A 18-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician reporting that she has not experienced her first menses. She is accompanied by her mother who states that she personally experienced menstruation at age 12 and that the patient's sister started menstruating at the age of 11 years. The patient is not sexually-active and denies taking any medications. On physical examination, the patient appears thin and has fine hair covering her arms. Her height is 62 inches (157.48 cm) and her weight is 85 pounds (38.5 kg). The patient does not make eye contact and only answers in one word responses. The mother is asked to step out of the room and the interview resumes. After establishing some trust, the patient admits that she does not have an appetite. She has had difficulty sleeping and some feels guilty for worrying her mother. She also admits to occasional cocaine use. She switches between binge-eating and vomiting. She is constantly fatigued but she also goes to the gym three times daily, often without her parents’ knowledge. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q12
A 27-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of right arm numbness and weakness. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her family history, however, is significant for the unexpected death of both her parents at age 59 in a motor vehicle accident last week. On physical exam, her bicep, brachioradialis, and patellar reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. CNS imaging shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q13
An 8-year-old girl presents to the psychiatrist to discuss the recent divorce of her parents. The girl explains that her mother is the most caring and loving mother anyone could ever have and that she will be spending the majority of her time with her mother. On the other hand, she exclaims that her father is an evil person and hates him. Which of the following ego defenses is best demonstrated by this girl?
Q14
A 13-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for the evaluation of multiple behavioral problems. The parents report that their son has been bullying several classmates at school over the past year. During this period, he has been accused twice of stealing items from a local store. He has also beaten up the neighbor's son for no obvious reason. The parents state that they had to give up their dog for adoption after finding out that their son was torturing him. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. He attends a local middle school and his performance at school is poor compared to his classmates. He often forgets to do his homework and argues with his teachers. He was also caught smoking cigarettes. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. He has poor attention and does not answer some of the questions. For questions he answers affirmatively about his actions, he sometimes replies, “So what?.” Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to develop?
Q15
A 24-year-old woman visits her psychiatrist a week after she delivered a baby. She is holding her baby and crying as she waits for her appointment. She tells her physician that a day or so after her delivery, she has been finding it difficult to contain her feelings. She is often sad and unable to contain her tears. She is embarrassed and often starts crying without any reason in front of people. She is also anxious that she will not be a good mother and will make mistakes. She hasn’t slept much since the delivery and is often stressed about her baby getting hurt. She makes excessive attempts to keep the baby safe and avoid any mishaps. She does not report any loss of interest in her activities and denies any suicidal tendencies. Which of the following is best course of management for this patient?
Q16
A 13-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because she is concerned about her son's behavior. She reports that he has been wearing her dresses at home and asks to be called Lilly. He also stopped going to swim class because he “doesn't feel comfortable in swim trunks.” Since starting puberty about a year ago, he has not had any friends and the teachers report he is consistently being bullied at school. His academic performance has been poor for the last year even though he had maintained an A average the year before. The mother further reports that her son has had mainly female friends since preschool. She also mentions that as a child her son never enjoyed playing with typical boy toys like cars and instead preferred dressing up dolls. The patient was raised by his single mother from the age of 8 because his father left the family due to financial issues. He appears shy. Physical examination shows normal male external genitalia. There is scarce coarse, dark axillary and pubic hair. Upon questioning, the patient reports that he would rather be a girl. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q17
A 15-year-old boy is referred to a child psychologist because of worsening behavior and constant disruption in class. He has received multiple reprimands in the past 6 months for not doing the homework his teacher assigned, and he refuses to listen to the classroom instructions. Additionally, his teachers say he is very argumentative and blames other children for not letting him do his work. He was previously well behaved and one of the top students in his class. He denies any recent major life events or changes at home. His past medical history is noncontributory. His vital signs are all within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q18
A 29-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of not being able to get enough rest at night. He goes to bed early enough and has otherwise good sleep hygiene but feels drained the next day. He feels he is unable to perform optimally at work, but he is still a valued employee and able to complete his share of the work. About a month ago his wife of 5 years asked for a divorce and quickly moved out. He has cut out coffee after 12 pm and stopped drinking alcohol. He also exercises 3 days per week. Today, his blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 95/min, respiratory rate is 25/min, and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F ). On physical exam, his heart has a regular rate and rhythm and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. A CMP, CBC, and thyroid test are negative. Which of the following statements best describes this patient’s condition?
