A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of recurrent episodes of palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, and dizziness over the past 4 months. These episodes are accompanied by intense fear of “losing control” over himself. Most of the episodes have occurred at work in situations when it would have been unacceptable to leave, such as during team meetings. The last episode occurred at home right before this visit, after he noticed that he was running late. He has been otherwise healthy. He occasionally drinks a beer or a glass of wine. Vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Thyroid function studies and an ECG show no abnormalities. Given his symptoms, this patient is at greatest risk of developing which of the following?
Q62
An 18-year-old female presents to general medical clinic with the report of a rape on her college campus. The patient was visiting a local fraternity, and after having a few drinks, awakened to find another student having intercourse with her. Aside from the risk of unintended pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections, this patient is also at higher risk of developing which of the following?
Q63
A previously healthy 56-year-old woman comes to the family physician for a 1-month history of sleep disturbance and sadness. The symptoms have been occurring since her husband died in a car accident. Before eventually falling asleep, she stays awake for multiple hours and has crying spells. Several times she has been woken up by the sound of her husband calling her name. She has lost 3 kg (6.6 lb) over the past month. She has 3 children with whom she still keeps regular contact and regularly attends church services with her friends. She expresses feeling a great feeling of loss over the death of her husband. She has no suicidal ideation. She is alert and oriented. Neurological exam shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?
Q64
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2 month history of difficulty sleeping and worsening fatigue. During this time, he has also had difficulty concentrating and remembering tasks at work as well as diminished interest in his hobbies. He has no suicidal or homicidal ideation. He does not have auditory or visual hallucinations. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and flat affect with slowed thinking and speech. The physician prescribes sertraline. Three weeks later, the patient comes to the physician again with only minor improvements in his symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q65
A 27-year old gentleman presents to the primary care physician with the chief complaint of "feeling down" for the last 6 weeks. He describes trouble falling asleep at night, decreased appetite, and recent feelings of intense guilt regarding the state of his personal relationships. He says that everything "feels slower" than it used to. He endorses having a similar four-week period of feeling this way last year. He denies thoughts of self-harm or harm of others. He also denies racing thoughts or delusions of grandeur. Which of the following would be an INAPPROPRIATE first line treatment for him?
Q66
A 38-year-old man presents with fatigue and weight loss for the past 4 months. He feels tired all the time. He also no longer feels interested in his work. He says he has lost weight and says, "I just don’t want to eat." No significant past medical history. No current medications. Physical examination is unremarkable. The patient is started on sertraline. He returns for follow-up after 2 weeks and says that he has been compliant with his medications. He says that he is now getting a full night’s sleep with no early morning awakenings. Despite regaining his appetite, he hasn’t regained any lost weight, and he still feels fatigued. He believes that the medication is not working well and asks to be started on something else. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q67
A 54-year-old man presents with feelings of sadness and low mood on most days of the week for the past month. He reports an inability to concentrate and also finds it hard to develop an interest in his daily activities. He goes on to tell his physician that he struggles to get sleep at night, and, in the morning, he doesn’t have the energy to get out of bed. He says he feels like a loser since he hasn’t accomplished all that he had set out to do and feels guilty for being unable to provide for his family. He says he doesn’t have the will to live anymore but denies any plans to commit suicide. Past medical history is significant for erectile dysfunction which was diagnosed about a year ago. Which of the following medications should be avoided in the treatment of this patient’s depression?
Q68
A 17-year-old boy is being seen by student health for a sports physical. He denies any recent injuries. He reports that he is doing well in his classes. He fractured his left collar bone 3 years ago, which required open reduction and internal fixation. He has not had any other surgeries. He takes no medications. His father and his paternal grandfather have hypertension. When asked about his mother, the patient tears up and he quickly begins talking about how excited he is for baseball tryouts. He has a chance this year to be in the starting lineup if, "I just stay focused." From previous records, the patient's mother died of ovarian cancer 6 months ago. Which of the following defense mechanisms is the patient exhibiting?
