A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother for evaluation of mild acne. Six months ago, the girl developed papules over her back and shoulders. Her mother reports that her daughter has only been wearing clothes that cover her complete back and shoulders recently and that she spends a lot of time checking her skin in the mirror. She spends three hours a day scratching and squeezing the comedones. After reading an article that suggested sugar was a possible cause of acne, she tried a low-carb diet, which resulted in a weight loss 5.2-kg (11.5-lb) but no change in her skin condition. The patient describes herself as “ugly.” Over the past 6 months, she quit the swim team, stopped swim training, and stayed home from school on several occasions. She appears sad and distressed. She is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 62 kg (136.7 lb); BMI is 21.4 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a few small papules but numerous, widespread scratch marks over the neck, back, and buttocks. On mental status examination, she is depressed and irritable. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. After establishing a therapeutic alliance, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q12
A 67-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for memory difficulty. She states that for the past couple months she has had trouble with her memory including forgetting simple things like bills she needs to pay or locking doors. She was previously fully functional and did not make these types of mistakes. The patient has not been ill lately but came in because her daughter was concerned about her memory. She makes her own food and eats a varied diet. Review of systems is notable for a decrease in the patient’s mood for the past 2 months since her husband died and a sensation that her limbs are heavy making it difficult for her to do anything. Her temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, pulse is 71/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an elderly woman. Her neurological exam is unremarkable; however, the patient struggles to recall 3 objects after a short period of time and can only recall 2 of them. The patient’s weight is unchanged from her previous visit and cardiac, pulmonary, and dermatologic exams are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q13
A 24-year-old male comes into the psychiatric clinic complaining of consistent sadness. He endorses feelings of worthlessness, anxiety, and anhedonia for the past couple months but denies feeling suicidal. He further denies any past episodes of feeling overly energetic with racing thoughts. Confident of the diagnosis, you recommend frequent talk therapy along with a long-term prescription of a known first-line medication for this disorder. What is the drug and what are some of the most frequently encountered side effects?
Q14
An 82-year-old woman comes to the physician because of difficulty sleeping and increasing fatigue. Over the past 3 months she has been waking up early and having trouble falling asleep at night. During this period, she has had a decreased appetite and a 3.2-kg (7-lb) weight loss. Since the death of her husband one year ago, she has been living with her son and his wife. She is worried and feels guilty because she does not want to impose on them. She has stopped going to meetings at the senior center because she does not enjoy them anymore and also because she feels uncomfortable asking her son to give her a ride, especially since her son has had a great deal of stress lately. She is 155 cm (5 ft 1 in) tall and weighs 51 kg (110 lb); BMI is 21 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she is tired and has a flattened affect. Cognition is intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Q15
An 84-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her son after he found her trying to hang herself from the ceiling because she felt that she was a burden to her family. Her family says that for the past 2 months she has had no energy to leave her room, has been sleeping most of the day, has lost 10 kg (22 lb), and cries every day. She was diagnosed with breast cancer that has metastasized to the liver 4 months ago. She moved in with her son and daughter-in-law shortly after the diagnosis. She initially underwent chemotherapy but discontinued the treatment when the metastases spread to the spine and brain. Her life expectancy is 1–2 weeks and she is currently receiving home-hospice care. Her only current medication is a fentanyl patch. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 46 kg (101.4 lb); BMI is 18 kg/m2. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows slow speech, a flat affect, and depressed mood. Which of the following treatments is initially most likely to provide the greatest benefit for this patient?
Q16
A 40-year-old man with a past medical history of major depression presents to the clinic. He is interested in joining a research study on depression-related sleep disturbances. He had 2 episodes of major depression within the last 2 years, occurring once during the summer and then during the winter of the other year. He has been non-compliant with medication and has a strong desire to treat his condition with non-pharmacological methods. He would like to be enrolled in this study that utilizes polysomnography to record sleep-wave patterns. Which of the following findings is likely associated with this patient’s psychiatric condition?