Q19
A 21-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of feeling tired during the day. He is concerned as his grades in school have worsened and he does not want to lose his scholarship. Upon further questioning, the patient describes frequently experiencing a dreamlike state before falling asleep and after waking up. He also has frequent nighttime awakenings where he finds himself unable to move. He denies snoring. The patient does not drink alcohol or abuse any other drugs. The patient's BMI is 21 kg/m2, and his vital signs are all within normal limits. What is this patient's diagnosis?
Q20
A 40-year-old man is brought into the emergency department because he was involved in a bar fight and sustained an injury to the head. The next day, as requested by the patient, the psychiatry team is called to address some of the concerns he has regarding his drinking habits. He admits that he got irate last night at the bar because his driver’s license was recently taken away and his wife had taken his children to live with her parents because of his drinking problem. He drinks 4–6 beers on a weeknight and more on the weekends. He wants to know if there is anything that could help him at this point. Which stage of overcoming his addiction is this patient currently in?
Mood Disorders US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A 18-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician reporting that she has not experienced her first menses. She is accompanied by her mother who states that she personally experienced menstruation at age 12 and that the patient's sister started menstruating at the age of 11 years. The patient is not sexually-active and denies taking any medications. On physical examination, the patient appears thin and has fine hair covering her arms. Her height is 62 inches (157.48 cm) and her weight is 85 pounds (38.5 kg). The patient does not make eye contact and only answers in one word responses. The mother is asked to step out of the room and the interview resumes. After establishing some trust, the patient admits that she does not have an appetite. She has had difficulty sleeping and some feels guilty for worrying her mother. She also admits to occasional cocaine use. She switches between binge-eating and vomiting. She is constantly fatigued but she also goes to the gym three times daily, often without her parents’ knowledge. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Binge-eating disorder
B. Anorexia nervosa (Correct Answer)
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Major depressive disorder
E. Illicit substance use
Explanation: ***Anorexia nervosa***
- The patient presents with **amenorrhea**, significantly low body weight (BMI of 15.6 kg/m$^2$), and a strong fear of gaining weight, evidenced by excessive exercise and restricted eating. The **lanugo hair** on her arms is a common sign of severe malnutrition.
- The reported **binge-eating and vomiting** episodes are often part of the **binge-eating/purging type** of anorexia nervosa, and her social withdrawal, guilt, and fatigue are consistent with the psychological distress seen in this disorder.
*Binge-eating disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of **binge eating** without compensatory behaviors, which contradicts the patient's reported vomiting and excessive exercise.
- Patients with binge-eating disorder typically **do not exhibit low body weight**, and often they are overweight or obese, which is not the case here.
*Bulimia nervosa*
- While bulimia nervosa involves **binge-eating and compensatory behaviors** (like vomiting and excessive exercise), it is primarily diagnosed when these behaviors occur in individuals of **normal weight or overweight/obese**, not in those with significantly low body weight.
- The patient's **amenorrhea** and **emaciation** strongly point away from typical bulimia nervosa and towards anorexia nervosa.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While the patient exhibits symptoms like **fatigue, guilt, insomnia, and social withdrawal** which can be seen in major depressive disorder, these are often secondary to the severe eating disorder and nutritional deficiencies.
- The presence of specific eating disorder behaviors (extreme weight loss efforts, body image distortion, binge-purging cycles) makes an eating disorder a more comprehensive and primary diagnosis.
*Illicit substance use*
- Although the patient admits to occasional **cocaine use**, this is unlikely to be the primary diagnosis explaining the constellation of symptoms including **severe weight loss, amenorrhea, excessive exercise, and body image disturbance**.
