A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-year history of urinating up to 20 times each day. He has not had any dysuria and nocturia. He has been evaluated by several urologists but has not received a specific diagnosis despite extensive diagnostic testing. Various pharmacologic treatments have not improved his symptoms. He quit his job 1 year ago and stopped attending social events because his frequent urination has been disruptive. He spends most of his time at the library trying to learn what could be causing his symptoms. He would like to undergo a CT scan of his entire body to evaluate for cancer. Physical examination and laboratory studies show no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and constricted affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?
Q52
A 42-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because she cries frequently and refuses to get out of bed. Over the past 3 weeks, she has been feeling sad and tired most of the time. She has difficulty staying asleep at night and often wakes up early in the morning. After losing her job as a waitress 1 month ago, she has been feeling guilty for not contributing to the household income anymore. She would like to find a new position but is unable to decide “what to do with her life”. She was diagnosed with anorexia nervosa at age 18 and has gone to psychotherapy several times since then. Her weight had been stable for the past 5 years; however, within the past 3 weeks, she has had a 2.8-kg (6.2-lb) weight loss. She would like to regain some weight. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and currently weighs 47 kg (104 lb); BMI is 18.4 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.3°C (97.3°F), pulse is 58/min, and blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and flat affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following drugs is most likely to address both this patient's mood disorder and her desire to gain weight?
Q53
A 32-year-old woman presents to a psychiatrist to discuss a recent event in her life. At a social function 2 days back, she met a man who introduced himself as having worked with her at another private company 3 years ago. However, she did not recognize him. She also says that she does not remember working at any such company at any time during her life. However, the patient’s husband says that she had indeed worked at that company for three months and had quit due to her boss’s abusive behavior towards her. The man who met her at the function had actually been her colleague at that job. The woman asks the doctor, “How is it possible? I am really not able to recall any memories of having worked at any such company. What’s going on here?”. Her husband adds that after she quit the job, her mood frequently has been low. The patient denies any crying episodes, suicidal ideas, not enjoying recreational activities or feelings of worthlessness. Her appetite and sleep patterns are normal. She is otherwise a healthy woman with no significant medical history and lives a normal social and occupational life. The patient reports no history of smoking, alcohol, or substance use. On physical examination, she is alert and well-oriented to time, place and person. During memory testing, she correctly remembers the date of her marriage that took place 5 years back and the food she ate over the last 2 days. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q54
A previously healthy 14-year-old boy is brought to the physician for evaluation because of loss of appetite, sleeplessness, and extreme irritability for 3 weeks. He recently quit the school's football team after missing many practices. He has also been avoiding his family and friends because he is not in the mood to see them but admits that he is lonely. He has not left his room for 2 days, which prompted his father to bring him to the physician. He has no medical conditions and does not take any medications. He does not drink alcohol or use recreational drugs. While the father is in the waiting room, mental status examination is conducted, which shows a constricted affect. Cognition is intact. He says that he would be better off dead and refuses to be treated. He says he wants to use his father's licensed firearm to “end his misery” over the weekend when his parents are at church. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q55
A 60-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of altered mental status for 2 hours. She and her husband were at the grocery store when she suddenly could not remember why she was there or how she got there. She has not had any head trauma. She has a history of depression and migraines. She does not smoke and drinks a glass of wine each night with dinner. She takes fluoxetine daily. She appears distressed and anxious. Her vital signs are within normal limits. She is fully alert and oriented to self and place but not to time. Every few minutes she asks how she got to the emergency department. She is able to follow commands and sustain attention. She recalls 3/3 objects immediately and recalls 0/3 objects at 5 minutes. The remainder of the neurological exam shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q56
A 61-year-old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of fatigue and feeling sad. She reports that ever since her husband passed away 3 months ago, she has noticed a decrease in her energy level and reports frequently awaking at 2 in the morning and cannot fall back asleep. She sometimes wakes up and hears her husband's voice, constantly thinks about how much she misses him, and has recently thought about ways to kill herself including driving through a red light. She used to be an active member of her neighborhood’s bridge club but has stopped playing. She has lost 15 pounds and rarely feels hungry. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q57
A 37-year-old woman presents to her physician with a decreased interest in her daily activities. She says that she has noticed a decreased motivation to participate in her daily routine. She says she feels sad and depressed on most days of the week. She reports her symptoms have been there for about two months but have been more severe for the past 3 weeks. She also says she is unable to sleep well at night and feels tired most of the day, which is affecting her job performance. The patient reports a 10-pack-year smoking history which has increased in frequency lately and she would like to quit. Lately, she has observed an inability to reach orgasm during intercourse and has also lost all interest in sex. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Q58
A 31-year-old woman has a follow-up visit with her psychiatrist. She was recently diagnosed with major depressive disorder and was started on citalopram 3 months ago. Her dosage was increased one time 6 weeks ago. She has come in to discuss her progress and notes that she feels “normal again” and “happier” and has not experienced her usual feelings of depression, crying spells, or insomnia. Her appetite has also improved and she is performing better at work, stating that she has more focus and motivation to complete her assignments. During the beginning of her treatment, she states that she had occasional headaches and diarrhea, but that she no longer has those side effects. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
Q59
A 47-year-old man is referred to the outpatient psychiatry clinic for depressed mood. He was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer recently. Since then, he has not been able to go to work. Over the past several weeks, he has had significant unintentional weight loss and several bouts of epigastric pain. He lost his father to cancer when he was 10 years old. After a complete history and physical examination, the patient is diagnosed with major depressive disorder, provisional. Which of the following statements regarding this patient’s psychiatric condition is true?
