A previously healthy 36-year-old man is brought to the physician by a friend because of fatigue and a depressed mood for the past few weeks. During this time, he has not been going to work and did not show up to meet his friends for two bowling nights. The friend is concerned that he may lose his job. He spends most of his time alone at home watching television on the couch. He has been waking up often at night and sometimes takes 20 minutes to go back to sleep. He has also been drinking half a pint of whiskey per day for 1 week. His wife left him 4 weeks ago and moved out of their house. His vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place and time. He displays a flattened affect and says that he “doesn't know how he can live without his wife.” He denies suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the next appropriate step in management?
Q32
A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of intractable, 10/10 abdominal pain without nausea or vomiting. His CT is unremarkable, and other aspects of his history and physical examination suggest that his complaints may not be organic in etiology. His medical record is notable for previous ED visits with similar complaints that had resolved on one occasion with narcotic agents. A previous psychiatric evaluation reports a long history of migraines, depression, and characteristics of antisocial personality disorder. Which of the following best explains his abdominal symptoms?
Q33
A 28-year-old woman with a past medical history of fibromyalgia presents to her primary care provider for her annual well visit. She reports that her pain has become more severe over the last several weeks and is no longer well-controlled by NSAIDs. She notes that the pain is beginning to interfere with her sleep and that she feels she no longer has energy to take care of her 2-year-old son. Upon questioning, the patient also endorses feeling more down than usual recently, little interest in seeing friends, and difficulty concentrating on her work. She admits to feeling that she would be “better off dead.” The patient feels strongly that the worsening pain is driving these changes in her mood and that she would feel better if her pain was better controlled. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q34
A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of persistent sadness and difficulty concentrating for the past 6 weeks. During this period, he has also had difficulty sleeping. He adds that he has been “feeling down” most of the time since his girlfriend broke up with him 4 years ago. Since then, he has only had a few periods of time when he did not feel that way, but none of these lasted for more than a month. He reports having no problems with appetite, weight, or energy. He does not use illicit drugs or alcohol. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and constricted affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q35
A 17-year-old white female with a history of depression is brought to your office by her parents because they are concerned that she is acting differently. She is quiet and denies any changes in her personality or drug use. After the parents step out so that you can speak alone, she begins crying. She states that school has been very difficult and has been very depressed for the past 2 months. She feels a lot of pressure from her parents and coaches and says she cannot handle it anymore. She says that she has been cutting her wrists for the past week and is planning to commit suicide. She instantly regrets telling you and begs you not to tell her parents. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Q36
A 29-year-old man is being monitored at the hospital after cutting open his left wrist. He has a long-standing history of unipolar depressive disorder and multiple trials of antidepressants. The patient expresses thoughts of self-harm and does not deny suicidal intent. A course of electroconvulsive therapy is suggested. His medical history is not significant for other organic illness. Which of the following complications of this therapy is this patient at greatest risk for?
Q37
A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-week history of depressed mood, loss of interest, and difficulty sleeping. She also has had a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight loss during this period. She has not been as productive as before at work due to difficulty concentrating. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Laboratory studies including thyroid-stimulating hormone are within the reference range. The physician prescribes treatment with escitalopram. This drug targets a neurotransmitter that is produced in which of the following brain structures?
Q38
A 67-year-old female is brought to the emergency room by her son for unusual behavior. She moved into her son’s house three years ago after her husband passed away. The son reports that when he returned home from work earlier in the day, he found his mother minimally responsive. She regained consciousness soon after his arrival and did not recall the event. The son also reports that for the past two years, his mother has had trouble remembering names and addresses. She still goes shopping on her own and cooks regularly. Her past medical history is notable for major depressive disorder, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. She takes clomipramine, glyburide, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. She recently saw her primary care provider who adjusted some of her medication dosages. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. On examination, she is easily distractible with disorganized speech. She does not recognize her son and thinks that her intravenous line is a rope. She says she feels fine and would like to go home. Brain imaging would likely reveal which of the following?
