A 21-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her roommate. Her roommate says that the patient has been acting “strangely” for the past 10 days. She has noticed that the patient has been moving and talking on the phone at all hours of the night. She doesn’t think that the patient sleeps more than one to two hours a night. She also spends hours pacing up and down the apartment, talking about “trying to save the world.” She also notices that the patient has been speaking very fast. When asking the patient if anything seems different, the patient denies anything wrong, only adding that, “she’s made great progress on her plans." The patient said she has felt like this on one occasion 2 years ago, and she recalled being hospitalized for about 2 weeks. She denies any history of depression, although she said about a year ago she had no energy and had a hard time motivating herself to go to class and see her friends for months. She denies hearing any voices or any visual hallucinations. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q42
A 37-year-old African American man is brought to the emergency department by police. The patient refused to leave a petting zoo after closing. He states that he has unique ideas to revolutionize the petting zoo experience. The patient has a past medical history of multiple suicide attempts. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient's cardiac and pulmonary exams are within normal limits. He denies any nausea, vomiting, shortness of breath, or systemic symptoms. The patient struggles to answer questions, as he is constantly changing the subject and speaking at a very rapid rate. The patient is kept in the emergency department overnight and is observed to not sleep and is very talkative with the nurses. Which of the following is the best long-term therapy for this patient?
Q43
A 22-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder presents to her psychiatrist’s office for a follow-up appointment. She says she is doing better on the new drug she was prescribed. However, she recently noticed that she is drinking a lot of water and urinates more frequently throughout the day. She also says there are moments recently when she feels confused and agitated. Her vitals include: blood pressure 122/89 mm Hg, temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), pulse 88/min and respirations 18/min. Her physical examination is within normal limits. Which of the following drugs was she most likely prescribed?
Q44
A 20-year-old woman is brought in by police for trying to break into a museum after hours. The patient states that she is a detective on the trail of a master collusion scheme and needs the artifacts from the museum to prove her case. Her family reports that she has been acting strangely for the past week. She has been up perusing the internet all night without taking breaks. Her husband states that she has had increased sexual interest for the past week; however, he did not report this to the physician when he first noticed it. The patient is unable to offer a history as she cannot be redirected from her current theory. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 122/81 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable only for a highly-energized patient. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Urine:
Color: Yellow
Nitrite: Negative
Bacteria: Negative
Leukocytes: Negative
hCG: Positive
Benzodiazepines: Negative
Barbiturate: Negative
Cocaine: Negative
Acetaminophen: Negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q45
A 58-year-old man with a past medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia was brought into the emergency department by his wife after she observed him go without sleep for several days and recently open and max out several credit cards. She also reports that he has quit his bartending job and has been excessively talkative and easily annoyed for the last several weeks. The patient has no previous psychiatric history. Routine medical examination, investigations, and toxicology rule out a medical cause or substance abuse. Lab results are consistent with chronically impaired renal function. What is the single best treatment for this patient?
Q46
A 28-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife because she is worried about his unusual behavior. Two weeks ago, he was promoted and is now convinced that he will soon take over the firm. He has been working overtime at the office and spends most of his nights at parties. Whenever he comes home, he asks his wife to have sex with him and rarely sleeps more than 3 hours. He has a history of a similar episode and several periods of depression over the past 2 years. He currently takes no medications. He appears impatient, repeatedly jumps up from his seat, and says, "I have more important things to do." There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Urine toxicology screening is negative. Long-term treatment with lithium is started. Which of the following endocrine parameters should be regularly monitored in this patient while he is undergoing treatment?
Bipolar disorder US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A 21-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her roommate. Her roommate says that the patient has been acting “strangely” for the past 10 days. She has noticed that the patient has been moving and talking on the phone at all hours of the night. She doesn’t think that the patient sleeps more than one to two hours a night. She also spends hours pacing up and down the apartment, talking about “trying to save the world.” She also notices that the patient has been speaking very fast. When asking the patient if anything seems different, the patient denies anything wrong, only adding that, “she’s made great progress on her plans." The patient said she has felt like this on one occasion 2 years ago, and she recalled being hospitalized for about 2 weeks. She denies any history of depression, although she said about a year ago she had no energy and had a hard time motivating herself to go to class and see her friends for months. She denies hearing any voices or any visual hallucinations. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Bipolar II disorder
B. Bipolar I disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Persistent Depressive Disorder
E. Schizoaffective disorder
Explanation: ***Bipolar I disorder***
- The patient exhibits clear symptoms of a **manic episode**, including decreased need for sleep, grandiosity ("saving the world"), pressured speech, and increased goal-directed activity, which are characteristic of Bipolar I disorder.