Q60
An 18-year-old female visits your obstetrics clinic for her first prenatal checkup. It's her first month of pregnancy and other than morning sickness, she is feeling well. Upon inquiring about her past medical history, the patient admits that she used to be very fearful of weight gain and often used laxatives to lose weight. After getting therapy for this condition, she regained her normal body weight but continues to struggle with the disease occasionally. Given this history, how could her past condition affect the pregnancy?
Depression US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-year history of urinating up to 20 times each day. He has not had any dysuria and nocturia. He has been evaluated by several urologists but has not received a specific diagnosis despite extensive diagnostic testing. Various pharmacologic treatments have not improved his symptoms. He quit his job 1 year ago and stopped attending social events because his frequent urination has been disruptive. He spends most of his time at the library trying to learn what could be causing his symptoms. He would like to undergo a CT scan of his entire body to evaluate for cancer. Physical examination and laboratory studies show no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and constricted affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?
A. Recurrent urinary tract infections
B. Adjustment disorder
C. Somatic symptom disorder (Correct Answer)
D. Malingering
E. Atypical depression
Explanation: ***Somatic symptom disorder***
- The patient's persistent, disabling urinary symptoms lack a medical explanation despite extensive workup and various treatments, fulfilling criterion A for **somatic symptom disorder**.
- His excessive preoccupation with the symptom (spending time at the library researching causes, repeated evaluations, requesting a full-body CT scan) and the significant impairment in social and occupational functioning align with criterion B for the disorder.
*Recurrent urinary tract infections*
- The patient reports no **dysuria**, and all physical examination and laboratory studies are normal, making recurrent UTIs unlikely.
- Frequent urination in UTIs is typically accompanied by other symptoms like dysuria, urgency, and sometimes hematuria.
*Adjustment disorder*
- Adjustment disorder is characterized by emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor, usually resolving within 6 months of stressor cessation.
- While the patient has a **depressed mood**, the core issue isn't a reaction to a specific stressor but rather the chronic preoccupation with unexplained physical symptoms.
*Malingering*
- **Malingering** involves the intentional production of false or exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms, motivated by external incentives (e.g., financial gain, avoiding work).
- There is no evidence in the vignette to suggest the patient is feigning symptoms for an external gain.
*Atypical depression*
- **Atypical depression** presents with mood reactivity, increased appetite/weight gain, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and interpersonal rejection sensitivity.
- While the patient has a depressed mood and constricted affect, the primary issue is the unexplained physical symptoms and the intense preoccupation with them, rather than a classic presentation of atypical depression.
Question 52: A 42-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because she cries frequently and refuses to get out of bed. Over the past 3 weeks, she has been feeling sad and tired most of the time. She has difficulty staying asleep at night and often wakes up early in the morning. After losing her job as a waitress 1 month ago, she has been feeling guilty for not contributing to the household income anymore. She would like to find a new position but is unable to decide “what to do with her life”. She was diagnosed with anorexia nervosa at age 18 and has gone to psychotherapy several times since then. Her weight had been stable for the past 5 years; however, within the past 3 weeks, she has had a 2.8-kg (6.2-lb) weight loss. She would like to regain some weight. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and currently weighs 47 kg (104 lb); BMI is 18.4 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.3°C (97.3°F), pulse is 58/min, and blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and flat affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following drugs is most likely to address both this patient's mood disorder and her desire to gain weight?