Q39
A 48-year-old patient with congestive heart failure is brought into the emergency room after an attempted suicide. He was found by his daughter whom he lives with while trying to suffocate himself. He had recently moved in with his daughter after his house went into foreclosure. The daughter lives in a small two-bedroom apartment that was recently baby proofed for her daughter. She cares for him and tries to help him with all of his medical appointments and taking his medications on time. He is noted to still consume moderate amounts of alcohol. She is concerned her father might try this again because his aunt died from suicide. Which of the circumstances is protective for this patient?
Q40
A 52-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for her annual checkup. She lost her job 6 months ago and since then she has been feeling worthless because nobody wants to hire her. She also says that she is finding it difficult to concentrate, which is exacerbated by the fact that she has lost interest in activities that she used to love such as doing puzzles and working in the garden. She says that she is sleeping over 10 hours every day because she says it is difficult to find the energy to get up in the morning. She denies having any thoughts about suicide. Which of the following neurotransmitter profiles would most likely be seen in this patient?
Depression US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A previously healthy 36-year-old man is brought to the physician by a friend because of fatigue and a depressed mood for the past few weeks. During this time, he has not been going to work and did not show up to meet his friends for two bowling nights. The friend is concerned that he may lose his job. He spends most of his time alone at home watching television on the couch. He has been waking up often at night and sometimes takes 20 minutes to go back to sleep. He has also been drinking half a pint of whiskey per day for 1 week. His wife left him 4 weeks ago and moved out of their house. His vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place and time. He displays a flattened affect and says that he “doesn't know how he can live without his wife.” He denies suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the next appropriate step in management?
A. Prescribe a short course of alprazolam
B. Hospitalize the patient
C. Initiate cognitive behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
D. Initiate disulfiram therapy
E. Prescribe a short course of duloxetine
Explanation: ***Initiate cognitive behavioral therapy***
- The patient exhibits features of **adjustment disorder with depressed mood**, characterized by significant distress or impairment in functioning in response to an identifiable stressor (wife leaving).
- **Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)** is an effective first-line treatment for adjustment disorders, helping patients develop coping strategies and restructure negative thought patterns.
*Prescribe a short course of alprazolam*
- **Alprazolam**, a benzodiazepine, can provide temporary relief for anxiety but does not address the underlying issues of adjustment disorder and carries risks of **dependence** and withdrawal.
- It would be inappropriate as a sole initial treatment and could exacerbate his **alcohol use**.
*Hospitalize the patient*
- The patient denies **suicidal ideation** and does not present with acute psychosis or severe impairment that would warrant **hospitalization**.
- His orientation and ability to engage in conversation further suggest an outpatient approach is safe and appropriate.
*Initiate disulfiram therapy*
- **Disulfiram** is used for alcohol dependence to deter drinking, but the patient's current alcohol use is a recent development in response to stress, not necessarily full-blown **alcohol dependence** requiring disulfiram.
- Addressing the underlying **adjustment disorder** is the priority, which may in turn reduce his alcohol consumption.
*Prescribe a short course of duloxetine*
- **Duloxetine** is an antidepressant that is not indicated for **adjustment disorder** as a first-line treatment, especially given the short duration and clear precipitating factor.
- **Psychotherapy**, like CBT, is generally the preferred initial intervention for adjustment disorders.
Question 32: A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of intractable, 10/10 abdominal pain without nausea or vomiting. His CT is unremarkable, and other aspects of his history and physical examination suggest that his complaints may not be organic in etiology. His medical record is notable for previous ED visits with similar complaints that had resolved on one occasion with narcotic agents. A previous psychiatric evaluation reports a long history of migraines, depression, and characteristics of antisocial personality disorder. Which of the following best explains his abdominal symptoms?
A. Conversion disorder
B. Münchhausen syndrome
C. Malingering (Correct Answer)
D. Antisocial personality disorder
E. Opioid withdrawal
Explanation: ***Malingering***
- **Malingering** involves the intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms, motivated by external incentives like avoiding work, obtaining drugs (e.g., narcotics for pain), or financial compensation.
- The patient's history of previous ED visits for similar intractable pain, resolution with narcotics, and unremarkable CT scans, coupled with a psychiatric history consistent with characteristics of **antisocial personality disorder** (often associated with deceit and manipulation), strongly points to malingering.