- Substance use can co-occur with eating disorders, but it does not account for the core features of the patient's presentation.
Question 12: A 27-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of right arm numbness and weakness. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her family history, however, is significant for the unexpected death of both her parents at age 59 in a motor vehicle accident last week. On physical exam, her bicep, brachioradialis, and patellar reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. CNS imaging shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Conversion disorder (Correct Answer)
D. Arnold-Chiari malformation
E. Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation: ***Conversion disorder***
- The patient's presentation of **numbness and weakness** following a significant **psychological stressor** (parents' deaths) with a normal neurological exam and imaging is classic for conversion disorder.
- In conversion disorder, neurological symptoms are inconsistent with known neurological pathways or conditions, and symptoms are often out of patient's conscious control.
*Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis*
- This condition involves both **upper and lower motor neuron signs**, such as **spasticity, hyperreflexia**, and muscle atrophy, which are not described in this patient's presentation.
- ALS typically progresses over time, and the patient's symptoms are acute and without objective neurological findings.
*Multiple sclerosis*
- MS is characterized by **demyelinating lesions in the CNS** leading to various neurological deficits, which would be visible on CNS imaging.
- The patient's normal CNS imaging and unremarkable medical history make MS less likely.
*Arnold-Chiari malformation*
- This is a structural defect in the cerebellum and brainstem that can cause a range of neurological symptoms, often present from birth or early childhood.
- However, typical MRI findings for Chiari malformation would be present, and the acute onset after psychological stress is not characteristic.
*Vitamin B12 deficiency*
- Can cause **neurological symptoms** such as **paresthesias, weakness, and ataxia**, but it would likely present with other systemic effects like anemia and would typically involve abnormal neurological findings or lab values.
- The acute, localized symptoms following stress, absence of other signs, and normal imaging make this diagnosis unlikely.
Question 13: An 8-year-old girl presents to the psychiatrist to discuss the recent divorce of her parents. The girl explains that her mother is the most caring and loving mother anyone could ever have and that she will be spending the majority of her time with her mother. On the other hand, she exclaims that her father is an evil person and hates him. Which of the following ego defenses is best demonstrated by this girl?
A. Splitting (Correct Answer)
B. Projection
C. Denial
D. Regression
E. Acting out
Explanation: ***Splitting***
- **Splitting** is an ego defense mechanism where an individual views people or situations in **all-or-nothing terms**, categorizing them as either entirely good or entirely bad, without acknowledging any integration of positive and negative qualities.
- The girl demonstrates splitting by idealizing her mother as "the most caring and loving" while completely devaluing her father as "evil" and expressing hatred, indicating a failure to integrate both positive and negative aspects of her parents.
*Projection*
- **Projection** involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses to another person.
- The girl is expressing her own feelings towards her parents, not attributing her own internal states to them.
*Denial*
- **Denial** is a defense mechanism where an individual refuses to acknowledge a painful or anxiety-provoking reality.
- The girl is actively acknowledging and expressing her feelings about her parents and their divorce, rather than denying the situation.
*Regression*
- **Regression** is a return to an earlier or less mature stage of development when faced with stress or anxiety.
- While the stress of divorce could lead to regression, the described behavior specifically involves categorizing her parents rather than exhibiting younger behaviors like thumb-sucking or bedwetting.
*Acting out*
- **Acting out** involves expressing forbidden or unconscious impulses through action, often in a self-destructive or attention-seeking manner, instead of verbally or emotionally processing them.
- The girl is verbally articulating her feelings and perceptions, not engaging in impulsive or destructive behaviors.
Question 14: A 13-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for the evaluation of multiple behavioral problems. The parents report that their son has been bullying several classmates at school over the past year. During this period, he has been accused twice of stealing items from a local store. He has also beaten up the neighbor's son for no obvious reason. The parents state that they had to give up their dog for adoption after finding out that their son was torturing him. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. He attends a local middle school and his performance at school is poor compared to his classmates. He often forgets to do his homework and argues with his teachers. He was also caught smoking cigarettes. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. He has poor attention and does not answer some of the questions. For questions he answers affirmatively about his actions, he sometimes replies, “So what?.” Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to develop?