Q17
A 24-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness exam. She currently has no acute concerns but has been feeling hopeless, has a poor appetite, difficulty with concentration, and trouble with sleep. She says that she has poor self-esteem and that her symptoms have been occurring for the past 3 years. She has had moments where she felt better, but it lasted a few weeks out of the year. She currently lives alone and does not pursue romantic relationships because she feels she is not attractive. She has a past medical history of asthma. Her mother is alive and healthy. Her father committed suicide and suffered from major depressive disorder. On physical exam, the patient has a gloomy demeanor and appears restless and anxious. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q18
A 29-year-old man with post-traumatic stress disorder is admitted to the hospital following an intentional opioid overdose. He is a soldier who returned from a deployment in Afghanistan 3 months ago. He is divorced and lives alone. His mother died by suicide when he was 8 years of age. He states that he intended to end his life as painlessly as possible and has also contemplated using his service firearm to end his life. He asks the physician if assisted suicide is legal in his state. He does not smoke or drink alcohol but uses medical marijuana daily. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and constricted affect. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for suicide in this patient?
Q19
A mental health volunteer is interviewing locals as part of a community outreach program. A 46-year-old man discloses that he has felt sad for as long as he can remember. He feels as though his life is cursed and if something terrible can happen to him, it usually will. He has difficulty making decisions and feels hopeless. He also feels that he has had worsening suicidal ideations, guilt from past problems, decreased energy, and poor concentration over the past 2 weeks. He is otherwise getting enough sleep and able to hold a job. Which of the following statement best describes this patient's condition?
Q20
A 33-year-old man visits his psychiatrist with feelings of sadness on most days of the week for the past 4 weeks. He says that he is unable to participate in his daily activities and finds it hard to get out of bed on most days. If he has nothing scheduled for the day, he sometimes sleeps for 10–12 hours at a stretch. He has also noticed that on certain days, his legs feel heavy and he finds it difficult to walk, as though there are bricks tied to his feet. However, he is still able to attend social events and also enjoys playing with his children when he comes home from work. Other than these simple pleasures, he has lost interest in most of the activities he previously enjoyed. Another troubling fact is that he had gained weight over the past month, mainly because he eats so much when overcome by these feelings of depression. His is prescribed a medication to treat his symptoms. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug he was most likely prescribed?
Depression US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother for evaluation of mild acne. Six months ago, the girl developed papules over her back and shoulders. Her mother reports that her daughter has only been wearing clothes that cover her complete back and shoulders recently and that she spends a lot of time checking her skin in the mirror. She spends three hours a day scratching and squeezing the comedones. After reading an article that suggested sugar was a possible cause of acne, she tried a low-carb diet, which resulted in a weight loss 5.2-kg (11.5-lb) but no change in her skin condition. The patient describes herself as “ugly.” Over the past 6 months, she quit the swim team, stopped swim training, and stayed home from school on several occasions. She appears sad and distressed. She is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 62 kg (136.7 lb); BMI is 21.4 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a few small papules but numerous, widespread scratch marks over the neck, back, and buttocks. On mental status examination, she is depressed and irritable. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. After establishing a therapeutic alliance, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Reassure the patient that the skin findings are not severe
B. Nutritional rehabilitation
C. Suggest hospitalization
D. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
E. Dialectical behavioral therapy
Explanation: ***Cognitive-behavioral therapy***
- The patient exhibits features of **body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)** including preoccupation with minor perceived flaws, repetitive behaviors (skin picking, mirror checking), and significant functional impairment (quitting activities, missing school).
- She also shows **depressive symptoms** (sad affect, describes herself as "ugly").
- **Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)** with exposure and response prevention is the **first-line psychotherapy** for BDD and is effective for comorbid depression.
- CBT addresses maladaptive thoughts about appearance and reduces compulsive behaviors (skin picking, mirror checking).
- Note: SSRIs are often used in conjunction with CBT for moderate-to-severe BDD, but among the given options, CBT is the most appropriate **next step after establishing therapeutic alliance**.
*Reassure the patient that the skin findings are not severe*
- Simple reassurance is **insufficient** and may be perceived as dismissive.
- The patient's distress is **disproportionate to actual findings** (only "a few small papules") due to distorted self-perception characteristic of BDD.