Q69
A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of sadness that started 3 weeks after her daughter was born. Her daughter is now 9 months old and usually sleeps through the night, but the patient still has difficulty staying asleep. She has not returned to work since the birth. She is easily distracted from normal daily tasks. She used to enjoy cooking, but only orders delivery or take-out now. She says that she always feels too exhausted to do so and does not feel hungry much anyway. The pregnancy of the patient's child was complicated by gestational diabetes. The child was born at 36-weeks' gestation and has had no medical issues. The patient has no contact with the child's father. She is not sexually active. She does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. She is 157 cm (5 ft 1 in) tall and weighs 47 kg (105 lb); BMI is 20 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. She is alert and cooperative but makes little eye contact. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q70
A 22-year-old man comes to the physician because of generalized fatigue for the past 3 months. During this time, his grades have declined in his college courses because he has had difficulty focusing on assignments and sometimes sleeps in class. He no longer plays the drums for his band and has stopped attending family events. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 60/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, he describes his mood as “ok.” He has a flat affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. His speech is slow in rate and monotone in rhythm, and his thought process is organized. He has no delusions or hallucinations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Depression US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of recurrent episodes of palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, and dizziness over the past 4 months. These episodes are accompanied by intense fear of “losing control” over himself. Most of the episodes have occurred at work in situations when it would have been unacceptable to leave, such as during team meetings. The last episode occurred at home right before this visit, after he noticed that he was running late. He has been otherwise healthy. He occasionally drinks a beer or a glass of wine. Vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Thyroid function studies and an ECG show no abnormalities. Given his symptoms, this patient is at greatest risk of developing which of the following?
A. Abnormally elevated mood and flight of ideas
B. Preoccupation with an observed flaw in physical appearance
C. Depressed mood and feeling of guilt (Correct Answer)
D. Fear of spiders and heights
E. Disorganized speech and delusions
Explanation: ***Depressed mood and feeling of guilt***
- Patients with **panic disorder** often develop secondary **depressive symptoms** due to the chronic stress, fear of attacks, and avoidance behaviors that significantly impair their quality of life.
- The recurrent, unpredictable nature of panic attacks and associated impairment in daily functioning can lead to feelings of **hopelessness, guilt**, and **anhedonia**.
*Abnormally elevated mood and flight of ideas*
- This constellation of symptoms is characteristic of a **manic episode** in **bipolar disorder**, which is not indicated by the patient's presentation of panic attacks.
- The patient's primary concern is anxiety and fear surrounding episodes, not elevated mood or racing thoughts.
*Preoccupation with an observed flaw in physical appearance*
- This is a core feature of **body dysmorphic disorder**, where individuals are excessively preoccupied with perceived defects in their physical appearance.
- The patient's symptoms are focused on acute physical and psychological distress (palpitations, chest pain, fear of losing control), not appearance.
*Fear of spiders and heights*
- These are examples of **specific phobias** (arachnophobia and acrophobia, respectively).
- While panic attacks can occur in the context of specific phobias, the patient's attacks are recurrent, unexpected, and not tied to specific objects or situations like spiders or heights.
*Disorganized speech and delusions*
- These are prominent symptoms of **psychotic disorders** such as **schizophrenia**.
- The patient's presentation involves acute anxiety symptoms and fear of losing control, without evidence of thought disorder or delusions.
Question 62: An 18-year-old female presents to general medical clinic with the report of a rape on her college campus. The patient was visiting a local fraternity, and after having a few drinks, awakened to find another student having intercourse with her. Aside from the risk of unintended pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections, this patient is also at higher risk of developing which of the following?
A. Schizoaffective Disorder
B. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
C. Suicidality (Correct Answer)
D. Bipolar Disorder
E. Schizophrenia
Explanation: ***Suicidality***
- Trauma survivors, especially those who have experienced sexual assault, are at a significantly **higher risk for developing suicidal ideation and attempting suicide**. This risk is amplified due to the psychological distress, feelings of helplessness, guilt, and shame often associated with such traumatic events.
- The emotional impact of rape can lead to severe **depression, anxiety, and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)**, all of which are strong risk factors for suicidality.
*Schizoaffective Disorder*
- This is a chronic mental health condition characterized by a combination of **schizophrenia symptoms, such as hallucinations or delusions, and mood disorder symptoms, such as mania or depression**.
- While trauma can exacerbate existing mental health conditions, there is no direct causal link between a single traumatic event like rape and the development of schizoaffective disorder.
*Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder*
- ADHD is a **neurodevelopmental disorder** typically diagnosed in childhood, characterized by inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity.
- It is not caused by traumatic events in adulthood; its onset is usually in early development.
*Bipolar Disorder*
- Bipolar disorder is a **mood disorder** characterized by significant mood swings, including episodes of mania or hypomania and depression.
- While stress and trauma can sometimes trigger episodes in individuals predisposed to bipolar disorder, rape itself is not a direct cause of developing the disorder.
*Schizophrenia*
- Schizophrenia is a **chronic psychotic disorder** characterized by significant thought disturbances, hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized behavior.
