A 38-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for complaints of insomnia. She states that for the last 8 months, she has had difficulty falling asleep. Additionally, she awakens in the middle of the night or early morning and cannot fall back to sleep. When further questioned, she reports decreased appetite with a 12-lb. weight loss in the last 6 months. She was recently demoted at her work as a baker due to trouble focusing and coordinating orders and excess fatigue. She feels she is to blame for her family's current financial status given her demotion. She is given a prescription for fluoxetine at this visit with follow-up 2 weeks later. At the follow-up visit, she reports no improvement in her symptoms despite taking her medication consistently. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q22
A 57-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of fatigue, difficulty swallowing, and weight loss. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years. He is 173 cm (5 ft 8 in) tall, and weighs 54 kg (120 lb); BMI is 18 kg/m2. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy shows an exophytic tumor at the gastroesophageal junction. The patient is diagnosed with advanced esophageal adenocarcinoma. Palliative treatment is begun. Two months later, he complains of difficulty sleeping. His husband says that the patient does not get out of bed most days and has lost interest in seeing his friends. Mental status examination shows a blunted affect, slowed speech, and poor concentration. This patient is at increased risk of developing which of the following findings on polysomnography?
Q23
A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue over the past month. He reports that his energy levels are low and that he spends most of his time in his room. He also states that he is not in the mood for meeting friends. He used to enjoy playing soccer and going to the shooting range with his father, but recently stopped showing interest in these activities. He has been having difficulties at school due to concentration problems. His appetite is low. He has problems falling asleep. He states that he has thought about ending his life, but he has no specific plan. He lives with his parents, who frequently fight due to financial problems. He does not smoke. He drinks 2–3 cans of beer on the weekends. He does not use illicit drugs. He takes no medications. His vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place, and time. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. In addition to the administration of an appropriate medication, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q24
A 40-year-old woman comes to the therapist for weekly psychotherapy. She was diagnosed with major depressive disorder and anxiety after her divorce 1 year ago. During last week's appointment, she spoke about her ex-husband's timidity and lack of advancement at work; despite her urging, he never asked for a raise. Today, when the therapist asks how she is doing, she replies, “If there's something you want to know, have the courage to ask me! I have no respect for a man who won't speak his mind!” The patient's behavior can be best described as an instance of which of the following?
Q25
A 45-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife because of difficulty sleeping and poor appetite for the past 4 weeks. During this period, he also has had persistent sadness and difficulty concentrating on tasks, because of which he has been reprimanded at work for poor performance. Over the past 3 years, he has often had such phases, with a maximum symptom-free gap of one month between each of them. His behavior is causing a strain in his relationships with his wife and children. His mother died 4 months ago from breast cancer. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and constricted affect. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q26
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of generalized fatigue for the past 4 months. He also has difficulty sleeping and concentrating. He says he does not enjoy his hobbies anymore and has stopped attending family events. Mental status examination shows psychomotor retardation and a flat affect along with some evidence of suicidal ideation. His speech is slow in rate and monotone in rhythm. Treatment with fluoxetine is initiated. One month later, he reports significant improvement in his motivation and mood but also delayed ejaculation and occasional anorgasmia. The physician decides to replace his current medication with another agent. It is most appropriate to switch the patient to which of the following drugs?
Q27
A 24-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of worsening insomnia and anxiety. She says that she has an important college exam in the next few weeks for which she has to put in many hours of work each day. Despite the urgency of her circumstances, she states that she is unable to focus and concentrate, is anxious, irritable and has lost interest in almost all activities. She also says that she has trouble falling asleep and wakes up several times during the night. She claims that this state of affairs has severely hampered her productivity and is a major problem for her, and she feels tired and fatigued all day. She denies hearing voices, abnormal thoughts, or any other psychotic symptoms. The patient asks if there is some form of therapy that can help her sleep better so that she can function more effectively during the day. She claims that the other symptoms of not enjoying anything, irritability, and anxiety are things that she can learn to handle. Which of the following approaches is most likely to address the patients concerns most effectively?