- This approach does not address the underlying **psychiatric disorder** requiring specific treatment.
*Nutritional rehabilitation*
- While the patient lost 5.2 kg, her **BMI remains normal** at 21.4 kg/m² (normal range: 18.5-24.9).
- No evidence of malnutrition or eating disorder requiring formal nutritional rehabilitation.
- Weight loss was secondary to dietary experimentation for acne, not an eating disorder.
*Suggest hospitalization*
- Psychiatric hospitalization is reserved for **acute safety concerns** such as imminent suicidal/homicidal risk or severe functional impairment preventing self-care.
- This patient has **no suicidal ideation** on mental status examination.
- While distressed with functional impairment, she does not meet criteria for inpatient hospitalization; outpatient therapy is appropriate.
*Dialectical behavioral therapy*
- **DBT** is specifically designed for **borderline personality disorder** with severe emotional dysregulation, chronic suicidality, and recurrent self-harm.
- While the patient has skin-picking behavior, this is compulsive (part of BDD) rather than self-harm for emotional regulation.
- **CBT is more appropriate** than DBT for BDD and has stronger evidence base for this condition.
Question 12: A 67-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for memory difficulty. She states that for the past couple months she has had trouble with her memory including forgetting simple things like bills she needs to pay or locking doors. She was previously fully functional and did not make these types of mistakes. The patient has not been ill lately but came in because her daughter was concerned about her memory. She makes her own food and eats a varied diet. Review of systems is notable for a decrease in the patient’s mood for the past 2 months since her husband died and a sensation that her limbs are heavy making it difficult for her to do anything. Her temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, pulse is 71/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an elderly woman. Her neurological exam is unremarkable; however, the patient struggles to recall 3 objects after a short period of time and can only recall 2 of them. The patient’s weight is unchanged from her previous visit and cardiac, pulmonary, and dermatologic exams are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Depression (Correct Answer)
B. Vascular dementia
C. Alzheimer dementia
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Normal aging
Explanation: ***Depression***
- The patient exhibits classic signs of depression, including a **recent decline in mood** following her husband's death, anhedonia (sensation of heavy limbs making it difficult to do anything), and **memory difficulties** that appear to be a recent change from her previous baseline.
- **Pseudodementia**, or cognitive impairment due to depression, often presents with memory complaints that resolve with treatment of the underlying mood disorder.
*Vascular dementia*
- This typically presents with a **step-wise decline** in cognitive function, often associated with a history of stroke or cardiovascular risk factors, which are not mentioned here.
- Memory impairment in vascular dementia is often characterized by **executive dysfunction** and difficulty with information processing rather than primary memory recall alone.
*Alzheimer dementia*
- Characteristically involves a more **gradual and progressive decline** in memory, especially with new learning and recall, over a longer period.
- While memory loss is a feature, the constellation of recent onset, mood disturbance, and lack of other neurological deficits points away from Alzheimer's as the initial diagnosis.
*Hypothyroidism*
- Can cause cognitive slowing and memory problems, but it typically presents with other systemic symptoms like **fatigue, weight gain, constipation, and cold intolerance**, which are not present in this patient.
- The patient's vital signs are normal, and there's no mention of thyroid-related physical exam findings.
*Normal aging*
- While some mild memory lapses are normal with aging, the patient's complaints go beyond minor issues; she is having trouble with bills and locking doors, which indicates a **significant functional impact**.
- The rapid onset of symptoms and current functional impairment suggest something beyond typical age-related cognitive changes.
Question 13: A 24-year-old male comes into the psychiatric clinic complaining of consistent sadness. He endorses feelings of worthlessness, anxiety, and anhedonia for the past couple months but denies feeling suicidal. He further denies any past episodes of feeling overly energetic with racing thoughts. Confident of the diagnosis, you recommend frequent talk therapy along with a long-term prescription of a known first-line medication for this disorder. What is the drug and what are some of the most frequently encountered side effects?