- The onset of schizophrenia is often in late adolescence or early adulthood, but it is primarily a **neurobiological disorder** and not directly caused by a single traumatic event like rape.
Question 63: A previously healthy 56-year-old woman comes to the family physician for a 1-month history of sleep disturbance and sadness. The symptoms have been occurring since her husband died in a car accident. Before eventually falling asleep, she stays awake for multiple hours and has crying spells. Several times she has been woken up by the sound of her husband calling her name. She has lost 3 kg (6.6 lb) over the past month. She has 3 children with whom she still keeps regular contact and regularly attends church services with her friends. She expresses feeling a great feeling of loss over the death of her husband. She has no suicidal ideation. She is alert and oriented. Neurological exam shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?
A. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
B. Acute stress disorder
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Normal bereavement (Correct Answer)
E. Schizoaffective disorder
Explanation: ***Normal bereavement***
- The patient's symptoms (sleep disturbance, sadness, weight loss, crying spells, auditory hallucinations of a loved one) are all **common and expected responses to the death of a loved one** within a short timeframe (1 month).
- Her continued social engagement and lack of suicidal ideation suggest that her grief, while intense, is within the range of **normal bereavement**, especially given the recent and traumatic loss.
*Adjustment disorder with depressed mood*
- This diagnosis is considered when symptoms in response to a stressor are **clinically significant** but do not meet criteria for a major depressive episode and cause significant impairment.
- However, in this case, the symptoms are directly related to the death of her husband, making **bereavement a more specific and appropriate diagnosis** if the symptoms are within normal grief.
*Acute stress disorder*
- This disorder typically involves exposure to actual or threatened **death, serious injury, or sexual violence**, followed by intrusive symptoms, negative mood, dissociation, avoidance, and arousal symptoms, and lasts from 3 days to 1 month.
- While there is a significant stressor (husband's death), her symptoms are more indicative of **grief and loss** rather than the specific dissociative, avoidance, and arousal symptom clusters required for acute stress disorder.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While some symptoms overlap (depressed mood, sleep disturbance, weight loss), several factors argue against MDD, such as the direct and recent link to a **major loss**, her **intact social functioning**, and the **absence of suicidal ideation** or pervasive anhedonia beyond grief.
- The **auditory hallucinations of her husband's voice** are also common in normal bereavement, especially shortly after a loss, and do not necessarily indicate a psychotic disorder or MDD with psychotic features in this context.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- This diagnosis requires a **period of illness during which a major mood episode is present concurrently with Criterion A of schizophrenia** (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, negative symptoms) and delusions or hallucinations for 2 or more weeks in the absence of a major mood episode.
- The patient's isolated auditory hallucination, occurring in the context of profound grief, does not meet the extensive criteria for schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder, and there are **no other psychotic symptoms** or a history of such.
Question 64: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2 month history of difficulty sleeping and worsening fatigue. During this time, he has also had difficulty concentrating and remembering tasks at work as well as diminished interest in his hobbies. He has no suicidal or homicidal ideation. He does not have auditory or visual hallucinations. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and flat affect with slowed thinking and speech. The physician prescribes sertraline. Three weeks later, the patient comes to the physician again with only minor improvements in his symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Augment with aripiprazole and continue sertraline
B. Provide electroconvulsive therapy
C. Continue sertraline for 3 more weeks (Correct Answer)
D. Change medication to duloxetine
E. Augment with phenelzine and continue sertraline
Explanation: ***Continue sertraline for 3 more weeks***
- Antidepressants like **sertraline** typically require **4 to 6 weeks** to reach their full therapeutic effect.
- Since only three weeks have passed with minor improvements, the patient should continue the medication to allow time for the drug to work fully.
*Augment with aripiprazole and continue sertraline*
- **Augmentation** with an atypical antipsychotic like aripiprazole is considered if there is **no significant improvement after an adequate trial** (at least 6-8 weeks) of antidepressant monotherapy.
- It is too early to consider augmentation as the patient has not completed a sufficient trial of sertraline.
*Provide electroconvulsive therapy*
- **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is reserved for **severe, treatment-resistant depression**, depression with psychotic features, or when rapid response is required (e.g., severe suicidality).
- The patient's symptoms, while bothersome, do not meet criteria for severe, treatment-resistant depression or acute emergencies warranting ECT.
*Change medication to duloxetine*
- Changing antidepressants is usually considered if there is **minimal or no response** after an adequate trial of the initial medication.