A. Early-onset dementia
B. Antisocial personality disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Bipolar disorder
E. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation: ***Antisocial personality disorder***
- The patient's history of **repeated bullying**, stealing, physical aggression, animal cruelty, and lack of remorse ("So what?") are all characteristic behaviors of **Conduct Disorder**.
- **Conduct Disorder**, if left untreated and symptoms persist into adulthood (age 18 and older), frequently progresses to **Antisocial Personality Disorder**.
*Early-onset dementia*
- **Dementia** involves a significant decline in cognitive function, such as memory and executive function, which is not indicated by the presented behavioral issues.
- While the patient has poor attention and academic performance, these are more aligned with behavioral difficulties and learning problems rather than a neurodegenerative process.
*Major depressive disorder*
- **Major depressive disorder** (MDD) symptoms include persistent low mood, anhedonia, changes in appetite or sleep, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt.
- The patient's presentation primarily involves **externalizing behaviors** (aggression, stealing) and a lack of remorse, which contradicts the internalizing symptoms typically seen in MDD.
*Bipolar disorder*
- **Bipolar disorder** is characterized by episodes of both depression and elevated mood (mania or hypomania), which is not described.
- While periods of irritability can occur in bipolar disorder, the chronic pattern of **deliberate rule-breaking**, aggression, and lack of empathy is not typical of its presentation.
*Obsessive-compulsive disorder*
- **Obsessive-compulsive disorder** (OCD) involves recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) performed to reduce anxiety.
- The patient's behaviors, such as bullying, stealing, and aggression, are not consistent with the anxiety-driven, ritualistic patterns seen in OCD.
Question 15: A 24-year-old woman visits her psychiatrist a week after she delivered a baby. She is holding her baby and crying as she waits for her appointment. She tells her physician that a day or so after her delivery, she has been finding it difficult to contain her feelings. She is often sad and unable to contain her tears. She is embarrassed and often starts crying without any reason in front of people. She is also anxious that she will not be a good mother and will make mistakes. She hasn’t slept much since the delivery and is often stressed about her baby getting hurt. She makes excessive attempts to keep the baby safe and avoid any mishaps. She does not report any loss of interest in her activities and denies any suicidal tendencies. Which of the following is best course of management for this patient?
A. Get admitted immediately
B. Come back for a follow-up in 2 weeks (Correct Answer)
C. Start on a small dose of fluoxetine daily
D. Give her child to child protective services
E. Schedule an appointment for electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation: ***Come back for a follow-up in 2 weeks***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **postpartum blues**, which typically resolve spontaneously within two weeks after delivery.
- Reassurance, emotional support, and monitoring her symptoms with a follow-up appointment are the most appropriate initial steps.
*Get admitted immediately*
- Immediate admission is generally reserved for more severe conditions like **postpartum psychosis**, characterized by delusions, hallucinations, or severe disorganization, which are not described here.
- Her symptoms, though distressing, do not indicate a level of impairment or danger requiring urgent inpatient care.
*Start on a small dose of fluoxetine daily*
- **Antidepressant medication** like fluoxetine is typically considered for **postpartum depression** if symptoms persist beyond two weeks or are severe from the outset.
- Given the transient nature of postpartum blues, medication is not the first-line treatment.
*Give her child to child protective services*
- This action is extreme and entirely unwarranted, as there is no indication of **child abuse, neglect, or harm** from the mother.
- Her increased anxiety about the baby's safety indicates concern, not a risk to the child's well-being.
*Schedule an appointment for electroconvulsive therapy*
- **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is a highly effective, but usually last-resort, treatment reserved for severe, treatment-refractory depression or psychosis, especially when rapid response is critical.
- Her symptoms do not currently warrant such an intensive intervention.