A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor; hypomania, suicidal thoughts
B. Tricyclic antidepressants; hypomania, suicidal thoughts
C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor; anorgasmia, insomnia (Correct Answer)
D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors; Orthostatic hypotension, weight gain
E. Tricyclic antidepressants; Orthostatic hypotension, anticholinergic effects
Explanation: ***Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor; anorgasmia, insomnia***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **major depressive disorder**, including persistent sadness, worthlessness, anxiety, and anhedonia, without any history of manic or hypomanic episodes. **SSRIs** are considered first-line pharmacotherapy for this condition.
- Common side effects of SSRIs include **sexual dysfunction** (e.g., anorgasmia, decreased libido) and **insomnia** or agitation, especially during the initial weeks of treatment.
*Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor; hypomania, suicidal thoughts*
- While SSRIs are the correct drug class, **hypomania** is not a frequent side effect in patients without bipolar disorder. For patients with bipolar disorder, antidepressant monotherapy can induce hypomania or mania, but this patient denies such episodes.
- **Suicidal thoughts** can occur, particularly in young adults, during the initial phase of antidepressant treatment, but it is less common to frame it as a *frequently encountered side effect* in the general population compared to sexual dysfunction or sleep disturbances.
*Tricyclic antidepressants; hypomania, suicidal thoughts*
- **Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)** are generally not first-line due to their less favorable side effect profile compared to SSRIs, including significant anticholinergic effects and cardiovascular risks.
- As with SSRIs, **hypomania** is not a typical frequent side effect in unipolar depression, and while **suicidal thoughts** are a concern with antidepressants, TCAs carry a higher risk of lethality in overdose, making them less preferred initially.
*Monoamine oxidase inhibitors; Orthostatic hypotension, weight gain*
- **Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)** are effective but are typically reserved for **refractory depression** due to their significant drug and food interactions (e.g., tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis).
- While **orthostatic hypotension** and **weight gain** are known side effects of MAOIs, this class is not considered a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder.
*Tricyclic antidepressants; Orthostatic hypotension, anticholinergic effects*
- **TCAs** are indeed associated with side effects such as **orthostatic hypotension** and prominent **anticholinergic effects** (e.g., dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention).
- However, because of these more burdensome side effects and higher toxicity in overdose, TCAs are not generally considered the first-line medication choice, especially when SSRIs are available and safer.
Question 14: An 82-year-old woman comes to the physician because of difficulty sleeping and increasing fatigue. Over the past 3 months she has been waking up early and having trouble falling asleep at night. During this period, she has had a decreased appetite and a 3.2-kg (7-lb) weight loss. Since the death of her husband one year ago, she has been living with her son and his wife. She is worried and feels guilty because she does not want to impose on them. She has stopped going to meetings at the senior center because she does not enjoy them anymore and also because she feels uncomfortable asking her son to give her a ride, especially since her son has had a great deal of stress lately. She is 155 cm (5 ft 1 in) tall and weighs 51 kg (110 lb); BMI is 21 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she is tired and has a flattened affect. Cognition is intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
A. Begin mirtazapine therapy
B. Begin cognitive-behavioral therapy
C. Notify adult protective services
D. Assess for suicidal ideation (Correct Answer)
E. Recommend relocation to a nursing home
Explanation: ***Assess for suicidal ideation***
- The patient exhibits several **risk factors for depression**, including **insomnia**, **early morning awakening**, **anorexia**, **weight loss**, and significant **anhedonia** (lack of enjoyment in activities).
- Given her age, recent loss of her husband, social withdrawal, feelings of guilt, and significant emotional distress, it is crucial to first assess for **suicidal ideation** before initiating other treatments.
- **Elderly patients with depression have elevated suicide risk**, especially with recent bereavement and social isolation. Safety assessment is the **mandatory first step** in managing any patient with major depressive symptoms.
*Begin mirtazapine therapy*
- While **mirtazapine** is an effective antidepressant that could address several of her symptoms (insomnia, poor appetite, depression), it should only be considered after a **thorough safety assessment**, particularly for suicide risk.
- Starting medication without assessing for immediate danger may overlook critical safety concerns.
*Begin cognitive-behavioral therapy*
- **Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)** is an effective treatment for depression and could be beneficial for this patient.