- Switching medications before allowing sufficient time for the current treatment to work is premature and may delay effective treatment.
*Augment with phenelzine and continue sertraline*
- **Phenelzine** is a **monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)**, and using it in combination with an **SSRI like sertraline** is contraindicated due to the risk of **serotonin syndrome**.
- MAOIs are generally reserved for **refractory depression** due to their dietary restrictions and potential for severe drug interactions.
Question 65: A 27-year old gentleman presents to the primary care physician with the chief complaint of "feeling down" for the last 6 weeks. He describes trouble falling asleep at night, decreased appetite, and recent feelings of intense guilt regarding the state of his personal relationships. He says that everything "feels slower" than it used to. He endorses having a similar four-week period of feeling this way last year. He denies thoughts of self-harm or harm of others. He also denies racing thoughts or delusions of grandeur. Which of the following would be an INAPPROPRIATE first line treatment for him?
A. Paroxetine
B. Electroconvulsive therapy (Correct Answer)
C. Citalopram
D. Psychotherapy
E. Sertraline
Explanation: ***Electroconvulsive therapy***
- This is generally reserved for **severe depression** that is unresponsive to other treatments or for depression with **psychotic features**, severe suicidality, or catatonia.
- Given the patient's presentation, **ECT** would be an overly aggressive **first-line** treatment choice.
*Paroxetine*
- **Paroxetine** is a **SSRI** and is considered a **first-line antidepressant** for major depressive disorder.
- It works by increasing serotonin levels in the brain to improve mood.
*Citalopram*
- **Citalopram** is an **SSRI** and is also a **first-line treatment option** for major depressive disorder, often well-tolerated.
- It helps regulate mood and alleviate symptoms like those described by the patient.
*Psychotherapy*
- **Psychotherapy**, particularly **cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)** or **interpersonal therapy (IPT)**, is often a **first-line treatment**, either alone or in combination with medication, for depression.
- It can help the patient address negative thought patterns and coping mechanisms.
*Sertraline*
- **Sertraline** is another **SSRI** commonly used as a **first-line agent** for major depressive disorder due to its efficacy and relatively favorable side-effect profile.
- It helps to improve symptoms such as low mood, sleep disturbances, and decreased appetite.
Question 66: A 38-year-old man presents with fatigue and weight loss for the past 4 months. He feels tired all the time. He also no longer feels interested in his work. He says he has lost weight and says, "I just don’t want to eat." No significant past medical history. No current medications. Physical examination is unremarkable. The patient is started on sertraline. He returns for follow-up after 2 weeks and says that he has been compliant with his medications. He says that he is now getting a full night’s sleep with no early morning awakenings. Despite regaining his appetite, he hasn’t regained any lost weight, and he still feels fatigued. He believes that the medication is not working well and asks to be started on something else. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Add amitriptyline to sertraline
B. Replace sertraline with fluoxetine
C. Continue sertraline (Correct Answer)
D. Add fluoxetine to sertraline
E. Discontinue sertraline
Explanation: ***Continue sertraline***
- **Antidepressants**, especially SSRIs like sertraline, typically take **4-6 weeks** to reach their full therapeutic effect. The patient has only been on the medication for 2 weeks.
- The patient has shown **significant improvement** in sleep and appetite, indicating the medication is starting to work. **Weight gain** often lags behind other symptomatic improvements.
*Add amitriptyline to sertraline*
- Adding a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** like amitriptyline to an SSRI is generally reserved for **treatment-resistant depression** after an adequate trial of monotherapy or augmentation with a non-TCA agent.
- This combination also increases the risk of **serotonin syndrome** due to synergistic serotonergic effects.
*Replace sertraline with fluoxetine*
- Switching to another SSRI after only 2 weeks is **premature**, especially when there are signs of improvement.
- There is no clinical indication that sertraline is ineffective at this stage; **insufficient time** has passed to assess its full efficacy.
*Add fluoxetine to sertraline*
- Combining two SSRIs is generally **not recommended** as it significantly increases the risk of **serotonin syndrome** without a clear benefit over monotherapy or augmentation with a different class of medication.
- This approach does not follow standard treatment guidelines for initial management of depression.
*Discontinue sertraline*
- Discontinuing the medication after only 2 weeks, especially when there are signs of **partial response** (improved sleep, appetite), is inappropriate.
- This could lead to a **resurgence of symptoms** and an incorrect conclusion that the medication was ineffective.
