A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife due to unusual behavior for the past week. She has noted several incidents when he spoke to her so fast that she could not understand what he was saying. She also says that one evening, he drove home naked after a night where he said he was ‘painting the town red’. She also says he has also been sleeping for about 2 hours a night and has barely had any sleep in the past 2 weeks. She says that he goes ‘to work’ in the morning every day, but she suspects that he has been doing other things. She denies any knowledge of similar symptoms in the past. On physical examination, the patient appears agitated and is pacing the exam room. He compliments the cleanliness of the floors, recommends the hospital change to the metric system, and asks if anyone else can hear ‘that ringing’. Laboratory results are unremarkable. The patient denies any suicidal or homicidal ideations. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q32
A 40-year-old man who was previously antisocial, low energy at work, and not keen to attend office parties was arrested and brought to the emergency department after he showed up to the office Christmas party out of control. He was noted to be very energetic and irritable. He spent the entire evening hijacking conversations and sharing his plans for the company that will save it from inevitable ruin. What other finding are you most likely to find in this patient’s current condition?
Q33
A 26-year-old female college student is brought back into the university clinic for acting uncharacteristically. The patient presented to the same clinic 6 weeks ago with complaints of depressed mood, insomnia, and weightloss. She had been feeling guilty for wasting her parent’s money by doing so poorly at the university. She felt drained for at least 2 weeks before presenting to the clinic for the first time. She was placed on an antidepressant and was improving but now presents with elevated mood. She is more talkative with a flight of ideas and is easily distractible. Which of the following statements is most likely true regarding this patient’s condition?
Q34
A 22-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by campus police for bizarre behavior. She was arrested while trying to break into her university's supercomputer center and was found crying and claiming she needs access to the high-powered processors immediately. Her boyfriend arrived at the hospital and reports that, over the past week, she has been staying up all night working on ‘various projects’. A review of her electronic medical record reveals that she was seen at student health 1 week ago for low energy and depressed mood, for which treatment was started. In the emergency department, she continues to appear agitated, pacing around the room and scolding staff for stopping her from her important work. Her speech is pressured, but she exhibits no evidence of visual or auditory hallucinations. The physical exam is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following medications most likely precipitated this patient’s event?
Q35
A 27-year-old man with seizure disorder is brought to the emergency department by his girlfriend after falling while climbing a building. The girlfriend reports that he was started on a new medication for treatment of depressed mood, low energy, and difficulty sleeping 2 weeks ago by his physician. She says that he has had unstable emotions for several months. Over the past 3 days, he has not slept and has spent all his time “training to climb Everest.” He has never climbed before this period. He also spent all of his savings buying mountain climbing gear. Physical examination shows ecchymoses over his right upper extremity, pressured speech, and easy distractibility. He is alert but not oriented to place. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of this patient's current behavior?
Q36
A 35-year-old female presents to her PCP at the request of her husband after 3 weeks of erratic behavior. The patient has been staying up all night online shopping on eBay. Despite a lack of sleep, she is "full of energy" during the day at her teaching job, which she believes is "beneath [her], anyway." She has not sought psychiatric treatment in the past, but reports an episode of self-diagnosed depression 2 years ago. The patient denies thoughts of suicide. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?
Q37
A 35-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his wife. The patient’s wife says his last visit was 3 years ago for an episode of depression. At that time, he was prescribed fluoxetine, which he did not take because he believed that his symptoms would subside on their own. A few months later, his wife says that he suddenly came out of his feelings of ‘depression’ and began to be more excitable and show pressured speech. She observed that he slept very little but had a heightened interest in sexual activity. This lasted for a few weeks, and he went back to his depressed state. He has continued to experience feelings of sadness and shows a lack of concentration at work. She often finds him crying, and he also expresses feelings of guilt for all the wrongs he allegedly did to her and to the family. There was a week where he had a brief time of excitability and was considering donating all their savings to a local charity. She is highly perturbed by his behavior and often finds it hard to predict what his mood will be like next. The patient denies any suicidal or homicidal ideations. A urine toxicology screen is negative. All laboratory tests, including thyroid hormone levels, are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis in this patient?