Q28
A 27-year-old woman visits a psychiatrist expressing her feelings of sadness which are present on most days of the week. She says that she has been feeling this way for about 2 to 3 years. During her first pregnancy 3 years ago, the fetus died in utero, and the pregnancy was terminated at 21 weeks. Ever since then, she hasn’t been able to sleep well at night and has difficulty concentrating on her tasks most of the time. However, for the past month, she has found it more difficult to cope. She says she has no will to have another child as she still feels guilty and responsible for the previous pregnancy. Over the past few days, she has completely lost her appetite and only eats once or twice a day. She doesn’t recall a single day in the last 3 years where she has not felt this way. The patient denies any past or current smoking, alcohol, or recreational drug use. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q29
A previously healthy 16-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for evaluation because of extreme irritability, fatigue, and loss of appetite for 3 weeks. Five months ago, his grandfather, whom he was very close to, passed away from chronic lymphocytic leukemia. He used to enjoy playing soccer but quit his soccer team last week. When he comes home from school he goes straight to bed and sleeps for 11–12 hours each night. He previously had good grades, but his teachers report that he has been disrespectful and distracted in class and failed an exam last week. He tried alcohol twice at a party last year and he has never smoked cigarettes. Vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, he avoids making eye contact but cooperates with the exam. His affect is limited and he describes an irritable mood. He is easily distracted and has a difficult time focusing for an extended conversation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q30
A 75-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of weakness and difficulty walking. She also complains of nausea and palpitations. She was working in her garden about an hour ago when her problems started. The patient says she is feeling warm even though the emergency room is air-conditioned. Past medical history is significant for major depressive disorder (MDD), diagnosed 5 years ago, hypertension, and osteoporosis. Current medications are aspirin, lisinopril, alendronate, calcium, venlafaxine, and a vitamin D supplement. Her pulse is 110/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, and blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. A noncontrast CT scan of the head, electrocardiogram (ECG), and routine laboratory tests are all normal. Which of the following most likely accounts for this patient's condition?
Depression US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 38-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for complaints of insomnia. She states that for the last 8 months, she has had difficulty falling asleep. Additionally, she awakens in the middle of the night or early morning and cannot fall back to sleep. When further questioned, she reports decreased appetite with a 12-lb. weight loss in the last 6 months. She was recently demoted at her work as a baker due to trouble focusing and coordinating orders and excess fatigue. She feels she is to blame for her family's current financial status given her demotion. She is given a prescription for fluoxetine at this visit with follow-up 2 weeks later. At the follow-up visit, she reports no improvement in her symptoms despite taking her medication consistently. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Increase dose of current medication
B. Switch to bupropion
C. Add lithium
D. Switch to paroxetine
E. Continue current medication (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Continue current medication***
- It takes approximately **4-6 weeks** for an antidepressant, such as fluoxetine, to reach its full therapeutic effect and for patients to experience significant symptom improvement.
- Due to the **delayed onset of action**, continuing the medication for a longer period is necessary to assess its efficacy before making changes.
*Increase dose of current medication*
- Increasing the dose after only 2 weeks is premature as the medication has not had sufficient time to reach its **therapeutic plasma concentration** or demonstrate its full effect.
- Adjusting the dose too early could also increase the risk of **side effects** without a clear benefit.
*Switch to bupropion*
- Switching to a different antidepressant like bupropion after just 2 weeks is also premature, as the patient has not had an adequate trial of fluoxetine.
- Bupropion has a different mechanism of action and side effect profile but also requires a similar **onset period** for efficacy.
*Add lithium*
- Lithium is primarily used as a **mood stabilizer** in bipolar disorder or as an augmentation strategy for treatment-resistant depression.
- There is no indication of bipolar disorder, and it's too early to consider her depression as **treatment-resistant** given the short duration of fluoxetine use.
*Switch to paroxetine*
- Switching to another **SSRI** (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) like paroxetine after only 2 weeks is not appropriate because the initial SSRI has not been given sufficient time to work.
- The patient has not failed therapy with fluoxetine yet, and such a change would unnecessarily prolong the search for an effective treatment.
Question 22: A 57-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of fatigue, difficulty swallowing, and weight loss. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years. He is 173 cm (5 ft 8 in) tall, and weighs 54 kg (120 lb); BMI is 18 kg/m2. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy shows an exophytic tumor at the gastroesophageal junction. The patient is diagnosed with advanced esophageal adenocarcinoma. Palliative treatment is begun. Two months later, he complains of difficulty sleeping. His husband says that the patient does not get out of bed most days and has lost interest in seeing his friends. Mental status examination shows a blunted affect, slowed speech, and poor concentration. This patient is at increased risk of developing which of the following findings on polysomnography?