*Conversion disorder*
- **Conversion disorder** involves neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness, seizures) that are incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions, and are not intentionally feigned.
- While it's a somatoform disorder, the key difference from malingering is the **lack of conscious intent** to deceive or manipulate for external gain; symptoms are not produced on purpose.
*Münchhausen syndrome*
- **Münchhausen syndrome** (now called Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self) is characterized by intentionally feigning or inducing illness to assume the sick role, without any obvious external rewards.
- The primary motivation is the **psychological gratification** of being a patient, receiving care and attention, which differs from this case's pursuit of narcotics.
*Antisocial personality disorder*
- **Antisocial personality disorder** is a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, often involving deceitfulness, impulsivity, and lack of remorse, and is a *risk factor* for malingering.
- While the patient exhibits characteristics of this disorder, it describes a personality type rather than directly explaining the abdominal symptoms themselves; rather, it often underlies the manipulative behaviors seen in malingering.
*Opioid withdrawal*
- **Opioid withdrawal** typically presents with symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, muscle aches, and dysphoria, which are distinct from the patient's chief complaint of isolated, severe abdominal pain without nausea or vomiting.
- While previous narcotic use is mentioned, the presentation doesn't fit the classic picture of withdrawal, especially with the absence of other common withdrawal symptoms and the primary focus on pain that resolves with narcotics (suggesting a desire for the drug's effects rather than alleviation of withdrawal).
Question 33: A 28-year-old woman with a past medical history of fibromyalgia presents to her primary care provider for her annual well visit. She reports that her pain has become more severe over the last several weeks and is no longer well-controlled by NSAIDs. She notes that the pain is beginning to interfere with her sleep and that she feels she no longer has energy to take care of her 2-year-old son. Upon questioning, the patient also endorses feeling more down than usual recently, little interest in seeing friends, and difficulty concentrating on her work. She admits to feeling that she would be “better off dead.” The patient feels strongly that the worsening pain is driving these changes in her mood and that she would feel better if her pain was better controlled. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Ask the patient if she has an idea about how she might hurt herself (Correct Answer)
B. Initiate pharmacotherapy with duloxetine and refer for psychotherapy
C. Ask the patient if she would voluntarily enter a psychiatric hospital
D. Add acetaminophen and gabapentin to the patient’s pain regimen
E. Initiate pharmacotherapy with amitriptyline and refer for psychotherapy
Explanation: ***Ask the patient if she has an idea about how she might hurt herself***
- The patient's statement "feeling that she would be better off dead," combined with symptoms of depression (low mood, anhedonia, difficulty concentrating, low energy), indicates a **high risk of suicidality**.
- Directly inquiring about **suicidal ideation and plans** is the most crucial next step to assess the immediate danger and determine the appropriate level of intervention.
*Initiate pharmacotherapy with duloxetine and refer for psychotherapy*
- While duloxetine is an appropriate medication for both fibromyalgia pain and depression, and psychotherapy is beneficial, these actions do not address the **immediate safety concern** regarding suicide risk.
- Starting treatment without a thorough **suicide risk assessment** could be dangerous if the patient has an active plan or is imminent danger.
*Ask the patient if she would voluntarily enter a psychiatric hospital*
- This question is premature. Before discussing psychiatric hospitalization, it is essential to first assess the **severity and immediacy of suicidal intent** by directly asking about plans and means.
- A patient may deny voluntary admission even if at high risk, requiring a different approach.
*Add acetaminophen and gabapentin to the patient’s pain regimen*
- This option focuses solely on pain management, which, while relevant to fibromyalgia, **fails to address the severe depressive symptoms and suicidal ideation**.
- Treating pain alone without addressing the psychiatric crisis could lead to a catastrophic outcome.
*Initiate pharmacotherapy with amitriptyline and refer for psychotherapy*
- Amitriptyline can be used for fibromyalgia and depression, and psychotherapy is appropriate, but similar to duloxetine, this option **does not prioritize the immediate assessment of suicidality**.
- A comprehensive risk assessment must precede or occur simultaneously with treatment initiation in such a high-risk scenario.