Q38
A previously healthy 13-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because of a change in behavior. The mother reports that over the past 6 months, her daughter has had frequent mood swings. Sometimes, she is irritable for several days and loses her temper easily. In between these episodes, she behaves “normal,” spends time with her friends, and participates in gymnastics training twice a week. The mother has also noticed that her daughter needs more time than usual to get ready for school. Sometimes, she puts on excessive make-up. One month ago, her teacher had informed the parents that their daughter had skipped school and was seen at the local mall with one of her classmates instead. The patient reports that she often feels tired, especially when she has to wake up early for school. On the weekends, she sleeps until 1 pm. Menses have occurred at 15- to 45-day intervals since menarche at the age of 12 years; they are not associated with abdominal discomfort or functional impairment. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's behavior?
Q39
A 32-year-old woman with bipolar disorder visits her gynecologist because she believes she is pregnant. A urine pregnancy test is performed which confirms she is pregnant. She has mild bipolar disorder for which she takes lithium and admits that she has been taking it ‘on and off’ for 2 years now but has never had any symptoms or episodes of relapse. She says that she had not made contact with her psychiatrist for the past several months because she ‘couldn’t find any time.’ Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q40
A 23-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services. She was found trying to hang herself in her kitchen. The patient has a past medical history of drug abuse, alcoholism, anxiety, mania, irritable bowel syndrome, and hypertension. Her current medications include naltrexone, sodium docusate, and clonazepam as needed. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. On physical exam, you note a teary young woman. There are multiple bilateral superficial cuts along her wrists. The patient's cardiac and pulmonary exams are within normal limits. Neurological exam reveals a patient who is alert and oriented. The patient claims that you cannot send her home because if you do she will kill herself. Laboratory values are ordered and return as below.
Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL
Hematocrit: 40%
Leukocyte count: 4,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 197,500/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 90 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
The patient is transferred to the crisis intervention unit. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Bipolar disorder US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife due to unusual behavior for the past week. She has noted several incidents when he spoke to her so fast that she could not understand what he was saying. She also says that one evening, he drove home naked after a night where he said he was ‘painting the town red’. She also says he has also been sleeping for about 2 hours a night and has barely had any sleep in the past 2 weeks. She says that he goes ‘to work’ in the morning every day, but she suspects that he has been doing other things. She denies any knowledge of similar symptoms in the past. On physical examination, the patient appears agitated and is pacing the exam room. He compliments the cleanliness of the floors, recommends the hospital change to the metric system, and asks if anyone else can hear ‘that ringing’. Laboratory results are unremarkable. The patient denies any suicidal or homicidal ideations. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Schizoaffective disorder
B. Bipolar disorder, type II
C. Bipolar disorder, type I (Correct Answer)
D. Major depressive disorder
E. Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation: ***Bipolar disorder, type I***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of a **manic episode**, including **pressured speech**, **decreased need for sleep**, **reckless behavior** (driving naked), and **grandiosity** (recommending metric system, believing he's "painting the town red").
- The presence of **psychotic features** like auditory hallucinations ("can hear that ringing") further supports a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder with psychotic features, as these symptoms occur during the manic episode.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- This disorder requires the presence of an **uninterrupted period of illness** during which there is a **major mood episode** (depressive or manic) concurrent with symptoms of **schizophrenia**.
- Additionally, for a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder, there must be **delusions or hallucinations for at least 2 weeks** in the absence of a major mood episode. This patient's symptoms appear to be primarily mood-driven.
*Bipolar disorder, type II*
- Bipolar II disorder is characterized by at least one **hypomanic episode** and at least one **major depressive episode**.
- The patient's symptoms are severe enough to constitute a **manic episode** (e.g., significant impairment, psychotic features), not merely a hypomanic episode.
*Major depressive disorder*
- Major depressive disorder involves symptoms such as **depressed mood**, **anhedonia**, changes in sleep or appetite, fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt.
- The patient's presentation is dominated by elevated mood, increased energy, and psychotic features, which are inconsistent with a primary diagnosis of major depressive disorder.
*Brief psychotic disorder*
- This disorder involves a sudden onset of **psychotic symptoms** lasting less than one month, followed by a **full return to premorbid functioning**.
- While psychotic symptoms are present, the pervasive mood disturbance (mania) is the primary driver of the presentation, making a primary psychotic disorder less likely.
Question 32: A 40-year-old man who was previously antisocial, low energy at work, and not keen to attend office parties was arrested and brought to the emergency department after he showed up to the office Christmas party out of control. He was noted to be very energetic and irritable. He spent the entire evening hijacking conversations and sharing his plans for the company that will save it from inevitable ruin. What other finding are you most likely to find in this patient’s current condition?