A. Phenelzine
B. Mirtazapine (Correct Answer)
C. Lithium
D. Olanzapine
E. Topiramate
Explanation: ***Mirtazapine***
- Mirtazapine is a **noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant (NaSSA)** that blocks α2-adrenergic autoreceptors, leading to increased release of norepinephrine and serotonin. It also acts as a potent antagonist of histamine H1 receptors, which contributes to its **sedative effects** (beneficial for sleep difficulties) and its common side effect of **increased appetite and weight gain**.
- Given the patient's **depressed mood, sleep disturbances, and desire to gain weight** (BMI 18.4 kg/m2 with recent weight loss), mirtazapine is an excellent choice as it addresses both her depressive symptoms and her anhedonia, while also promoting weight gain and aiding with insomnia.
*Phenelzine*
- Phenelzine is a **monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)**, a class of antidepressants typically reserved for **refractory depression** due to its significant drug-drug and drug-food interactions (e.g., tyramine crisis).
- While it can treat depression, it is not a first-line agent, and its side effect profile does not specifically promote weight gain as a primary benefit in this context.
*Lithium*
- Lithium is primarily used as a **mood stabilizer** for bipolar disorder, not as an antidepressant for unipolar depression, although it can augment antidepressant treatment.
- While weight gain can be a side effect of lithium, its primary indication and other side effects (e.g., nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, hypothyroidism) make it an inappropriate first-line choice for this patient's presentation.
*Olanzapine*
- Olanzapine is an **atypical antipsychotic** used for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, and sometimes as an adjunct in severe depression, particularly with psychotic features.
- While it can cause significant weight gain, its primary indications and potential metabolic side effects (e.g., hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia) make it an unsuitable first-line treatment for depression with simple weight loss unless psychotic features are present, which this patient does not have.
*Topiramate*
- Topiramate is an **anticonvulsant** used for epilepsy, migraine prevention, and sometimes off-label for weight loss.
- It is known for causing **weight loss and anorexia**, making it contraindicated for a patient who desires to gain weight and has a history of anorexia nervosa.
Question 53: A 32-year-old woman presents to a psychiatrist to discuss a recent event in her life. At a social function 2 days back, she met a man who introduced himself as having worked with her at another private company 3 years ago. However, she did not recognize him. She also says that she does not remember working at any such company at any time during her life. However, the patient’s husband says that she had indeed worked at that company for three months and had quit due to her boss’s abusive behavior towards her. The man who met her at the function had actually been her colleague at that job. The woman asks the doctor, “How is it possible? I am really not able to recall any memories of having worked at any such company. What’s going on here?”. Her husband adds that after she quit the job, her mood frequently has been low. The patient denies any crying episodes, suicidal ideas, not enjoying recreational activities or feelings of worthlessness. Her appetite and sleep patterns are normal. She is otherwise a healthy woman with no significant medical history and lives a normal social and occupational life. The patient reports no history of smoking, alcohol, or substance use. On physical examination, she is alert and well-oriented to time, place and person. During memory testing, she correctly remembers the date of her marriage that took place 5 years back and the food she ate over the last 2 days. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Dissociative fugue
B. Transient global amnesia
C. Pseudodementia
D. Dissociative identity disorder
E. Dissociative amnesia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dissociative amnesia***
- This condition is characterized by an inability to recall important **autobiographical information**, usually of a **traumatic or stressful nature**, which is inconsistent with ordinary forgetting. The patient's inability to remember a stressful past job event, confirmed by her husband, fits this description.
- The absence of other memory or cognitive deficits (e.g., remembering marriage date, recent meals, normal orientation) and lack of other defining features for other dissociative or amnestic disorders makes dissociative amnesia the most likely diagnosis.
*Dissociative fugue*
- Dissociative fugue involves sudden, unexpected travel away from home or one’s usual daily activities, along with **amnesia for identity** or other important autobiographical information. The patient in this case denies any such travel or confusion about her identity.