A. Increased periodic sharp-wave discharge
B. Decreased REM sleep latency (Correct Answer)
C. Increased slow-wave sleep-cycle duration
D. Decreased REM sleep duration
E. Increased spike-and-wave discharge
Explanation: ***Decreased REM sleep latency***
- This patient's symptoms of **fatigue**, **anhedonia**, **sleep disturbance**, **blunted affect**, **slowed speech**, and **poor concentration** are highly suggestive of **major depressive disorder**.
- **Depression** is associated with **decreased REM sleep latency** (shorter time to enter REM sleep) and **increased REM density** (more rapid eye movements during REM).
*Increased periodic sharp-wave discharge*
- **Periodic sharp-wave discharges** on EEG are characteristic of **Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease**, which is a **neurodegenerative prion disease**, not depression.
- The patient's presentation does not align with the neurological signs typical of CJD.
*Increased slow-wave sleep-cycle duration*
- **Slow-wave sleep (SWS)**, or deep sleep, is typically **decreased** in patients with depression.
- An increase in SWS duration would be an unusual finding in the context of major depressive disorder.
*Decreased REM sleep duration*
- While sleep architecture is altered in depression, total **REM sleep duration** is often **increased**, or at least not significantly decreased, in proportion to other sleep stages.
- The more characteristic finding is a shorter time to reach REM sleep, not necessarily a reduction in its total duration.
*Increased spike-and-wave discharge*
- **Spike-and-wave discharges** are characteristic patterns seen on EEG in patients with **epilepsy**, particularly **absence seizures**.
- There is no clinical or historical information to suggest an epileptic disorder in this patient.
Question 23: A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue over the past month. He reports that his energy levels are low and that he spends most of his time in his room. He also states that he is not in the mood for meeting friends. He used to enjoy playing soccer and going to the shooting range with his father, but recently stopped showing interest in these activities. He has been having difficulties at school due to concentration problems. His appetite is low. He has problems falling asleep. He states that he has thought about ending his life, but he has no specific plan. He lives with his parents, who frequently fight due to financial problems. He does not smoke. He drinks 2–3 cans of beer on the weekends. He does not use illicit drugs. He takes no medications. His vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place, and time. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. In addition to the administration of an appropriate medication, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Hospitalization
B. Recommend alcohol cessation
C. Recommend family therapy
D. Instruct parents to remove guns from the house (Correct Answer)
E. Contact child protective services
Explanation: ***Instruct parents to remove guns from the house***
- The patient has **suicidal ideation** and access to a firearm, which is a significant risk factor for suicide attempts. Removing access to lethal means is a crucial and immediate safety measure.
- While other interventions are important, securing the environment by removing firearms directly addresses an immediate and modifiable **suicide risk factor**, especially in an adolescent with depression.
*Hospitalization*
- Although the patient expresses suicidal thoughts, he states he has **no specific plan**, which suggests he may not require immediate inpatient psychiatric hospitalization.
- Hospitalization is typically reserved for individuals with a **specific suicide plan**, intent, and significant risk that cannot be managed in an outpatient setting.
*Recommend alcohol cessation*
- While **alcohol use** is a concern and can exacerbate depression or suicidal ideation, addressing this is not the most immediate next step in managing acute suicide risk.
- Alcohol cessation is a valuable long-term goal but does not directly mitigate the immediate danger posed by access to lethal means.
*Recommend family therapy*
- **Family therapy** could be beneficial in addressing family conflicts and improving communication, which might contribute to the patient's stress.
- However, addressing family dynamics is a long-term intervention and does not take precedence over immediately securing the patient's safety concerning lethal means.
*Contact child protective services*
- There is no information in the vignette to suggest **child abuse or neglect** by the parents.
- Financial problems and parental fighting, while disruptive, do not automatically constitute grounds for involving child protective services.