- However, similar to medication, it is a subsequent treatment step. The immediate priority is to rule out **suicidal intent** given the severity of her depressive symptoms.
*Notify adult protective services*
- There is no direct evidence of **abuse or neglect** in the provided information that would warrant involving adult protective services.
- Her feelings of guilt and worry about burdening her family, while contributing to her depression, do not indicate that her son or daughter-in-law are harming her.
*Recommend relocation to a nursing home*
- While the patient is elderly and potentially depressed, there is no medical or social necessity presented that indicates she requires or would benefit from a **nursing home** at this stage.
- This step would be premature and does not address the immediate mental health concerns or potential safety issues.
Question 15: An 84-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her son after he found her trying to hang herself from the ceiling because she felt that she was a burden to her family. Her family says that for the past 2 months she has had no energy to leave her room, has been sleeping most of the day, has lost 10 kg (22 lb), and cries every day. She was diagnosed with breast cancer that has metastasized to the liver 4 months ago. She moved in with her son and daughter-in-law shortly after the diagnosis. She initially underwent chemotherapy but discontinued the treatment when the metastases spread to the spine and brain. Her life expectancy is 1–2 weeks and she is currently receiving home-hospice care. Her only current medication is a fentanyl patch. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 46 kg (101.4 lb); BMI is 18 kg/m2. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows slow speech, a flat affect, and depressed mood. Which of the following treatments is initially most likely to provide the greatest benefit for this patient?
A. Electroconvulsive therapy
B. Methylphenidate (Correct Answer)
C. Megestrol
D. Fluoxetine
E. Bupropion
Explanation: ***Methylphenidate***
- This patient presents with **severe depression** at the end of life with a very limited prognosis (1-2 weeks), making quick symptom relief paramount. **Psychostimulants** like methylphenidate can offer a rapid antidepressant effect (within days) and improve energy and appetite.
- Given her **advanced cancer**, **poor prognosis**, and **suicidal ideation**, a fast-acting treatment that improves quality of life quickly is crucial.
*Electroconvulsive therapy*
- While highly effective for severe depression, **ECT** requires multiple sessions and is a more invasive treatment not typically chosen for immediate symptom relief in a patient with a life expectancy of 1-2 weeks.
- The patient's **metastatic cancer** and overall frail condition would make the associated risks (e.g., anesthesia) disproportionate to the limited time frame for benefit.
*Megestrol*
- **Megestrol acetate** is a progestin sometimes used as an appetite stimulant in patients with cachexia, particularly in cancer or AIDS.
- It would not address the patient's **depressive symptoms** or **suicidal ideation**, which are the primary concerns requiring urgent intervention.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine**, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is a common antidepressant but typically takes **4-6 weeks** to achieve its full therapeutic effect.
- Given the patient's life expectancy of 1-2 weeks and her severe suicidal ideation, a delayed-onset medication like fluoxetine would not be appropriate for immediate symptom management.
*Bupropion*
- **Bupropion** is an antidepressant that also takes several weeks to exert its full effect.
- Like other typical antidepressants, its **delayed onset of action** makes it unsuitable for a patient with such a limited prognosis needing rapid symptom relief for severe depression and suicidality.
Question 16: A 40-year-old man with a past medical history of major depression presents to the clinic. He is interested in joining a research study on depression-related sleep disturbances. He had 2 episodes of major depression within the last 2 years, occurring once during the summer and then during the winter of the other year. He has been non-compliant with medication and has a strong desire to treat his condition with non-pharmacological methods. He would like to be enrolled in this study that utilizes polysomnography to record sleep-wave patterns. Which of the following findings is likely associated with this patient’s psychiatric condition?
A. Increased REM sleep latency
B. Associated with a seasonal pattern
C. Decreased REM sleep latency (Correct Answer)
D. Increased slow wave sleep
E. Late morning awakenings
Explanation: ***Decreased REM sleep latency***
- Patients with major depression exhibit characteristic alterations in sleep architecture, most notably a **decreased REM latency** (shortened time from sleep onset to the first REM period).