- While it includes amnesia, the key distinguishing feature of fugue, such as wandering or bewildered behavior, is absent in this patient.
*Transient global amnesia*
- This condition is characterized by a sudden onset of **anterograde amnesia** (inability to form new memories) and sometimes retrograde amnesia for recent events, typically lasting hours. It is often preceded by physical or emotional stress, but the patient usually recovers within 24 hours.
- The patient's amnesia is specific to a past stressful event and not for current or recent events, and her memory loss extends beyond a few hours, which differentiates it from transient global amnesia.
*Pseudodementia*
- Pseudodementia is a term used to describe cognitive impairment, particularly memory loss, that is caused by **depression** and not by a neurodegenerative process. The patient's husband mentions low mood, but she denies other significant depressive symptoms like anhedonia, suicidal ideation, or vegetative symptoms.
- While there is a mention of low mood, the specific and circumscribed nature of her memory loss to a particular stressful event, without other widespread cognitive deficits or a clear major depressive episode, makes this less likely.
*Dissociative identity disorder*
- Dissociative identity disorder (formerly multiple personality disorder) involves the presence of **two or more distinct personality states** or an experience of possession, along with recurrent gaps in the recall of everyday events, important personal information, and/or traumatic events.
- This patient does not exhibit any signs of distinct personality states or possession, which is a hallmark feature of dissociative identity disorder.
Question 54: A previously healthy 14-year-old boy is brought to the physician for evaluation because of loss of appetite, sleeplessness, and extreme irritability for 3 weeks. He recently quit the school's football team after missing many practices. He has also been avoiding his family and friends because he is not in the mood to see them but admits that he is lonely. He has not left his room for 2 days, which prompted his father to bring him to the physician. He has no medical conditions and does not take any medications. He does not drink alcohol or use recreational drugs. While the father is in the waiting room, mental status examination is conducted, which shows a constricted affect. Cognition is intact. He says that he would be better off dead and refuses to be treated. He says he wants to use his father's licensed firearm to “end his misery” over the weekend when his parents are at church. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Start outpatient psychotherapy
B. Reassure the patient that he will feel better
C. Involuntary hospitalization after informing the parents (Correct Answer)
D. Begin paroxetine therapy
E. Agree to his wish for no further treatment
Explanation: ***Involuntary hospitalization after informing the parents***
- The patient expresses a clear **intent to die** by suicide ("better off dead," "want to use his father's licensed firearm to end his misery") and has a **plan** with specific means and timing ("over the weekend when his parents are at church"). This constitutes an imminent danger to himself, warranting **involuntary hospitalization** for safety.
- As a minor, his parents must be informed and involved in the decision regarding his hospitalization, which is necessary to prevent him from acting on his suicidal ideations.
*Start outpatient psychotherapy*
- Outpatient psychotherapy is **insufficient** given the patient's immediate and high risk of suicide.
- The patient clearly states he is not in the mood to see friends and family, indicating a lack of motivation for treatment and a high risk of non-compliance with outpatient care.
*Reassure the patient that he will feel better*
- Reassurance alone is **inappropriate** and **ineffective** for a patient with severe depression and active suicidal ideation with a plan.
- This approach fails to address the immediate safety concerns and the underlying mental health crisis.
*Begin paroxetine therapy*
- While an antidepressant like paroxetine may be part of eventual treatment for depression, it is **not the immediate next step** in a patient with acute suicidal intent.
- Antidepressants take several weeks to become effective, and during the initial phase, there can be an increased risk of suicidality in adolescents.
*Agree to his wish for no further treatment*
- Agreeing to his wish would be a **gross medical and ethical negligence** given his expressed suicidal intent and plan.
- A healthcare provider has a duty to protect patients from harm, especially minors who are not in a position to make sound decisions regarding their own safety due to mental illness.
Question 55: A 60-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of altered mental status for 2 hours. She and her husband were at the grocery store when she suddenly could not remember why she was there or how she got there. She has not had any head trauma. She has a history of depression and migraines. She does not smoke and drinks a glass of wine each night with dinner. She takes fluoxetine daily. She appears distressed and anxious. Her vital signs are within normal limits. She is fully alert and oriented to self and place but not to time. Every few minutes she asks how she got to the emergency department. She is able to follow commands and sustain attention. She recalls 3/3 objects immediately and recalls 0/3 objects at 5 minutes. The remainder of the neurological exam shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dissociative amnesia
B. Migraine
C. Seizure
D. Transient global amnesia (Correct Answer)
E. Depersonalization/derealization disorder
Explanation: ***Transient global amnesia***
- The sudden onset of **anterograde amnesia** (inability to form new memories after the event) and **retrograde amnesia** (inability to recall events before the attack) with preserved consciousness and other neurological functions is characteristic.