A. History of major depressive episodes
B. Patient completing numerous outstanding projects
C. Rapid but interruptible speech pattern (Correct Answer)
D. Decreased need for sleep
E. Irresponsibility
Explanation: ***Rapid but interruptible speech pattern***
- The patient's presentation of "hijacking conversations" and "sharing his plans" directly demonstrates **pressured speech**, which is a classic and immediately observable symptom of **mania** or **hypomania**.
- **Pressured speech** is rapid, difficult to interrupt, and represents a direct behavioral finding that would be evident during the clinical encounter described.
- This is the **most directly observable finding** based on the behavior described in the scenario.
*History of major depressive episodes*
- While patients with **Bipolar Disorder Type I or II** often have a history of depressive episodes, and this patient's baseline "low energy" suggests past depression, the question asks about findings in the **current condition** (manic episode).
- A history of depression would support the diagnosis of bipolar disorder but doesn't describe a current symptom.
*Patient completing numerous outstanding projects*
- While individuals in a **manic state** may have increased energy and initiate many projects, they typically **lack the focus and sustained attention to complete them** (goal-directed activity without completion).
- The described behavior of being "out of control" and "hijacking conversations" suggests disorganized, distractible behavior rather than effective productivity.
*Decreased need for sleep*
- **Decreased need for sleep** is indeed a core DSM-5 criterion for manic episodes and would almost certainly be present in this patient.
- However, the question asks what finding you would **find in this patient's current condition** during the emergency department evaluation. Sleep patterns would need to be elicited through history-taking rather than directly observed.
- In contrast, **pressured speech** would be immediately apparent during the encounter, making it the **most likely finding to observe** in real-time.
*Irresponsibility*
- While **poor judgment and irresponsibility** can be features of **manic episodes** (e.g., reckless spending, sexual indiscretions, risky behavior), "irresponsibility" is a vague term that refers more to a pattern of behavior rather than a specific psychiatric symptom.
- The scenario already demonstrates poor judgment (showing up "out of control" to a work party), making this redundant rather than an additional finding.
Question 33: A 26-year-old female college student is brought back into the university clinic for acting uncharacteristically. The patient presented to the same clinic 6 weeks ago with complaints of depressed mood, insomnia, and weightloss. She had been feeling guilty for wasting her parent’s money by doing so poorly at the university. She felt drained for at least 2 weeks before presenting to the clinic for the first time. She was placed on an antidepressant and was improving but now presents with elevated mood. She is more talkative with a flight of ideas and is easily distractible. Which of the following statements is most likely true regarding this patient’s condition?
A. The patient may have psychotic features.
B. Her diagnosis of unipolar depression is incorrect. (Correct Answer)
C. The patient may have a history of mania.
D. Antidepressants are inappropriate.
E. Her new symptoms need to last at least 7 days.
Explanation: ***Correct: Her diagnosis of unipolar depression is incorrect.***
The patient initially presented with symptoms consistent with a **depressive episode**, but the subsequent emergence of **elevated mood, increased talkativeness, flight of ideas, and distractibility after antidepressant use** strongly suggests a shift to a **manic or hypomanic episode**. This antidepressant-induced mood switch is a hallmark feature revealing **bipolar disorder** that was initially misdiagnosed as unipolar depression. This statement most directly addresses **what is true about this patient's condition** - that the fundamental diagnosis is incorrect. Once we establish the correct diagnosis of bipolar disorder, all treatment and management decisions follow from this.
*Incorrect: The patient may have psychotic features.*
While patients with severe **mania** can develop **psychotic features** (e.g., delusions, hallucinations), the provided symptoms (elevated mood, increased talkativeness, flight of ideas, distractibility) do not describe psychotic symptoms. There is no information suggesting the presence of **delusions or hallucinations**, which are necessary to diagnose psychotic features. The word "may" makes this theoretically possible but not supported by the clinical presentation described.
*Incorrect: The patient may have a history of mania.*
While patients with bipolar disorder often have previous undiagnosed episodes, this statement is speculative about her **past history** rather than addressing what is most directly evident from the **current presentation**. The vignette focuses on the antidepressant-induced mood switch, which immediately reveals that the current diagnosis of unipolar depression is incorrect. Whether or not she had previous manic episodes is less relevant than recognizing the misdiagnosis now.