Question 34: A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of persistent sadness and difficulty concentrating for the past 6 weeks. During this period, he has also had difficulty sleeping. He adds that he has been “feeling down” most of the time since his girlfriend broke up with him 4 years ago. Since then, he has only had a few periods of time when he did not feel that way, but none of these lasted for more than a month. He reports having no problems with appetite, weight, or energy. He does not use illicit drugs or alcohol. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and constricted affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Persistent depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
B. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Bipolar affective disorder
E. Cyclothymic disorder
Explanation: ***Persistent depressive disorder***
- This condition is characterized by a **chronically depressed mood** that lasts for at least two years in adults, with symptoms not remitting for more than two consecutive months.
- The patient's history of feeling "down" for four years, with only brief periods of relief (never exceeding one month), fits this chronic pattern and meets the diagnostic criteria for persistent depressive disorder (formerly dysthymia).
- Although the patient has had worsening symptoms over the past 6 weeks, the **predominant feature** is the chronic, low-grade depression lasting 4 years, making persistent depressive disorder the most likely primary diagnosis.
*Adjustment disorder with depressed mood*
- An adjustment disorder typically involves emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an **identifiable stressor**, occurring within 3 months of the stressor's onset and lasting no longer than 6 months after the stressor or its consequences have ceased.
- The patient's symptoms have been ongoing for 4 years, far exceeding the typical duration for an adjustment disorder, which by definition should not persist beyond 6 months after the stressor ends.
*Major depressive disorder*
- Major depressive disorder involves discrete episodes of at least 2 weeks with **five or more symptoms** including depressed mood or anhedonia, plus symptoms such as changes in appetite/weight, sleep disturbance, psychomotor changes, fatigue, worthlessness/guilt, concentration difficulty, or suicidal ideation.
- While the patient has some symptoms that could suggest a current major depressive episode (6 weeks of sadness, concentration difficulty, sleep problems), the question emphasizes the **chronic 4-year course** of low-grade depressive symptoms as the predominant pattern, which is more consistent with persistent depressive disorder.
- Note that patients can have MDD superimposed on persistent depressive disorder ("double depression"), but the chronic pattern described here makes persistent depressive disorder the primary diagnosis.
*Bipolar affective disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by distinct periods of **mood episodes** that include at least one manic or hypomanic episode, in addition to depressive episodes.
- The patient's presentation does not describe any manic or hypomanic symptoms (e.g., elevated mood, increased energy, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, increased talkativeness, or risky behavior) that are characteristic of bipolar disorder.
*Cyclothymic disorder*
- Cyclothymic disorder involves numerous periods of **hypomanic symptoms** and numerous periods of **depressive symptoms** for at least 2 years, but these symptoms are not severe enough to meet the criteria for a hypomanic or major depressive episode.
- The patient describes chronic low mood without any mention of alternating periods of elevated mood or hypomanic symptoms, which are essential for a diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder.
Question 35: A 17-year-old white female with a history of depression is brought to your office by her parents because they are concerned that she is acting differently. She is quiet and denies any changes in her personality or drug use. After the parents step out so that you can speak alone, she begins crying. She states that school has been very difficult and has been very depressed for the past 2 months. She feels a lot of pressure from her parents and coaches and says she cannot handle it anymore. She says that she has been cutting her wrists for the past week and is planning to commit suicide. She instantly regrets telling you and begs you not to tell her parents. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Prescribe an anti-depressant medication and allow her to return home
B. Refer her to a psychiatrist
C. Explain to her that she will have to be hospitalized as she is an acute threat to herself (Correct Answer)
D. Tell her parents about the situation and allow them to handle it as a family
E. Prescribe an anti-psychotic medication
Explanation: ***Explain to her that she will have to be hospitalized as she is an acute threat to herself***
- This patient is actively suicidal and engaging in **self-harm (cutting)**, which represents an immediate and serious risk to her life, necessitating **involuntary hospitalization** for her safety.
- In cases of acute suicidality, the ethical principle of **beneficence** (acting in the patient's best interest) and **non-maleficence** (avoiding harm) overrides confidentiality to ensure the patient's immediate safety.
*Prescribe an anti-depressant medication and allow her to return home*
- While an antidepressant may be part of long-term management, simply prescribing medication and sending her home is **inappropriate and dangerous** given her active suicidal ideation and self-harm.