Question 24: A 40-year-old woman comes to the therapist for weekly psychotherapy. She was diagnosed with major depressive disorder and anxiety after her divorce 1 year ago. During last week's appointment, she spoke about her ex-husband's timidity and lack of advancement at work; despite her urging, he never asked for a raise. Today, when the therapist asks how she is doing, she replies, “If there's something you want to know, have the courage to ask me! I have no respect for a man who won't speak his mind!” The patient's behavior can be best described as an instance of which of the following?
A. Passive aggression
B. Displacement
C. Projection
D. Reaction formation
E. Transference (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Transference***
- **Transference** occurs when a patient unconsciously redirects feelings and attitudes from a past significant relationship (e.g., with a parent or ex-spouse) onto the therapist.
- The patient is treating the therapist as if he were her ex-husband, reacting to the therapist with the same frustration and criticism she felt toward her ex-husband's perceived timidity and lack of assertiveness.
- This emotional re-enactment of past relationship dynamics with the therapist is the hallmark of transference in psychotherapy.
*Passive aggression*
- **Passive aggression** involves indirect resistance to the demands of others and an avoidance of direct confrontation.
- The patient's statement is a direct and confrontational expression of her feelings, not an indirect form of resistance.
*Displacement*
- **Displacement** is a defense mechanism where undesired feelings or impulses are directed from a threatening target to a safer, less threatening one.
- While feelings are being redirected, the core issue is the patient's emotional re-enactment of past relationship dynamics with the therapist, which is more characteristic of transference than simple displacement.
*Projection*
- **Projection** is a defense mechanism where an individual attributes their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses to another person.
- The patient is not attributing her own unacknowledged timidity or lack of assertiveness to the therapist; rather, she is reacting to the therapist as if the therapist were her ex-husband.
*Reaction formation*
- **Reaction formation** is a defense mechanism in which a person represses unacceptable thoughts or feelings and outwardly expresses the opposite.
- There is no indication that the patient is repressing certain feelings and acting in an opposing manner; her statement directly reflects her underlying frustration.
Question 25: A 45-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife because of difficulty sleeping and poor appetite for the past 4 weeks. During this period, he also has had persistent sadness and difficulty concentrating on tasks, because of which he has been reprimanded at work for poor performance. Over the past 3 years, he has often had such phases, with a maximum symptom-free gap of one month between each of them. His behavior is causing a strain in his relationships with his wife and children. His mother died 4 months ago from breast cancer. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and constricted affect. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Persistent complex bereavement disorder
B. Persistent depressive disorder
C. Major depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
D. Bipolar affective disorder
E. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder***
- The patient presents with **recurrent depressive episodes** over a 3-year period, with the current episode lasting 4 weeks and including multiple depressive symptoms (insomnia, poor appetite, persistent sadness, difficulty concentrating).
- The key feature is the **episodic pattern** with symptom-free intervals (maximum 1 month between episodes), indicating **recurrent major depressive disorder** rather than chronic continuous depression.
- Each episode meets criteria for MDD: at least 2 weeks of depressive symptoms causing significant functional impairment (reprimanded at work, strained relationships).
- The recurrent nature with clear remission periods between episodes distinguishes this from persistent depressive disorder.
*Persistent depressive disorder*
- Requires **chronic depressed mood** present for most of the day, more days than not, for **at least 2 years** in adults, with symptom-free periods lasting **no longer than 2 months**.
- This patient has a **recurrent episodic pattern** with distinct phases separated by symptom-free periods (up to 1 month), not the continuous or near-continuous symptoms characteristic of persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia).
- The presentation describes discrete episodes of depression with remissions between them, which is inconsistent with the persistent/chronic nature required for this diagnosis.
*Persistent complex bereavement disorder*
- This disorder involves **persistent yearning** for the deceased, intense sorrow, emotional pain, and preoccupation with the deceased, along with significant functional impairment, lasting for more than 12 months after the death.
- While the patient's mother died 4 months ago, his depressive symptoms began **3 years ago** (predating the death), and the presentation lacks grief-specific features such as yearning for or preoccupation with the deceased.
- The **3-year history of recurrent depressive phases** indicates a primary mood disorder rather than a bereavement-related condition.
*Bipolar affective disorder*
- Characterized by the presence of at least one **manic or hypomanic episode**, which involves abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with increased activity or energy.