- The history of a prior hospitalization for similar symptoms ("felt like this on one occasion 2 years ago, and she recalled being hospitalized") and self-reported depressive episodes ("she had no energy... for months") further supports the diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder, which requires at least one manic episode.
*Bipolar II disorder*
- Bipolar II disorder involves at least one **hypomanic episode** and at least one major depressive episode.
- The severity of the patient's current symptoms, including significant functional impairment and a prior hospitalization for similar symptoms, indicates a **manic episode**, not a hypomanic episode.
*Major depressive disorder*
- This diagnosis is characterized solely by **major depressive episodes** without any history of manic or hypomanic episodes.
- The patient's presentation clearly includes symptoms of **mania**, ruling out a sole diagnosis of major depressive disorder.
*Persistent Depressive Disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by **chronic, mild depressive symptoms** lasting at least two years.
- The patient's current presentation of severe manic symptoms and past episodes of clear mania differentiates her condition from persistent depressive disorder.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- Schizoaffective disorder involves a period of uninterrupted illness during which there is a **major mood episode (depressive or manic) concurrent with symptoms of schizophrenia**, such as hallucinations or delusions, for at least two weeks in the absence of a major mood episode.
- The patient **denies hearing any voices or visual hallucinations**, making schizoaffective disorder less likely; her symptoms are primarily mood-related.
Question 42: A 37-year-old African American man is brought to the emergency department by police. The patient refused to leave a petting zoo after closing. He states that he has unique ideas to revolutionize the petting zoo experience. The patient has a past medical history of multiple suicide attempts. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient's cardiac and pulmonary exams are within normal limits. He denies any nausea, vomiting, shortness of breath, or systemic symptoms. The patient struggles to answer questions, as he is constantly changing the subject and speaking at a very rapid rate. The patient is kept in the emergency department overnight and is observed to not sleep and is very talkative with the nurses. Which of the following is the best long-term therapy for this patient?
A. Haloperidol
B. Lithium (Correct Answer)
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Valproic acid
E. Risperidone
Explanation: ***Lithium***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **mania**, including grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and flight of ideas, suggesting **bipolar I disorder**.
- **Lithium** is considered a first-line agent and the best long-term maintenance therapy for **bipolar I disorder**, effective in reducing both manic and depressive episodes and decreasing suicide risk.
*Haloperidol*
- **Haloperidol** is a potent typical antipsychotic primarily used for acute management of severe agitation, psychosis, or manic episodes due to its rapid tranquilizing effects.
- While it could be used for immediate symptom control, it is not the **best long-term therapy** for mood stabilization in bipolar disorder and carries a high risk of **extrapyramidal side effects**.
*Diphenhydramine*
- **Diphenhydramine** is an antihistamine with sedative properties, sometimes used for mild insomnia or allergic reactions, but it has no role in the treatment of acute mania or the long-term management of bipolar disorder.
- It would not address the underlying mood dysregulation and behavioral symptoms seen in this patient's presentation.
*Valproic acid*
- **Valproic acid** (divalproex) is an effective mood stabilizer used for bipolar disorder, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate lithium or have rapid cycling.
- However, for long-term therapy and overall efficacy, especially considering lithium's proven benefits in reducing suicidality, **lithium** is generally considered the preferred first-line agent, although valproic acid is a strong alternative.
*Risperidone*
- **Risperidone** is an atypical antipsychotic, primarily used for acute mania or as an adjunct in bipolar depression, and in schizophrenia.
- While useful for acute symptom management of psychosis and agitation in bipolar disorder, it is not typically the sole **best long-term maintenance monotherapy** compared to mood stabilizers like lithium, which directly target the mood swings.
Question 43: A 22-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder presents to her psychiatrist’s office for a follow-up appointment. She says she is doing better on the new drug she was prescribed. However, she recently noticed that she is drinking a lot of water and urinates more frequently throughout the day. She also says there are moments recently when she feels confused and agitated. Her vitals include: blood pressure 122/89 mm Hg, temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), pulse 88/min and respirations 18/min. Her physical examination is within normal limits. Which of the following drugs was she most likely prescribed?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Carbamazepine
C. Lithium (Correct Answer)
D. Amitriptyline
E. Valproic acid
Explanation: ***Lithium***
- The patient's symptoms of **polyuria**, **polydipsia**, **confusion**, and **agitation** are consistent with **lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus** and potential early neurotoxicity.