- Antidepressants can have a delayed onset of action (2-4 weeks) and, in some adolescents, may initially increase the risk of **suicidal thoughts**, making close monitoring essential.
*Refer her to a psychiatrist*
- A referral to a psychiatrist is crucial for comprehensive evaluation and long-term treatment, but it does **not address the immediate danger** presented by her active suicidal plans and self-harm.
- An urgent psychiatric consultation or hospitalization is needed first, with a referral following stabilization.
*Tell her parents about the situation and allow them to handle it as a family*
- While parents must be informed, simply delegating the responsibility to them is **insufficient and potentially negligent** given the patient's acute suicidal risk.
- **Medical professionals** have a duty to ensure the safety of a suicidal minor, which often requires a higher level of intervention than parental supervision alone.
*Prescribe an anti-psychotic medication*
- There is **no indication of psychosis** in this patient's presentation; her symptoms are consistent with severe depression and acute suicidality.
- Prescribing an antipsychotic would be **inappropriate** and could cause unnecessary side effects without addressing the underlying depressive disorder or acute suicidal crisis.
Question 36: A 29-year-old man is being monitored at the hospital after cutting open his left wrist. He has a long-standing history of unipolar depressive disorder and multiple trials of antidepressants. The patient expresses thoughts of self-harm and does not deny suicidal intent. A course of electroconvulsive therapy is suggested. His medical history is not significant for other organic illness. Which of the following complications of this therapy is this patient at greatest risk for?
A. Acute kidney injury
B. Acute coronary syndrome
C. Anterograde amnesia
D. Intracranial hemorrhage
E. Retrograde amnesia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Retrograde amnesia***
- **Retrograde amnesia**, specifically memory loss for events occurring prior to the treatment, is a common and often transient side effect of **electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)**.
- While generally temporary, it can be distressing for patients and is a significant consideration when recommending ECT, especially in patients with otherwise healthy brains.
*Acute kidney injury*
- **Acute kidney injury (AKI)** is not a typical direct complication of **ECT**.
- While fluid and electrolyte imbalances or certain medications used during ECT (e.g., muscle relaxants) could theoretically impact renal function in predisposed individuals, it is not a primary concern in a patient with no significant history of organic illness.
*Acute coronary syndrome*
- **Acute coronary syndrome (ACS)** is a potential risk associated with the physiological stress of **ECT**, which can include transient **hypertension** and **tachycardia**.
- However, in a 29-year-old with no significant medical history, the risk is considerably lower compared to older patients or those with pre-existing cardiovascular disease.
*Anterograde amnesia*
- **Anterograde amnesia**, the inability to form new memories after the treatment, is typically less common and usually milder than retrograde amnesia following **ECT**.
- While some patients may experience transient difficulty recalling new information immediately post-ECT, it is usually less pronounced than the impact on remote memories.
*Intracranial hemorrhage*
- **Intracranial hemorrhage** is an extremely rare and severe complication of **ECT**, typically associated with pre-existing cerebral vascular abnormalities or uncontrolled hypertension during the procedure.
- In a young patient with no organic illness, the risk of this complication is exceedingly low.
Question 37: A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-week history of depressed mood, loss of interest, and difficulty sleeping. She also has had a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight loss during this period. She has not been as productive as before at work due to difficulty concentrating. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Laboratory studies including thyroid-stimulating hormone are within the reference range. The physician prescribes treatment with escitalopram. This drug targets a neurotransmitter that is produced in which of the following brain structures?
A. Substantia nigra
B. Raphe nucleus (Correct Answer)
C. Nucleus accumbens
D. Basal nucleus of Meynert
E. Locus coeruleus
Explanation: ***Raphe nucleus***
- **Escitalopram** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, and the **raphe nuclei** are the primary source of serotonin production in the brain.
- Serotonergic neurons originating from the raphe nuclei project widely throughout the brain, influencing mood, sleep, appetite, and cognition.
*Substantia nigra*
- The **substantia nigra** is primarily associated with **dopamine production**, particularly in the nigrostriatal pathway, which is crucial for motor control.
- Dysfunction in this area is a hallmark of **Parkinson's disease**, not directly targeted by SSRIs for depression.