- The patient's presentation describes **only recurrent depressive episodes** without any mention of manic or hypomanic symptoms such as grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, racing thoughts, or reckless behavior.
- Absence of any mood elevation episodes rules out bipolar disorder.
*Adjustment disorder with depressed mood*
- Involves emotional or behavioral symptoms developing within **3 months** of an identifiable stressor, with significant distress or functional impairment.
- This diagnosis typically resolves within **6 months** after the stressor or its consequences have terminated.
- The patient's **3-year history** of recurrent depressive episodes far exceeds this time frame and predates his mother's recent death, indicating a primary mood disorder rather than a stress-related adjustment reaction.
Question 26: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of generalized fatigue for the past 4 months. He also has difficulty sleeping and concentrating. He says he does not enjoy his hobbies anymore and has stopped attending family events. Mental status examination shows psychomotor retardation and a flat affect along with some evidence of suicidal ideation. His speech is slow in rate and monotone in rhythm. Treatment with fluoxetine is initiated. One month later, he reports significant improvement in his motivation and mood but also delayed ejaculation and occasional anorgasmia. The physician decides to replace his current medication with another agent. It is most appropriate to switch the patient to which of the following drugs?
A. Venlafaxine
B. Trazodone
C. Citalopram
D. Tranylcypromine
E. Bupropion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bupropion***
- Bupropion is a **norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor** that is associated with a **lower incidence of sexual side effects** compared to SSRIs.
- It would be an appropriate switch for a patient experiencing sexual dysfunction (delayed ejaculation, anorgasmia) secondary to fluoxetine, while still effectively treating depression.
*Venlafaxine*
- Venlafaxine is a **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)**, and like SSRIs, it can also cause **sexual dysfunction** due to its serotonergic activity.
- Switching to venlafaxine would likely not resolve the patient's sexual side effects and might even worsen them.
*Trazodone*
- Trazodone is primarily used off-label for **insomnia** at low doses due to its strong **sedating effects** and antagonism of various receptors (e.g., histamine, alpha-1 adrenergic, serotonin 5-HT2A/C).
- While it has a lower risk of sexual dysfunction than SSRIs, its antidepressant efficacy as monotherapy for major depression is generally considered **weaker** than other first-line options, and its sedating profile might not be ideal given the patient's existing fatigue.
*Citalopram*
- Citalopram is an **SSRI** and belongs to the same class as fluoxetine, sharing similar mechanisms of action and side effect profiles.
- Switching to another SSRI like citalopram would likely result in persistent or similar **sexual dysfunction**, as this is a common class effect of SSRIs.
*Tranylcypromine*
- Tranylcypromine is a **monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)**, a class of antidepressants typically reserved for **refractory depression** due to their significant drug-drug and food-drug interactions.
- While MAOIs can be effective, they are associated with a much **higher risk of adverse effects** (e.g., hypertensive crisis with tyramine-rich foods) and are generally not a first-line alternative after intolerance to an SSRI, especially when the current issue is sexual dysfunction.
Question 27: A 24-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of worsening insomnia and anxiety. She says that she has an important college exam in the next few weeks for which she has to put in many hours of work each day. Despite the urgency of her circumstances, she states that she is unable to focus and concentrate, is anxious, irritable and has lost interest in almost all activities. She also says that she has trouble falling asleep and wakes up several times during the night. She claims that this state of affairs has severely hampered her productivity and is a major problem for her, and she feels tired and fatigued all day. She denies hearing voices, abnormal thoughts, or any other psychotic symptoms. The patient asks if there is some form of therapy that can help her sleep better so that she can function more effectively during the day. She claims that the other symptoms of not enjoying anything, irritability, and anxiety are things that she can learn to handle. Which of the following approaches is most likely to address the patients concerns most effectively?
A. Initiation of risperidone
B. Psychotherapy only
C. Trial of bupropion
D. Phototherapy
E. Initiation of mirtazapine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Initiation of mirtazapine***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **major depressive disorder**, including insomnia, anxiety, anhedonia (loss of interest), irritability, and fatigue, all of which would benefit from an antidepressant.
- **Mirtazapine** is particularly effective at lower doses for **insomnia** and **anxiety** due to its potent antihistaminergic properties, making it suitable given her chief complaint about sleep.