Question 67: A 54-year-old man presents with feelings of sadness and low mood on most days of the week for the past month. He reports an inability to concentrate and also finds it hard to develop an interest in his daily activities. He goes on to tell his physician that he struggles to get sleep at night, and, in the morning, he doesn’t have the energy to get out of bed. He says he feels like a loser since he hasn’t accomplished all that he had set out to do and feels guilty for being unable to provide for his family. He says he doesn’t have the will to live anymore but denies any plans to commit suicide. Past medical history is significant for erectile dysfunction which was diagnosed about a year ago. Which of the following medications should be avoided in the treatment of this patient’s depression?
A. Vilazodone
B. Fluoxetine (Correct Answer)
C. Vortioxetine
D. Mirtazapine
E. Bupropion
Explanation: ***Fluoxetine***
- Fluoxetine, a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, is known to cause or worsen sexual dysfunction, which is already a concern for this patient given his history of **erectile dysfunction**.
- While effective for depression, the potential to exacerbate a pre-existing condition makes it a less favorable choice in this specific clinical scenario.
*Vilazodone*
- Vilazodone is a **serotonin partial agonist/reuptake inhibitor (SPARI)** that generally has a **lower incidence of sexual side effects** compared to traditional SSRIs.
- This characteristic makes it a potentially more suitable option for a patient with pre-existing erectile dysfunction.
*Vortioxetine*
- Vortioxetine is a **multimodal antidepressant** that also tends to have a **lower impact on sexual function** compared to many other antidepressants.
- Its mechanism of action, involving serotonin reuptake inhibition and modulation of various serotonin receptors, contributes to its generally favorable sexual side effect profile.
*Mirtazapine*
- Mirtazapine is an **agonist at presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors** and also blocks 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors. Unlike SSRIs, it is often associated with a **lower risk of sexual dysfunction**.
- Additionally, its **sedating properties** could be beneficial for this patient who is struggling with sleep, making it a potentially good choice.
*Bupropion*
- Bupropion is a **norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI)** and is known to have a **minimal impact on sexual function**, often being chosen for patients who experience sexual side effects with other antidepressants.
- It also has an **activating effect** which could help with the patient's low energy and lack of motivation.
Question 68: A 17-year-old boy is being seen by student health for a sports physical. He denies any recent injuries. He reports that he is doing well in his classes. He fractured his left collar bone 3 years ago, which required open reduction and internal fixation. He has not had any other surgeries. He takes no medications. His father and his paternal grandfather have hypertension. When asked about his mother, the patient tears up and he quickly begins talking about how excited he is for baseball tryouts. He has a chance this year to be in the starting lineup if, "I just stay focused." From previous records, the patient's mother died of ovarian cancer 6 months ago. Which of the following defense mechanisms is the patient exhibiting?
A. Displacement
B. Denial
C. Rationalization
D. Repression
E. Suppression (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Suppression***
- The patient consciously avoids thinking about his mother's death by **deliberately redirecting his thoughts** to baseball tryouts.
- He is aware of the grief but chooses to **postpone acknowledging** it openly.
*Displacement*
- Involves **redirecting emotions** (often anger or frustration) from the original source to a less threatening target.
- The patient isn't expressing his grief towards an unrelated object or person; he's avoiding the grief itself.
*Denial*
- Characterized by a **refusal to accept reality** or a painful fact as if it doesn't exist.
- The patient here shows awareness of his mother's death (tearing up) rather than outright denying its occurrence.
*Rationalization*
- Involves **creating logical-sounding excuses** or justifications for unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or behaviors.
- The patient isn't making excuses; he's actively, though consciously, avoiding the painful emotional topic.
*Repression*
- An **unconscious mechanism** where unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or memories are blocked from conscious awareness.
- Repression is an involuntary process, whereas the patient's shift to baseball is a conscious effort to avoid the topic.
Question 69: A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of sadness that started 3 weeks after her daughter was born. Her daughter is now 9 months old and usually sleeps through the night, but the patient still has difficulty staying asleep. She has not returned to work since the birth. She is easily distracted from normal daily tasks. She used to enjoy cooking, but only orders delivery or take-out now. She says that she always feels too exhausted to do so and does not feel hungry much anyway. The pregnancy of the patient's child was complicated by gestational diabetes. The child was born at 36-weeks' gestation and has had no medical issues. The patient has no contact with the child's father. She is not sexually active. She does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. She is 157 cm (5 ft 1 in) tall and weighs 47 kg (105 lb); BMI is 20 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. She is alert and cooperative but makes little eye contact. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adjustment disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Normal behavior
D. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
E. Depression with peripartum-onset (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Depression with peripartum-onset***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **major depressive disorder**, including **anhedonia** (loss of enjoyment in cooking), **fatigue**, **insomnia**, and **changes in appetite/weight**, all appearing within 3 weeks post-childbirth and persisting for 9 months.