- This condition is typically short-lived, with full recovery of memory within **24 hours**, although patients may have a residual gap in their memory of the event itself.
*Dissociative amnesia*
- This involves an inability to recall important **personal information**, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature, that is inconsistent with ordinary forgetting.
- It is often preceded by severe **psychological stress** and does not typically involve the repetitive questioning seen in the patient.
*Migraine*
- While the patient has a history of migraines, a typical migraine attack primarily involves a **headache**, often with an aura, and does not usually present with isolated acute amnesia.
- **Amnestic migraine** is rare and usually associated with other migraine features, which are not described here.
*Seizure*
- Absence or complex partial seizures can cause periods of **altered consciousness** and unresponsiveness, but patients typically do not continuously ask the same questions or maintain full interaction as described.
- Post-ictal confusion generally resolves more quickly or has different features compared to the repetitive questioning observed.
*Depersonalization/derealization disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by persistent or recurrent feelings of being **detached from one's mental processes or body** (depersonalization) or from one's surroundings (derealization).
- It would not typically present as an acute, sudden onset of memory loss and repetitive questioning about one's location or recent events.
Question 56: A 61-year-old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of fatigue and feeling sad. She reports that ever since her husband passed away 3 months ago, she has noticed a decrease in her energy level and reports frequently awaking at 2 in the morning and cannot fall back asleep. She sometimes wakes up and hears her husband's voice, constantly thinks about how much she misses him, and has recently thought about ways to kill herself including driving through a red light. She used to be an active member of her neighborhood’s bridge club but has stopped playing. She has lost 15 pounds and rarely feels hungry. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Bipolar II disorder
B. Acute grief
C. Persistent depressive disorder
D. Schizoaffective disorder
E. Major depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder***
- The patient presents with **multiple symptoms of depression** (fatigue, sadness, anhedonia, insomnia, appetite loss, weight loss) that meet DSM-5 criteria for a major depressive episode, including **suicidal ideation** with a specific plan.
- Although triggered by bereavement, the **severity** (15-pound weight loss, complete withdrawal from activities, active suicidal ideation) and **duration** (3 months) indicate a major depressive episode rather than uncomplicated grief.
- The auditory hallucination (hearing husband's voice) in the context of severe depression with multiple vegetative symptoms constitutes **MDD with psychotic features**.
- DSM-5 allows diagnosis of MDD during bereavement when symptoms are severe, persistent, and include features like **psychotic symptoms** or **active suicidal ideation**.
*Bipolar II disorder*
- This disorder requires documented episodes of **hypomania** (elevated mood, increased energy, decreased need for sleep) in addition to depressive episodes.
- While the patient experiences severe depressive symptoms, there is **no history of hypomanic episodes**, making bipolar II disorder unlikely.
*Acute grief*
- Acute grief is a normal response to loss and can include sadness, preoccupation with the deceased, and even brief hallucinations of hearing or seeing the deceased.
- However, uncomplicated grief typically does **not** include persistent severe vegetative symptoms (15-pound weight loss, early morning awakening), complete **anhedonia** with functional impairment, or active **suicidal ideation with a plan**.
- The **severity and constellation** of symptoms (particularly suicidal planning and marked functional impairment) exceed normal grief and indicate MDD.
*Persistent depressive disorder*
- This disorder (dysthymia) involves chronic depressed mood for **at least two years** with less severe symptoms than MDD.
- This patient's symptoms have been present for only **3 months** and are **too severe** (psychotic features, active suicidal ideation, significant weight loss) for persistent depressive disorder.
- The acute onset following bereavement and severity of symptoms align with MDD rather than the chronic, lower-grade depression of persistent depressive disorder.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- This disorder requires **psychotic symptoms** (hallucinations or delusions) present for at least two weeks **in the absence of a major mood episode**.
- In this patient, the hallucination occurs **exclusively within the context** of a severe depressive episode, which is characteristic of **MDD with psychotic features**, not schizoaffective disorder.