- Normal REM latency is typically 90 minutes, but in depression it may be reduced to **45-60 minutes or less**.
- This is one of the most **consistent and well-established polysomnographic findings** in major depressive disorder.
- Other REM sleep changes include **increased REM density** (more frequent rapid eye movements) and a shift of REM sleep to the first half of the night.
*Increased REM sleep latency*
- This is the **opposite** of what occurs in depression.
- **Decreased REM sleep latency** (shorter time to reach REM sleep) is the hallmark finding, not increased latency.
- Increased REM latency might be seen in other conditions or with certain medications, but not in untreated major depression.
*Associated with a seasonal pattern*
- While the patient had episodes in summer and winter, the question asks specifically about **polysomnography findings**, not clinical subtypes or patterns.
- Seasonal pattern is a **clinical specifier** for major depressive disorder (as in seasonal affective disorder), not a polysomnographic finding.
- The seasonal pattern itself is a diagnostic feature, not something detected on sleep studies.
*Increased slow wave sleep*
- Depression is associated with **decreased slow-wave sleep (SWS)**, not increased.
- SWS (stage N3, deep sleep) is typically **reduced** in patients with major depression.
- This decrease in restorative deep sleep contributes to the poor sleep quality, daytime fatigue, and cognitive difficulties in depressed patients.
*Late morning awakenings*
- Major depression classically presents with **early morning awakening** (terminal insomnia), not late morning awakening.
- Patients typically wake 2-3 hours earlier than desired and cannot return to sleep.
- Late morning awakenings or hypersomnia may occur in **atypical depression**, but early morning awakening is the more typical pattern in melancholic depression.
Question 17: A 24-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness exam. She currently has no acute concerns but has been feeling hopeless, has a poor appetite, difficulty with concentration, and trouble with sleep. She says that she has poor self-esteem and that her symptoms have been occurring for the past 3 years. She has had moments where she felt better, but it lasted a few weeks out of the year. She currently lives alone and does not pursue romantic relationships because she feels she is not attractive. She has a past medical history of asthma. Her mother is alive and healthy. Her father committed suicide and suffered from major depressive disorder. On physical exam, the patient has a gloomy demeanor and appears restless and anxious. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Cyclothymia
C. Persistent depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
D. Seasonal affective disorder
E. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
Explanation: ***Persistent depressive disorder***
- The patient exhibits chronic symptoms of depression (poor appetite, poor self-esteem, difficulty with concentration, trouble with sleep, hopelessness) lasting for at least **2 years**, with symptom-free periods lasting no more than **2 months**.
- Her long-standing symptoms (3 years) and the intermittent improvement, but never full resolution for extended periods, are characteristic of **persistent depressive disorder** (formerly dysthymia).
*Major depressive disorder*
- While the patient has many symptoms of depression, **major depressive disorder** is characterized by distinct episodes of at least 2 weeks, with significant functional impairment. The chronic, fluctuating course over 3 years is less typical.
- The presence of depressive symptoms for 3 years, with only brief periods of improvement, points away from episodic major depressive disorder alone and more towards a chronic form.
*Cyclothymia*
- **Cyclothymia** involves numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms and numerous periods of depressive symptoms for at least 2 years, with periods of stability lasting no more than 2 months. The patient describes only depressive symptoms, not hypomanic episodes.
- There is no mention of elevated mood, increased energy, or decreased need for sleep, which are characteristic of **hypomanic episodes** in cyclothymia.
*Seasonal affective disorder*
- **Seasonal affective disorder** is a type of depressive disorder that occurs during a specific season (most commonly winter) and resolves during other seasons; the patient's symptoms are year-round and chronic.
- The patient's symptoms are not described as tied to a particular season, making this diagnosis less likely.
*Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder*
- Predominantly diagnosed in **children and adolescents**, this disorder is characterized by severe recurrent temper outbursts and persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.
- The patient's age (24 years old) and the absence of temper outbursts make this diagnosis inappropriate.