- According to **DSM-5-TR**, the **peripartum onset specifier** is applied when a major depressive episode begins during pregnancy or **within 4 weeks after delivery**.
- This patient's symptoms began at 3 weeks postpartum, meeting criteria for the peripartum onset specifier, which is clinically important for risk assessment (including infanticide risk) and treatment planning.
- The severity and duration of symptoms (persistent anhedonia, significant fatigue, insomnia despite adequate opportunity for sleep, appetite changes, functional impairment lasting months) clearly meet criteria for a **major depressive episode**.
*Adjustment disorder*
- This diagnosis involves emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor that do **not meet criteria for a major depressive episode**.
- The severity, number, and duration of symptoms (anhedonia, significant fatigue, insomnia, appetite changes, functional impairment lasting 9 months) exceed what is seen in adjustment disorder and meet full criteria for **major depressive disorder**.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While this patient's symptoms fully meet criteria for **Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)**, the onset within 4 weeks postpartum requires the addition of the **"with peripartum onset" specifier** per DSM-5-TR.
- Using the peripartum onset specifier is essential for clinical management, as it alerts clinicians to specific risks (including thoughts of harming the infant) and may influence treatment selection (e.g., considerations for breastfeeding-compatible medications).
*Normal behavior*
- The patient's symptoms—including **persistent sadness lasting 9 months**, **anhedonia**, **insomnia despite adequate sleep opportunity**, **significant fatigue**, **appetite loss**, and **inability to return to work**—represent severe functional impairment.
- These symptoms far exceed normal postpartum adjustment or transient "baby blues" (which typically resolve within 2 weeks postpartum) and indicate a serious mood disorder requiring treatment.
*Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder*
- This disorder is diagnosed **only in children and adolescents aged 6-18 years** and is characterized by persistent irritability and frequent, severe temper outbursts disproportionate to the situation.
- It is **not applicable to adults** and does not describe this patient's presentation of persistent depressed mood and neurovegetative symptoms.
Question 70: A 22-year-old man comes to the physician because of generalized fatigue for the past 3 months. During this time, his grades have declined in his college courses because he has had difficulty focusing on assignments and sometimes sleeps in class. He no longer plays the drums for his band and has stopped attending family events. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 60/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, he describes his mood as “ok.” He has a flat affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. His speech is slow in rate and monotone in rhythm, and his thought process is organized. He has no delusions or hallucinations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
A. Diazepam therapy
B. Escitalopram therapy (Correct Answer)
C. Phenelzine therapy
D. Reassurance
E. Amitriptyline therapy
Explanation: ***Escitalopram therapy***
- The patient presents with symptoms consistent with **major depressive disorder**: generalized fatigue, anhedonia (stopped playing drums, attending family events), poor concentration, and hypersomnia (sleeping in class) for 3 months.
- An **SSRI like escitalopram** is a first-line pharmacotherapy for MDD, particularly given its good tolerability profile and effectiveness in addressing core depressive symptoms.
*Diazepam therapy*
- **Diazepam is a benzodiazepine**, primarily used for acute anxiety or insomnia, and can be habit-forming.
- It is not indicated as a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder due to its addictive potential and lack of efficacy for core depressive symptoms.
*Phenelzine therapy*
- **Phenelzine is a MAOI (monoamine oxidase inhibitor)**, which are older antidepressants typically reserved for atypical depression or treatment-resistant depression due to their significant side effects and dietary restrictions.
- It is not appropriate as a first-line agent, especially given safer and equally effective options like SSRIs.
*Reassurance*
- The patient's symptoms are significant, persistent for 3 months, and causing functional impairment (decline in grades, social withdrawal); therefore, **simple reassurance is insufficient** and would delay appropriate treatment.
- These symptoms warrant a more proactive and evidence-based therapeutic approach.
*Amitriptyline therapy*
- **Amitriptyline is a TCA (tricyclic antidepressant)**, which are generally associated with a higher incidence of side effects, such as anticholinergic effects, sedation, and cardiac conduction abnormalities, compared to SSRIs.
- While effective for depression, it is typically not a first-line treatment due to its less favorable side effect profile compared to SSRIs like escitalopram.