- There is no evidence of psychotic symptoms occurring independently of mood symptoms.
Question 57: A 37-year-old woman presents to her physician with a decreased interest in her daily activities. She says that she has noticed a decreased motivation to participate in her daily routine. She says she feels sad and depressed on most days of the week. She reports her symptoms have been there for about two months but have been more severe for the past 3 weeks. She also says she is unable to sleep well at night and feels tired most of the day, which is affecting her job performance. The patient reports a 10-pack-year smoking history which has increased in frequency lately and she would like to quit. Lately, she has observed an inability to reach orgasm during intercourse and has also lost all interest in sex. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Venlafaxine
C. Bupropion (Correct Answer)
D. Mirtazapine
E. Trazodone
Explanation: ***Bupropion***
- **Bupropion** is an antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of **norepinephrine and dopamine**, making it effective for depression with symptoms like **fatigue, low motivation, and anhedonia**.
- It has a lower risk of **sexual dysfunction** compared to SSRIs/SNRIs and can aid in **smoking cessation**, which addresses two of the patient's major concerns.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine**, an **SSRI**, is a first-line treatment for depression, but it often causes or worsens **sexual dysfunction**, which is already a significant complaint for this patient.
- While effective for depression, it does not offer the additional benefit of aiding in **smoking cessation** that bupropion provides.
*Venlafaxine*
- **Venlafaxine**, an **SNRI**, is effective for depression, but like SSRIs, it can cause or exacerbate **sexual dysfunction**, which the patient is already experiencing.
- It does not have a distinct advantage for **smoking cessation** or minimizing sexual side effects in this presentation.
*Mirtazapine*
- **Mirtazapine** is an antidepressant that primarily works by enhancing noradrenergic and serotonergic neurotransmission; it is associated with side effects like **sedation** and **weight gain**.
- While it has a lower incidence of **sexual side effects** than SSRIs/SNRIs, it does not provide the additional benefit of **smoking cessation** support, and its sedating effects might worsen her daytime tiredness.
*Trazodone*
- **Trazodone** is primarily used off-label for **insomnia** due to its sedating effects and is generally not a first-line agent for major depressive disorder when symptoms like fatigue and anhedonia are prominent.
- While it has a low risk of sexual dysfunction, it doesn't address the patient's need for **smoking cessation** support and might worsen daytime fatigue.
Question 58: A 31-year-old woman has a follow-up visit with her psychiatrist. She was recently diagnosed with major depressive disorder and was started on citalopram 3 months ago. Her dosage was increased one time 6 weeks ago. She has come in to discuss her progress and notes that she feels “normal again” and “happier” and has not experienced her usual feelings of depression, crying spells, or insomnia. Her appetite has also improved and she is performing better at work, stating that she has more focus and motivation to complete her assignments. During the beginning of her treatment, she states that she had occasional headaches and diarrhea, but that she no longer has those side effects. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
A. Maintain the current dose of citalopram for several months (Correct Answer)
B. Lower the dose of citalopram
C. Discontinue the citalopram
D. Discontinue the citalopram and switch to amitriptyline
E. Increase the dose of citalopram
Explanation: ***Maintain the current dose of citalopram for several months***
- The patient has achieved **full remission** of her depressive symptoms and is tolerating the medication well, indicating the current dose is effective.
- For a first episode of major depressive disorder, continuing antidepressant treatment for **6-12 months** after achieving remission is recommended to prevent relapse.
*Lower the dose of citalopram*
- Lowering the dose prematurely could increase the risk of **relapse** given that the patient has only recently achieved remission and the standard duration of maintenance treatment has not been met.
- While side effects can sometimes warrant dose reduction, this patient is **no longer experiencing side effects** and is tolerating the current dose well.
*Discontinue the citalopram*
- Discontinuing the medication at this stage would significantly increase the risk of **relapse** within a short period, as the brain has not had sufficient time to stabilize.
- The recommended duration for maintenance treatment after remission of a first depressive episode is typically **6-12 months**, which this patient has not yet completed.
*Discontinue the citalopram and switch to amitriptyline*
- This is inappropriate because the patient is responding very well to citalopram, experiencing **full remission** and good tolerability.
- Switching to another antidepressant like **amitriptyline** (a tricyclic antidepressant) would expose her to potential new side effects and risks, including a less favorable side effect profile compared to SSRIs.