Question 18: A 29-year-old man with post-traumatic stress disorder is admitted to the hospital following an intentional opioid overdose. He is a soldier who returned from a deployment in Afghanistan 3 months ago. He is divorced and lives alone. His mother died by suicide when he was 8 years of age. He states that he intended to end his life as painlessly as possible and has also contemplated using his service firearm to end his life. He asks the physician if assisted suicide is legal in his state. He does not smoke or drink alcohol but uses medical marijuana daily. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and constricted affect. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for suicide in this patient?
A. Male sex
B. Lack of social support
C. Attempted drug overdose (Correct Answer)
D. Use of medical marijuana
E. Family history of completed suicide
Explanation: ***Attempted drug overdose***
- A **prior suicide attempt** is the single strongest predictor of future suicide completions. This patient's recent intentional overdose significantly elevates his risk.
- The fact that the attempt involved a **lethal method** (opioid overdose) indicates high suicidal intent and lethality, further increasing the risk.
*Male sex*
- While men have a **higher rate of completed suicide** than women, male sex alone is not the strongest individual risk factor compared to a prior attempt.
- This is a demographic risk factor that contributes to overall risk but does not carry the same weight as a direct behavioral indicator of suicidality.
*Lack of social support*
- **Social isolation** and lack of support are significant risk factors for suicide. The patient's divorce and living alone contribute to his vulnerability.
- However, while important, research consistently shows that a **previous suicide attempt** is a more potent predictor of future suicide than social isolation.
*Use of medical marijuana*
- While **substance use disorders** (including marijuana use, especially if used to self-medicate) can increase suicide risk by impairing judgment and increasing impulsivity, it is not the strongest factor here.
- There is no direct evidence presented that this patient's medical marijuana use directly triggered his current suicidal intent, unlike his documented overdose attempt.
*Family history of completed suicide*
- A **family history of suicide** (specifically, his mother's suicide) is a recognized risk factor, indicating genetic predisposition, environmental factors, or a learned coping mechanism.
- However, a personal history of a **serious suicide attempt** carries significantly more weight in predicting future suicide completions than a family history alone.
Question 19: A mental health volunteer is interviewing locals as part of a community outreach program. A 46-year-old man discloses that he has felt sad for as long as he can remember. He feels as though his life is cursed and if something terrible can happen to him, it usually will. He has difficulty making decisions and feels hopeless. He also feels that he has had worsening suicidal ideations, guilt from past problems, decreased energy, and poor concentration over the past 2 weeks. He is otherwise getting enough sleep and able to hold a job. Which of the following statement best describes this patient's condition?
A. The patient may have symptoms of mania or psychosis.
B. The patient is likely to show anhedonia.
C. The patient likely has paranoid personality disorder.
D. The patient has double depression. (Correct Answer)
E. The patient should be started on an SSRI.
Explanation: ***The patient has double depression.***
- The patient describes **chronic low-grade depressive symptoms** ("felt sad for as long as he can remember," "life is cursed," "difficulty making decisions," "hopeless") consistent with **persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)**, which requires at least 2 years of symptoms.
- The recent worsening of symptoms over the past two weeks, including "worsening suicidal ideations, guilt from past problems, decreased energy, and poor concentration," indicates an additional **major depressive episode (MDE) superimposed on dysthymia**, a condition known as **double depression**.
- This patient currently meets criteria for both conditions simultaneously, not just at risk for developing them.
*The patient may have symptoms of mania or psychosis.*
- There are no symptoms mentioned that suggest **mania**, such as elevated mood, increased energy, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, or racing thoughts.
- While suicidal ideation is present, there is no evidence of **psychotic features** like hallucinations or delusions.
*The patient is likely to show anhedonia.*
- **Anhedonia** (inability to feel pleasure) is a common symptom of depression and may well be present in this patient.
- However, the patient's presentation specifically highlights the pattern of **chronic dysthymia with a superimposed major depressive episode**, making **double depression** a more precise, comprehensive, and diagnostically specific description of his current condition.
- While anhedonia might be present, it is a symptom rather than a diagnostic formulation.
*The patient likely has paranoid personality disorder.*
- **Paranoid personality disorder** is characterized by pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, interpreting their motives as malevolent, without sufficient basis.