- **Lithium** is a common mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder but has a narrow therapeutic window. **Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus** occurs in up to 40% of patients on chronic lithium therapy due to impaired renal response to ADH.
- The CNS symptoms (confusion, agitation) may indicate lithium levels approaching or in the toxic range, warranting serum level monitoring.
*Chlorpromazine*
- This is a first-generation antipsychotic often used for psychosis and mania, but it is more commonly associated with **extrapyramidal symptoms**, **sedation**, and **orthostatic hypotension**.
- It does not typically cause the triad of polyuria, polydipsia, and confusion suggestive of the patient's presentation.
*Carbamazepine*
- An anticonvulsant used as a mood stabilizer, it is known for adverse effects such as **drowsiness**, **dizziness**, **ataxia**, and **hyponatremia** (due to SIADH).
- While it can cause neurological symptoms, the described polyuria and polydipsia are not typical side effects.
*Amitriptyline*
- This is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) and is not a first-line treatment for bipolar disorder due to the risk of inducing **mania**.
- Its side effects include **anticholinergic effects** (dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention), **sedation**, and **cardiac arrhythmias**, which differ from the patient's symptoms.
*Valproic acid*
- An anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer, it can cause **gastrointestinal upset**, **tremor**, **sedation**, and **hepatic dysfunction**.
- While therapeutic monitoring is important, **polyuria** and **polydipsia** are not characteristic side effects, differentiating it from the patient's presentation.
Question 44: A 20-year-old woman is brought in by police for trying to break into a museum after hours. The patient states that she is a detective on the trail of a master collusion scheme and needs the artifacts from the museum to prove her case. Her family reports that she has been acting strangely for the past week. She has been up perusing the internet all night without taking breaks. Her husband states that she has had increased sexual interest for the past week; however, he did not report this to the physician when he first noticed it. The patient is unable to offer a history as she cannot be redirected from her current theory. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 122/81 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable only for a highly-energized patient. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Urine:
Color: Yellow
Nitrite: Negative
Bacteria: Negative
Leukocytes: Negative
hCG: Positive
Benzodiazepines: Negative
Barbiturate: Negative
Cocaine: Negative
Acetaminophen: Negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Lithium
B. Valproic acid
C. Fluoxetine
D. Haloperidol (Correct Answer)
E. Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation: ***Haloperidol***
- The patient is presenting with acute **mania** with psychotic features (delusions of being a detective) and behavioral disorganization (trying to break into a museum), requiring rapid tranquilization.
- **Haloperidol** is a potent **first-generation antipsychotic** effective for acute agitation and psychotic symptoms in mania, offering rapid symptom control.
- **Pregnancy consideration:** The patient's **positive hCG** is significant. Haloperidol is **relatively safe in pregnancy** (FDA Category C) and is appropriate for acute behavioral emergencies when immediate control is needed.
*Lithium*
- While **lithium** is a first-line mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, it has a **slow onset of action** (weeks) and is not suitable for acute behavioral emergencies or rapid tranquilization.
- **Contraindicated in pregnancy** (especially first trimester) due to risk of **Ebstein's anomaly** and other cardiac malformations (FDA Category D).
*Valproic acid*
- **Valproic acid** is another effective mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, but like lithium, it has a **relatively slow onset of action** and is not indicated for acute agitation or psychosis requiring immediate control.
- **Highly teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy**, with risks including neural tube defects, developmental delays, and reduced IQ (FDA Category D/X).
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is an antidepressant and is generally **contraindicated as monotherapy** in bipolar disorder due to the risk of inducing or worsening manic episodes, especially in patients with acute mania.
- It could exacerbate the patient's current hyperactive, agitated state.
*Electroconvulsive therapy*
- **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is a highly effective treatment for severe mania and is considered **safe in pregnancy** with no teratogenic risk.
- While ECT is an excellent option for pregnant patients with severe bipolar disorder, it is typically reserved for cases that are **refractory to pharmacotherapy**, when rapid definitive response is needed due to life-threatening complications, or when severe symptoms persist despite medication.
