustaining attention**, **fidgeting**, or **excessive talking** which are characteristic of ADHD.
*Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by **severe recurrent temper outbursts** and persistent **irritable or angry mood** between outbursts.
- The case explicitly states the boy is "not angry or irritable" and "neither argues with his parents nor teachers," ruling out this diagnosis.
*Intermittent explosive disorder*
- This disorder involves recurrent behavioral outbursts representing a failure to control aggressive impulses, often with verbal aggression or physical aggression toward property, animals, or other individuals.
- The boy does not display verbal or physical aggression and is not noted to have anger or irritability, which are central to this diagnosis.
*Oppositional defiant disorder*
- ODD involves a pattern of **angry/irritable mood**, **argumentative/defiant behavior**, or **vindictiveness**.
- While violating rules is present, **bullying** and **shoplifting** (which violate the basic rights of others) are more severe behaviors that go beyond the scope of ODD and are characteristic of conduct disorder.