*Nucleus accumbens*
- The **nucleus accumbens** is a key component of the **reward pathway** and is primarily involved in dopamine and pleasure, not the primary site of serotonin production.
- While dopamine dysfunction can contribute to mood disorders, SSRIs do not directly target dopamine production in this area.
*Basal nucleus of Meynert*
- The **basal nucleus of Meynert** is a major source of **acetylcholine** in the brain, playing a critical role in memory and learning.
- Degeneration of these neurons is associated with **Alzheimer's disease**, and it is not involved in serotonin synthesis.
*Locus coeruleus*
- The **locus coeruleus** is the primary site of **norepinephrine production** in the brain, involved in arousal, attention, and stress responses.
- While norepinephrine is implicated in mood disorders, escitalopram specifically targets **serotonin reuptake**, not norepinephrine synthesis, which occurs in the locus coeruleus.
Question 38: A 67-year-old female is brought to the emergency room by her son for unusual behavior. She moved into her son’s house three years ago after her husband passed away. The son reports that when he returned home from work earlier in the day, he found his mother minimally responsive. She regained consciousness soon after his arrival and did not recall the event. The son also reports that for the past two years, his mother has had trouble remembering names and addresses. She still goes shopping on her own and cooks regularly. Her past medical history is notable for major depressive disorder, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. She takes clomipramine, glyburide, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. She recently saw her primary care provider who adjusted some of her medication dosages. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. On examination, she is easily distractible with disorganized speech. She does not recognize her son and thinks that her intravenous line is a rope. She says she feels fine and would like to go home. Brain imaging would likely reveal which of the following?
A. Caudate nucleus atrophy
B. Mesial temporal lobe atrophy
C. Multiple ischemic sites and microhemorrhages
D. Normal cerebrum (Correct Answer)
E. Focal atrophy of the frontal and temporal cortices
Explanation: ***Normal cerebrum***
- The patient's presentation with acute onset confusion, fluctuating consciousness, inattention, disorganized thinking, and perceptual disturbances (misidentifying an IV line as a rope) is highly suggestive of **delirium**.
- Given her history of recent medication changes (especially **clomipramine**, a tricyclic antidepressant with anticholinergic properties) and comorbidities (diabetes, hypertension, depression), she is at high risk for medication-induced or metabolic delirium.
- **Delirium is a functional disturbance** without structural brain lesions; brain imaging is typically performed to rule out other causes but would show **no acute abnormalities** in uncomplicated delirium.
*Mesial temporal lobe atrophy*
- This finding is characteristic of **Alzheimer's disease** and would be associated with a more progressive, insidious cognitive decline rather than an acute confusional state with fluctuations.
- While she has some long-standing memory issues, her acute presentation of profound disorientation and perceptual disturbances is not typical for an acute exacerbation of Alzheimer's itself, which causes mostly specific memory and cognitive decline.
*Focal atrophy of the frontal and temporal cortices*
- This pattern is more characteristic of **frontotemporal dementia** (FTD), which typically presents with prominent behavioral changes (disinhibition, apathy) or language difficulties.
- The patient's acute fluctuating mental status is not a primary feature of FTD, which follows a more gradual, progressive course.
*Caudate nucleus atrophy*
- **Caudate nucleus atrophy** is a hallmark feature of **Huntington's disease**, a genetic neurodegenerative disorder characterized by involuntary movements (chorea), psychiatric symptoms, and cognitive decline.
- Her symptoms of acute delirium and chronic memory loss do not align with the typical presentation of Huntington's disease.
*Multiple ischemic sites and microhemorrhages*
- This pattern is indicative of **vascular dementia** or multi-infarct dementia, characterized by a stepwise decline in cognitive function with focal neurological deficits.
- While her comorbidities (diabetes, hypertension) increase her risk for vascular disease, her acute fluctuating delirium is more consistent with a metabolic or medication-induced cause rather than acute widespread ischemic events.