*Initiation of risperidone*
- **Risperidone** is an **antipsychotic** medication used for conditions like schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or severe agitation, which is not indicated here given the absence of psychotic symptoms.
- Its use in this context would expose the patient to unnecessary side effects such as **extrapyramidal symptoms**, **metabolic syndrome**, and hyperprolactinemia.
*Psychotherapy only*
- While psychotherapy, particularly cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), is an important component of depression treatment, the severity and acute nature of her symptoms, especially the significant functional impairment and insomnia, suggest that **pharmacotherapy is also warranted** for a more effective and rapid response.
- Relying solely on psychotherapy might delay symptomatic relief, especially for her prominent **sleep disturbance** and **anxiety**.
*Trial of bupropion*
- **Bupropion** is an antidepressant that works primarily on **dopamine** and **norepinephrine** reuptake, and it tends to be **activating**, which could exacerbate the patient's existing **insomnia** and **anxiety**.
- It lacks the sedative properties that would directly address her primary concern regarding difficulty sleeping.
*Phototherapy*
- **Phototherapy** is primarily used for **seasonal affective disorder (SAD)**, which is not suggested by the patient's presentation; her symptoms have been ongoing for 3 months and are linked to significant stressors, not seasonal changes.
- While it can improve mood and sleep in SAD, it would not be the most appropriate or effective initial treatment for a non-seasonal major depressive episode with prominent insomnia and anxiety.
Question 28: A 27-year-old woman visits a psychiatrist expressing her feelings of sadness which are present on most days of the week. She says that she has been feeling this way for about 2 to 3 years. During her first pregnancy 3 years ago, the fetus died in utero, and the pregnancy was terminated at 21 weeks. Ever since then, she hasn’t been able to sleep well at night and has difficulty concentrating on her tasks most of the time. However, for the past month, she has found it more difficult to cope. She says she has no will to have another child as she still feels guilty and responsible for the previous pregnancy. Over the past few days, she has completely lost her appetite and only eats once or twice a day. She doesn’t recall a single day in the last 3 years where she has not felt this way. The patient denies any past or current smoking, alcohol, or recreational drug use. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Persistent depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Schizoaffective disorder
D. Cyclothymia
E. Major depressive disorder
Explanation: ***Persistent depressive disorder***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)**: chronic depressed mood for **at least two years**, accompanied by other depressive symptoms like **insomnia**, **difficulty concentrating**, and changes in appetite.
- The duration of her symptoms (2-3 years) and the consistent feeling of sadness support this diagnosis, fitting the diagnostic criteria for **dysthymia**.
*Bipolar disorder*
- Bipolar disorder involves distinct episodes of **mania or hypomania** alternating with depressive episodes.
- The patient's history does not indicate any periods of elevated mood, increased energy, or decreased need for sleep, which are characteristic of **bipolar disorder**.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- Schizoaffective disorder is characterized by a combination of **mood symptoms** (like depression or mania) and **psychotic symptoms** (like delusions or hallucinations) occurring simultaneously or in distinct episodes.
- This patient presents with no evidence of **psychotic symptoms** such as hallucinations or delusions.
*Cyclothymia*
- Cyclothymia is a milder, chronic form of **bipolar disorder** involving numerous periods of **hypomanic symptoms** and numerous periods of **depressive symptoms** for at least two years.
- The patient's presentation lacks any history of **hypomanic episodes**, making cyclothymia an unlikely diagnosis.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While the patient is experiencing a **major depressive episode** currently (as suggested by increased severity in the last month and complete loss of appetite), the underlying chronic nature of her symptoms (2-3 years) and the fact that she has not been symptom-free for more than two months indicate **persistent depressive disorder**.
- A diagnosis of **major depressive disorder** would typically be given if the symptoms were acute (less than 2 years) and severe, without the chronic, pervasive depressive state described.
Question 29: A previously healthy 16-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for evaluation because of extreme irritability, fatigue, and loss of appetite for 3 weeks. Five months ago, his grandfather, whom he was very close to, passed away from chronic lymphocytic leukemia. He used to enjoy playing soccer but quit his soccer team last week. When he comes home from school he goes straight to bed and sleeps for 11–12 hours each night. He previously had good grades, but his teachers report that he has been disrespectful and distracted in class and failed an exam last week. He tried alcohol twice at a party last year and he has never smoked cigarettes. Vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, he avoids making eye contact but cooperates with the exam. His affect is limited and he describes an irritable mood. He is easily distracted and has a difficult time focusing for an extended conversation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
B. Major depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Persistent depressive disorder
D. Substance abuse
E. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **major depressive disorder**, including **extreme irritability**, fatigue, loss of appetite, anhedonia (quitting soccer), **hypersomnia**, academic decline, and social withdrawal.