- In this acute behavioral emergency, **pharmacologic rapid tranquilization with haloperidol is the more appropriate immediate next step**, with ECT considered if the patient does not respond to initial management.
Question 45: A 58-year-old man with a past medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia was brought into the emergency department by his wife after she observed him go without sleep for several days and recently open and max out several credit cards. She also reports that he has quit his bartending job and has been excessively talkative and easily annoyed for the last several weeks. The patient has no previous psychiatric history. Routine medical examination, investigations, and toxicology rule out a medical cause or substance abuse. Lab results are consistent with chronically impaired renal function. What is the single best treatment for this patient?
A. Valproic acid (Correct Answer)
B. Lithium
C. Gabapentin
D. Pregabalin
E. Lamotrigine
Explanation: ***Valproic acid***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **acute mania (Bipolar I disorder)**, including decreased need for sleep, impulsivity (maxing out credit cards), grandiosity (quitting job), pressured speech (excessively talkative), and irritability. **Valproic acid** is a first-line treatment for **acute mania**, particularly when kidney function is impaired.
- Given the patient's **chronically impaired renal function**, valproic acid is preferred over lithium as its excretion is primarily hepatic, minimizing the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity in the context of renal impairment.
*Lithium*
- While **lithium** is a highly effective mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, it is predominantly cleared renally.
- The patient's **impaired renal function** would significantly increase the risk of **lithium toxicity**, making it a less safe and unsuitable choice in this scenario.
*Gabapentin*
- **Gabapentin** is an anticonvulsant primarily used for neuropathic pain and seizure disorders, sometimes used off-label as an adjunct for anxiety or sleep.
- It is **not a primary mood stabilizer** and lacks sufficient evidence for monotherapy treatment of acute mania in bipolar disorder.
*Pregabalin*
- **Pregabalin**, similar to gabapentin, is an anticonvulsant and neuropathic pain medication.
- It is **not indicated as a first-line treatment** for acute mania due to insufficient efficacy as a mood stabilizer.
*Lamotrigine*
- **Lamotrigine** is an effective mood stabilizer, particularly for the **depressive phases of bipolar disorder**, and for maintenance therapy.
- However, it has limited efficacy in treating **acute manic episodes**, making it less suitable for the patient's current presentation.
Question 46: A 28-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife because she is worried about his unusual behavior. Two weeks ago, he was promoted and is now convinced that he will soon take over the firm. He has been working overtime at the office and spends most of his nights at parties. Whenever he comes home, he asks his wife to have sex with him and rarely sleeps more than 3 hours. He has a history of a similar episode and several periods of depression over the past 2 years. He currently takes no medications. He appears impatient, repeatedly jumps up from his seat, and says, "I have more important things to do." There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Urine toxicology screening is negative. Long-term treatment with lithium is started. Which of the following endocrine parameters should be regularly monitored in this patient while he is undergoing treatment?
A. Complete blood count with differential
B. Serum creatinine
C. Serum aminotransferases
D. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (Correct Answer)
E. Serum lithium levels
Explanation: ***Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone***
- **Lithium** can cause **hypothyroidism** due to its inhibitory effects on thyroid hormone synthesis and release, making it crucial to monitor **TSH** levels regularly.
- Long-term lithium use has been associated with a higher incidence of **goiter** and frank hypothyroidism, necessitating close endocrine surveillance.
*Complete blood count with differential*
- While **lithium** can cause **leukocytosis**, monitoring a CBC with differential is generally not a primary endocrine parameter for lithium toxicity.
- Neutrophilia is a common but usually benign side effect, not directly indicating endocrine dysfunction.
*Serum creatinine*
- **Lithium** is primarily excreted by the **kidneys**, and long-term use can lead to **chronic kidney disease** and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, requiring monitoring of **serum creatinine**.
- Although essential for monitoring renal function, serum creatinine is a renal parameter, not an endocrine one.
*Serum aminotransferases*
- Monitoring **serum aminotransferases** (e.g., ALT, AST) is important for drugs that cause **hepatotoxicity**, but lithium is not primarily associated with significant liver damage.
- While liver function can be affected by various medications, it is not a specific or prominent endocrine side effect of lithium.
*Serum lithium levels*
- Monitoring **serum lithium levels** is critical to ensure therapeutic efficacy and prevent **toxicity**, as it has a narrow therapeutic window.
- While vital for patient safety, this is a direct drug level measurement, not an endocrine parameter reflecting hormonal function.