Question 39: A 48-year-old patient with congestive heart failure is brought into the emergency room after an attempted suicide. He was found by his daughter whom he lives with while trying to suffocate himself. He had recently moved in with his daughter after his house went into foreclosure. The daughter lives in a small two-bedroom apartment that was recently baby proofed for her daughter. She cares for him and tries to help him with all of his medical appointments and taking his medications on time. He is noted to still consume moderate amounts of alcohol. She is concerned her father might try this again because his aunt died from suicide. Which of the circumstances is protective for this patient?
A. Lack of access to sharp objects
B. Having a support system (Correct Answer)
C. Compliance with his medication
D. Absence of psychiatric comorbidities
E. Absence of substance abuse
Explanation: **Having a support system**
- The patient lives with his daughter, who actively cares for him, helps with medical appointments, and ensures medication adherence, indicating a strong **familial support system**.
- A supportive environment and social connections are significant **protective factors** against suicide attempts.
*Lack of access to sharp objects*
- While removing access to lethal means is a crucial suicide prevention strategy, the patient attempted to suffocate himself, not use sharp objects.
- The scenario does not explicitly state that all means of self-harm, such as suffocation methods, have been removed or restricted.
*Absence of substance abuse*
- The patient is noted to consume **moderate amounts of alcohol**, which can impair judgment and increase impulsivity, acting as a **risk factor** rather than a protective one.
- Alcohol is a psychoactive substance associated with increased suicide risk, so this is not a protective circumstance.
*Compliance with his medication*
- The daughter helps the patient take his medications on time, which is beneficial for his **congestive heart failure (CHF)**, but it doesn't directly address the underlying psychological distress leading to suicidal ideation.
- Though good for physical health, medication compliance alone may not be enough to prevent suicide in the presence of strong risk factors.
*Absence of psychiatric comorbidities*
- The patient has attempted suicide and is experiencing significant distress, suggesting underlying **psychiatric pathology** even if not formally diagnosed.
- Losing his home and living in a small apartment are significant stressors that can trigger or exacerbate mental health issues.
Question 40: A 52-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for her annual checkup. She lost her job 6 months ago and since then she has been feeling worthless because nobody wants to hire her. She also says that she is finding it difficult to concentrate, which is exacerbated by the fact that she has lost interest in activities that she used to love such as doing puzzles and working in the garden. She says that she is sleeping over 10 hours every day because she says it is difficult to find the energy to get up in the morning. She denies having any thoughts about suicide. Which of the following neurotransmitter profiles would most likely be seen in this patient?
A. Increased dopamine
B. Decreased serotonin and norepinephrine (Correct Answer)
C. Increased norepinephrine
D. Decreased acetylcholine
E. Decreased gamma-aminobutyric acid
Explanation: ***Decreased serotonin and norepinephrine***
- The patient's symptoms, including **worthlessness**, difficulty **concentrating**, loss of **interest (anhedonia)**, and **hypersomnia**, are classic for **major depressive disorder**.
- **Depression** is most commonly associated with a deficiency in **monoamine neurotransmitters**, particularly **serotonin** and **norepinephrine**, which play key roles in mood, sleep, appetite, and cognition.
*Increased dopamine*
- **Increased dopamine** activity is more often associated with conditions like **psychosis (e.g., schizophrenia)** or the manic phases of **bipolar disorder**, which are not indicated by the patient's symptoms.
- While dopamine is involved in reward and motivation, a primary increase is not the typical finding in major depression.
*Increased norepinephrine*
- An **increase in norepinephrine** is often seen in conditions like **anxiety disorders**, **panic attacks**, or **mania**, characterized by states of heightened arousal and vigilance.
- The patient's symptoms of **lethargy**, **hypersomnia**, and **lack of energy** point away from an overall increase in norepinephrine.
*Decreased acetylcholine*
- **Decreased acetylcholine** is primarily linked to cognitive deficits seen in conditions like **Alzheimer's disease**, affecting memory and learning.
- While depression can involve cognitive impairment, a primary deficit in acetylcholine is not the hallmark neurotransmitter change in major depressive disorder.
*Decreased gamma-aminobutyric acid*
- **Decreased GABA** (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is primarily associated with conditions of heightened excitability and anxiety, such as **anxiety disorders**, **insomnia**, and **seizure disorders**.
- The patient's presentation of **hypersomnia** and **low energy** is inconsistent with a primary GABA deficiency.