- These symptoms have been present for **3 weeks** and represent a significant change from his baseline functioning.
- The severity and duration of symptoms meet **DSM-5 criteria** for a major depressive episode.
*Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder*
- While he shows *distractibility* and *difficulty focusing*, the **sudden onset** of multiple depressive symptoms and a clear change from his previous functioning make ADHD less likely.
- ADHD is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **inattention** and/or **hyperactivity-impulsivity** typically present from childhood, not a recent decline with mood and neurovegetative symptoms.
*Persistent depressive disorder*
- Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) requires symptoms that persist for **at least 2 years** (1 year in children/adolescents) and are generally milder.
- This patient's symptoms are both severe and of relatively recent onset (3 weeks), indicative of an **acute** and **major depressive episode** rather than chronic low-grade depression.
*Substance abuse*
- Although adolescents may use substances as coping mechanisms, there is **no evidence** of current substance use, only a history of trying alcohol twice over a year ago.
- The constellation of specific depressive symptoms points away from substance abuse being the **primary diagnosis**.
*Adjustment disorder with depressed mood*
- Adjustment disorder requires symptoms to occur within **3 months** of an identifiable stressor and not meet full criteria for a major depressive episode.
- The grandfather's death occurred **5 months ago**, which is **outside the 3-month window** for adjustment disorder.
- More importantly, this patient's symptoms—including **anhedonia**, **hypersomnia**, and significant functional impairment—are severe enough to meet full criteria for a **major depressive episode**, exceeding the diagnostic threshold for adjustment disorder.
Question 30: A 75-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of weakness and difficulty walking. She also complains of nausea and palpitations. She was working in her garden about an hour ago when her problems started. The patient says she is feeling warm even though the emergency room is air-conditioned. Past medical history is significant for major depressive disorder (MDD), diagnosed 5 years ago, hypertension, and osteoporosis. Current medications are aspirin, lisinopril, alendronate, calcium, venlafaxine, and a vitamin D supplement. Her pulse is 110/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, and blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. A noncontrast CT scan of the head, electrocardiogram (ECG), and routine laboratory tests are all normal. Which of the following most likely accounts for this patient's condition?
A. Aspirin overdose
B. Missed dose of venlafaxine (Correct Answer)
C. Dehydration due to physical activity
D. Missed dose of lisinopril
E. Ischemic stroke
Explanation: ***Missed dose of venlafaxine***
- The patient's symptoms, including **weakness, difficulty walking, nausea, palpitations, and feeling warm**, are consistent with **venlafaxine withdrawal syndrome**.
- **Venlafaxine** is an SNRI with a short half-life; abrupt cessation or missed doses can rapidly lead to withdrawal symptoms like those described.
*Aspirin overdose*
- **Aspirin overdose** typically presents with symptoms such as **tinnitus, hyperventilation, metabolic acidosis**, and confusion.
- The patient's symptoms do not align with the classic presentation of aspirin toxicity, and laboratory results were normal.
*Dehydration due to physical activity*
- While gardening could lead to **dehydration**, symptoms usually include **thirst, dry mucous membranes, and orthostatic hypotension**.
- This patient exhibits **hypertension** and a **rapid pulse**, which are atypical for simple dehydration.
*Missed dose of lisinopril*
- Missing a dose of **lisinopril** (an ACE inhibitor) could lead to an **increase in blood pressure**, but it would not typically cause acute symptoms like nausea, palpitations, or the feeling of warmth.
- The patient's current blood pressure is elevated, but the constellation of other symptoms points away from this being the primary cause.
*Ischemic stroke*
- An **ischemic stroke** would typically present with **focal neurological deficits**, such as unilateral weakness or sensory changes.
- The patient's **CT scan of the head was normal**, and her symptoms are more systemic than focal, making a stroke less likely.