Question 16: A 13-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because she is concerned about her son's behavior. She reports that he has been wearing her dresses at home and asks to be called Lilly. He also stopped going to swim class because he “doesn't feel comfortable in swim trunks.” Since starting puberty about a year ago, he has not had any friends and the teachers report he is consistently being bullied at school. His academic performance has been poor for the last year even though he had maintained an A average the year before. The mother further reports that her son has had mainly female friends since preschool. She also mentions that as a child her son never enjoyed playing with typical boy toys like cars and instead preferred dressing up dolls. The patient was raised by his single mother from the age of 8 because his father left the family due to financial issues. He appears shy. Physical examination shows normal male external genitalia. There is scarce coarse, dark axillary and pubic hair. Upon questioning, the patient reports that he would rather be a girl. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sexual aversion
B. Gender nonconformity
C. Gender dysphoria (Correct Answer)
D. Fetishistic disorder
E. Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation: ***Gender dysphoria***
- This patient exhibits a marked incongruence between his **assigned sex at birth** (male) and his **experienced gender** (female), accompanied by significant distress and impairment in social and academic functioning.
- Key indicators include wanting to be called by a female name (**Lilly**), wearing female clothing, discomfort with male secondary sex characteristics (swim trunks), and explicitly stating a wish to be a girl.
*Sexual aversion*
- This involves a strong and persistent aversion to **sexual activity** or specific aspects of sexual activity, which is not the primary issue described in the patient's presentation.
- The patient's distress is related to his gender identity, not an aversion to sexual contact.
*Gender nonconformity*
- Refers to behaviors that are not typical for a person's assigned gender (e.g., a boy playing with dolls), but it does not necessarily cause **distress** or impairment in functioning.
- In this case, the patient's strong desire to be a girl and the associated distress from puberty and bullying go beyond simple nonconformity.
*Fetishistic disorder*
- Characterized by recurrent, intense **sexual arousal** from fantasies, urges, or behaviors involving inanimate objects or non-genital body parts.
- The patient's desire to wear dresses and identify as a girl is related to his gender identity, not a paraphilic sexual interest.
*Body dysmorphic disorder*
- Involves preoccupation with a perceived **flaw in physical appearance** that is not observable or appears slight to others, leading to significant distress or impairment.
- The patient's discomfort is with his entire physical sex and gender, not a specific perceived flaw in his body or appearance.
Question 17: A 15-year-old boy is referred to a child psychologist because of worsening behavior and constant disruption in class. He has received multiple reprimands in the past 6 months for not doing the homework his teacher assigned, and he refuses to listen to the classroom instructions. Additionally, his teachers say he is very argumentative and blames other children for not letting him do his work. He was previously well behaved and one of the top students in his class. He denies any recent major life events or changes at home. His past medical history is noncontributory. His vital signs are all within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Conduct disorder
D. Oppositional defiant disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Major depressive disorder
Explanation: ***Oppositional defiant disorder***
- This patient's symptoms of **argumentativeness**, **defiance**, and **blaming others**, combined with his previous good behavior and denial of major life events, are classic signs of **oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)**.
- ODD involves a pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least 6 months, clearly distinguishing it from a temporary behavioral issue.
*Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder*
- While **ADHD** can cause inattention and difficulty following instructions, it typically presents earlier in childhood and is characterized by **hyperactivity**, **impulsivity**, and **inattention** that would have likely been prominent before recently.
- The patient's primary symptoms here are an argumentative and defiant attitude rather than core symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity that began recently.
*Antisocial personality disorder*
- This disorder is typically diagnosed in **adulthood (18 years or older)**, although symptoms of **conduct disorder** must be present before age 15. The patient is currently 15.
- **Antisocial personality disorder** involves a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, which is more severe than the defiance seen in this case.
*Conduct disorder*
- **Conduct disorder** involves a more severe pattern of behavior, including aggression towards people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules, which is not described in this patient.