- The patient's feelings of being "cursed" and that "something terrible can happen" reflect **depressive pessimism and negative cognitive distortions**, not paranoid ideation about others' intentions.
- This is consistent with the hopelessness seen in depression.
*The patient should be started on an SSRI.*
- While an **SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor)** combined with psychotherapy would likely be appropriate treatment for double depression, making a specific treatment recommendation is premature without comprehensive clinical assessment.
- The question asks for the **best statement describing the patient's condition** (diagnosis), not for treatment recommendations.
Question 20: A 33-year-old man visits his psychiatrist with feelings of sadness on most days of the week for the past 4 weeks. He says that he is unable to participate in his daily activities and finds it hard to get out of bed on most days. If he has nothing scheduled for the day, he sometimes sleeps for 10–12 hours at a stretch. He has also noticed that on certain days, his legs feel heavy and he finds it difficult to walk, as though there are bricks tied to his feet. However, he is still able to attend social events and also enjoys playing with his children when he comes home from work. Other than these simple pleasures, he has lost interest in most of the activities he previously enjoyed. Another troubling fact is that he had gained weight over the past month, mainly because he eats so much when overcome by these feelings of depression. His is prescribed a medication to treat his symptoms. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug he was most likely prescribed?
A. Activates the γ-aminobutyric acid receptors
B. Inhibit the uptake of serotonin and norepinephrine at the presynaptic cleft (Correct Answer)
C. Works as an antagonist at the dopamine and serotonin receptors
D. Non-selectively inhibits monoamine oxidase A and B
E. Stimulates the release of norepinephrine and dopamine in the presynaptic cleft
Explanation: ***Inhibit the uptake of serotonin and norepinephrine at the presynaptic cleft***
- The patient presents with symptoms characteristic of **atypical depression**, including increased sleep (**hypersomnia**), increased appetite leading to weight gain, **leaden paralysis** (heavy feelings in the limbs), and **mood reactivity** (enjoying social events/playing with children).
- For initial treatment of atypical depression, **SSRIs** (e.g., fluoxetine, sertraline) and **SNRIs** (e.g., venlafaxine, duloxetine) are considered **first-line therapies** due to their favorable safety profile and efficacy.
- **SNRIs** address both serotonin and norepinephrine imbalances and are effective for atypical depression, particularly when there is significant fatigue or pain.
*Activates the γ-aminobutyric acid receptors*
- This mechanism describes **benzodiazepines** or other GABAergic drugs, which are typically used for anxiety, insomnia, or acute agitation.
- While they can provide symptomatic relief for anxiety associated with depression, they do not target the core depressive symptoms, lack antidepressant efficacy, and carry risk of dependence.
*Works as an antagonist at the dopamine and serotonin receptors*
- This mechanism describes **second-generation antipsychotics** (e.g., quetiapine, aripiprazole), which are primarily used to treat psychotic disorders or as adjuncts in severe depression with psychotic features or treatment-resistant depression.
- The patient's symptoms do not suggest psychotic features, and antipsychotics are not first-line treatment for uncomplicated atypical depression.
*Non-selectively inhibits monoamine oxidase A and B*
- This describes **non-selective MAOIs** (e.g., phenelzine, tranylcypromine), which are considered the **most effective** antidepressants for atypical depression based on clinical trials.
- However, MAOIs are typically reserved for **treatment-resistant depression** due to their significant side effect profile, dietary restrictions (tyramine-free diet to prevent **hypertensive crisis**), and drug interaction risks.
- Given this is an initial presentation without treatment failure, MAOIs would not be the first-line choice despite their superior efficacy.
*Stimulates the release of norepinephrine and dopamine in the presynaptic cleft*
- This mechanism could describe **amphetamines** or certain **wake-promoting agents**, which are not standard antidepressant treatments.
- **Bupropion** (an antidepressant) inhibits reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine but does not directly stimulate their release.
- Stimulants are occasionally used as adjuncts for treatment-resistant depression but are not first-line monotherapy due to abuse potential and limited evidence for long-term efficacy in depression.