*Increase the dose of citalopram*
- The patient has reached **full remission** of her symptoms, indicating that the current dose is therapeutic and effective.
- Increasing the dose further would be unnecessary and could potentially introduce **new or worsened side effects** without providing additional clinical benefit.
Question 59: A 47-year-old man is referred to the outpatient psychiatry clinic for depressed mood. He was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer recently. Since then, he has not been able to go to work. Over the past several weeks, he has had significant unintentional weight loss and several bouts of epigastric pain. He lost his father to cancer when he was 10 years old. After a complete history and physical examination, the patient is diagnosed with major depressive disorder, provisional. Which of the following statements regarding this patient’s psychiatric condition is true?
A. This patient’s symptoms must have been present for at least 1 month.
B. This patient has preserved social and occupational functioning.
C. This patient may have pressured speech.
D. This patient must have anhedonia or depressed mood. (Correct Answer)
E. This patient may have a history of elated mood.
Explanation: ***This patient must have anhedonia or depressed mood.***
- According to the **DSM-5 criteria** for Major Depressive Disorder, at least one of the two core symptoms must be present: **depressed mood** or **anhedonia** (loss of interest or pleasure).
- The patient's presentation with "depressed mood" directly fulfills this essential diagnostic requirement.
*This patient’s symptoms must have been present for at least 1 month.*
- For a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, symptoms must be present for a minimum duration of **2 weeks**, not 1 month.
- The vignette states "over the past several weeks," which is consistent with the 2-week minimum, but not necessarily 1 month.
*This patient has preserved social and occupational functioning.*
- The patient **cannot go to work**, which indicates a significant impairment in **occupational functioning**.
- Major Depressive Disorder inherently involves clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.
*This patient may have pressured speech.*
- **Pressured speech** is characteristic of **mania or hypomania**, not major depressive disorder.
- In depression, speech is typically slowed, reduced in volume, or entirely absent in severe cases.
*This patient may have a history of elated mood.*
- A history of **elated mood**, particularly if involving manic or hypomanic episodes, would suggest a diagnosis of **bipolar disorder**, not major depressive disorder.
- The absence of such a history is crucial for maintaining a diagnosis of major depressive disorder.
Question 60: An 18-year-old female visits your obstetrics clinic for her first prenatal checkup. It's her first month of pregnancy and other than morning sickness, she is feeling well. Upon inquiring about her past medical history, the patient admits that she used to be very fearful of weight gain and often used laxatives to lose weight. After getting therapy for this condition, she regained her normal body weight but continues to struggle with the disease occasionally. Given this history, how could her past condition affect the pregnancy?
A. Bradycardia in newborn
B. Seizure for mother
C. Postpartum depression for mother (Correct Answer)
D. Down syndrome in newborn
E. Anemia in newborn
Explanation: ***Postpartum depression for mother***
- A history of **eating disorders** significantly increases the risk of **postpartum depression** and anxiety due to psychological vulnerabilities and potential nutritional deficiencies.
- The stress of pregnancy, childbirth, and motherhood can trigger a relapse or worsen existing psychiatric conditions, making **postpartum depression** a common complication.
*Bradycardia in newborn*
- **Bradycardia** in a newborn is typically associated with conditions like fetal distress during labor, congenital heart defects, or hypoxia, not directly with a mother's past eating disorder history.
- While an eating disorder can affect maternal health, it's not a primary direct cause of neonatal **bradycardia**.
*Seizure for mother*
- **Seizures** in pregnant women are commonly linked to severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, epilepsy, or other neurological conditions.
- A past history of eating disorders does not directly predispose a mother to **seizures** during pregnancy or postpartum unless accompanied by severe electrolyte imbalances, which are usually managed.
*Down syndrome in newborn*
- **Down syndrome** is a genetic condition caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21) and is primarily associated with advanced maternal age.
- There is no established causal link between a maternal history of **eating disorders** and the occurrence of **Down syndrome** in the newborn.
*Anemia in newborn*
- **Anemia** in a newborn can result from various factors such as maternal **anemia**, blood loss during delivery, or hemolytic disease.
- While maternal eating disorders can cause nutritional deficiencies, including maternal **anemia**, this does not directly result in **anemia** in the newborn unless those deficiencies are severe and uncorrected, or if other, more direct causes are present.