- The behaviors in this patient (argumentativeness, defiance) are less severe than the behaviors associated with conduct disorder.
*Major depressive disorder*
- Although behavioral changes can occur in **depression**, this patient does not exhibit other common symptoms such as **anhedonia**, changes in sleep or appetite, or persistent sadness, which would be expected with **major depressive disorder**.
- His behaviors are primarily externalizing and defiant rather than indicating an internal state of sadness or loss of interest.
Question 18: A 29-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of not being able to get enough rest at night. He goes to bed early enough and has otherwise good sleep hygiene but feels drained the next day. He feels he is unable to perform optimally at work, but he is still a valued employee and able to complete his share of the work. About a month ago his wife of 5 years asked for a divorce and quickly moved out. He has cut out coffee after 12 pm and stopped drinking alcohol. He also exercises 3 days per week. Today, his blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 95/min, respiratory rate is 25/min, and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F ). On physical exam, his heart has a regular rate and rhythm and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. A CMP, CBC, and thyroid test are negative. Which of the following statements best describes this patient’s condition?
A. Symptoms are usually self-limited and may persist for 2 years
B. Symptoms typically resolve within 6 months after the stressor ends (Correct Answer)
C. Symptoms develop within 3 months of the stressor
D. Symptoms may be persistent if the stressor is chronic
E. Symptoms represent a maladaptive response to an identifiable stressor
Explanation: ***Symptoms typically resolve within 6 months after the stressor ends***
- This statement accurately describes the **temporal criterion for adjustment disorder** according to DSM-5. Once the stressor or its consequences have terminated, symptoms should resolve within 6 months.
- This patient experienced a clear stressor (divorce and wife moving out ~1 month ago) and developed symptoms in response. The diagnosis of adjustment disorder requires that these symptoms resolve within 6 months of the stressor's termination.
- His symptoms (poor sleep, feeling drained, suboptimal performance) represent a significant but not incapacitating response, consistent with adjustment disorder. Normal labs rule out medical causes.
- This temporal criterion distinguishes adjustment disorder from more chronic conditions and helps guide prognosis and treatment planning.
*Symptoms are usually self-limited and may persist for 2 years*
- Adjustment disorder symptoms should resolve within **6 months**, not 2 years, after the stressor or its consequences have ended.
- If symptoms persist beyond 6 months, this suggests either ongoing stressor consequences, a persistent subtype (for chronic stressors), or an alternative diagnosis should be considered.
*Symptoms develop within 3 months of the stressor*
- While this is a **correct diagnostic criterion** (symptoms must develop within 3 months of stressor onset), it only addresses timing of onset, not the complete picture.
- The question asks for the statement that "best describes" the condition, and the resolution timeline is more distinctive and prognostically important than onset timing alone.
*Symptoms may be persistent if the stressor is chronic*
- This describes the **persistent specifier** in DSM-5, which applies when the stressor or its consequences are ongoing (chronic stressor or enduring consequences).
- However, in this case, the stressor appears to be acute (wife moved out), not chronic, making this less applicable to the specific clinical scenario presented.
*Symptoms represent a maladaptive response to an identifiable stressor*
- This is a **core defining feature** of adjustment disorder - the development of emotional/behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor with marked distress or impairment.
- While accurate, this is a general characteristic shared across the definition and doesn't capture the specific **temporal criteria** (resolution within 6 months) that is most distinctive for adjustment disorder diagnosis and prognosis.
Question 19: A 21-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of feeling tired during the day. He is concerned as his grades in school have worsened and he does not want to lose his scholarship. Upon further questioning, the patient describes frequently experiencing a dreamlike state before falling asleep and after waking up. He also has frequent nighttime awakenings where he finds himself unable to move. He denies snoring. The patient does not drink alcohol or abuse any other drugs. The patient's BMI is 21 kg/m2, and his vital signs are all within normal limits. What is this patient's diagnosis?
A. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)
B. Insomnia
C. Alcohol withdrawal
D. Delayed sleep phase syndrome (DSPS)
E. Narcolepsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Narcolepsy***
- The patient's symptoms of **excessive daytime sleepiness**, **hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations** (dreamlike state before falling asleep and after waking up), and **sleep paralysis** (unable to move during nighttime awakenings) are the **classic tetrad of narcolepsy** (cataplexy is the 4th feature, not present here).
- The absence of snoring, normal BMI, and lack of alcohol/drug use rule out other common causes of sleep disturbances, supporting the diagnosis of narcolepsy.
- Narcolepsy is a **chronic sleep-wake disorder** caused by hypothalamic hypocretin (orexin) deficiency.
*Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)*
- While OSA also causes **daytime sleepiness**, a key feature is **snoring**, which this patient denies.
- OSA is often associated with obesity, but this patient has a **normal BMI of 21 kg/m²**.
- OSA would not explain the hypnagogic hallucinations or sleep paralysis.
*Insomnia*
- Insomnia primarily involves difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, leading to **insufficient sleep quantity or quality**.
- This patient's symptoms are more specific, including episodes of sleep paralysis and vivid dreamlike states, rather than just general difficulty sleeping.
- The hallmark features of narcolepsy distinguish this from simple insomnia.
*Alcohol withdrawal*
- Alcohol withdrawal can cause **sleep disturbances**, but it is typically accompanied by other symptoms like tremors, anxiety, autonomic hyperactivity, and potentially seizures, none of which are present.
- The patient **explicitly denies drinking alcohol**, making this diagnosis highly unlikely.
*Delayed sleep phase syndrome (DSPS)*
- DSPS is a **circadian rhythm disorder** characterized by a delayed sleep-wake cycle, where individuals fall asleep and wake up later than desired.
- While it can cause daytime fatigue if individuals are forced to wake up early, it does **not** involve the specific symptoms of hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations or sleep paralysis seen in this patient.
- DSPS is primarily a timing issue, not a neurological sleep disorder.
Question 20: A 40-year-old man is brought into the emergency department because he was involved in a bar fight and sustained an injury to the head. The next day, as requested by the patient, the psychiatry team is called to address some of the concerns he has regarding his drinking habits. He admits that he got irate last night at the bar because his driver’s license was recently taken away and his wife had taken his children to live with her parents because of his drinking problem. He drinks 4–6 beers on a weeknight and more on the weekends. He wants to know if there is anything that could help him at this point. Which stage of overcoming his addiction is this patient currently in?
A. Action
B. Precontemplation
C. Maintenance
D. Contemplation (Correct Answer)
E. Preparation
Explanation: ***Contemplation***
- The patient acknowledges his drinking problem and its serious consequences (loss of driver's license, family separation), demonstrating awareness that change is needed.
- He actively requests psychiatric consultation and asks "if there is anything that could help him," indicating he is **exploring options and gathering information** about change.
- However, he has not yet made a firm commitment to take action or developed a specific plan, which distinguishes contemplation from preparation.
- The **contemplation stage** is characterized by recognition of the problem and consideration of change, with typical ambivalence about taking action—this patient is in this exploratory phase.
*Preparation*
- The **preparation stage** requires a clear commitment and intent to take action in the immediate future (typically within 30 days), often with a specific plan in place.
- This patient is asking exploratory questions rather than stating he is ready to start treatment or outlining steps he will take.
- Simply requesting information does not constitute preparation; there must be demonstrated readiness to act.
*Precontemplation*
- In the **precontemplation stage**, individuals deny having a problem or have no intention of changing their behavior.
- This patient clearly acknowledges his drinking problem and recognizes the negative consequences, moving him well beyond precontemplation.
*Action*
- The **action stage** involves actively modifying behavior and implementing specific strategies to overcome the addiction.
- This patient has not yet begun any treatment or behavioral changes related to his drinking.
*Maintenance*
- The **maintenance stage** occurs after sustained behavior change for at least six months, focusing on preventing relapse.
- This patient has not yet initiated any changes to maintain.