*Incorrect: Antidepressants are inappropriate.*
This statement is clinically **true in principle** - antidepressants as monotherapy are generally inappropriate for bipolar disorder due to the risk of inducing mania or hypomania. However, this option addresses **treatment implications** rather than directly stating what is true about **the patient's condition itself**. The more fundamental and direct truth is that **her diagnosis is wrong** (bipolar, not unipolar depression). Once the correct diagnosis is established, then the inappropriateness of antidepressant monotherapy follows. Additionally, at the time of initial presentation with pure depressive symptoms, the antidepressant prescription was reasonable based on the information available - the inappropriateness only became clear retrospectively after the mood switch occurred.
*Incorrect: Her new symptoms need to last at least 7 days.*
For a diagnosis of **mania**, symptoms must last at least **one week** (or any duration if hospitalization is required). However, for **hypomania**, symptoms need to last only **4 consecutive days**. The vignette does not specify whether this is mania or hypomania, nor does it clearly state the duration of the current symptoms beyond "now presents." Therefore, we cannot definitively say a 7-day duration is required - it could be hypomania requiring only 4 days. This statement is not necessarily true.
Question 34: A 22-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by campus police for bizarre behavior. She was arrested while trying to break into her university's supercomputer center and was found crying and claiming she needs access to the high-powered processors immediately. Her boyfriend arrived at the hospital and reports that, over the past week, she has been staying up all night working on ‘various projects’. A review of her electronic medical record reveals that she was seen at student health 1 week ago for low energy and depressed mood, for which treatment was started. In the emergency department, she continues to appear agitated, pacing around the room and scolding staff for stopping her from her important work. Her speech is pressured, but she exhibits no evidence of visual or auditory hallucinations. The physical exam is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following medications most likely precipitated this patient’s event?
A. Lithium
B. Alprazolam
C. Sertraline (Correct Answer)
D. Valproate
E. Haloperidol
Explanation: ***Sertraline***
* The patient's presentation with **bizarre behavior**, **increased activity**, **pressured speech**, and **agitation** following treatment for depressed mood strongly suggests a **manic or hypomanic episode**.
* **Antidepressants**, especially SSRIs like sertraline, can **induce mania** or hypomania in individuals with undiagnosed **bipolar disorder**.
* *Lithium*
* Lithium is a **mood stabilizer** primarily used to treat and prevent episodes of **mania** and depression in bipolar disorder.
* It would be highly unlikely for lithium to precipitate a manic episode; rather, it would be used to **treat the manic symptoms**.
* *Alprazolam*
* Alprazolam is a **benzodiazepine** used for short-term treatment of anxiety and panic disorders, acting as a **central nervous system depressant**.
* It would typically cause **sedation or calmness**, not the agitation and increased energy seen in a manic episode.
* *Valproate*
* Valproate (valproic acid) is an **anticonvulsant** that is also used as a **mood stabilizer** in bipolar disorder, similar to lithium.
* Like lithium, it is prescribed to **treat manic symptoms** and prevent mood swings, making it an unlikely cause for this presentation.
* *Haloperidol*
* Haloperidol is a **first-generation antipsychotic** used to treat psychosis and acute agitation in various conditions, including mania.
* It would cause **sedation and antipsychotic effects**, reducing agitation and bizarre behavior, rather than inducing them.
Question 35: A 27-year-old man with seizure disorder is brought to the emergency department by his girlfriend after falling while climbing a building. The girlfriend reports that he was started on a new medication for treatment of depressed mood, low energy, and difficulty sleeping 2 weeks ago by his physician. She says that he has had unstable emotions for several months. Over the past 3 days, he has not slept and has spent all his time “training to climb Everest.” He has never climbed before this period. He also spent all of his savings buying mountain climbing gear. Physical examination shows ecchymoses over his right upper extremity, pressured speech, and easy distractibility. He is alert but not oriented to place. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of this patient's current behavior?
A. Quetiapine
B. Selegiline
C. Fluoxetine
D. Lithium
E. Venlafaxine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Venlafaxine***
- This patient exhibits symptoms of **mania**, including elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and reckless behavior (climbing a building, spending savings on climbing gear). The recent initiation of an antidepressant, particularly a **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)** like venlafaxine, can precipitate a manic episode in an individual with underlying bipolar disorder.
- The history of "unstable emotions for several months" further suggests undiagnosed bipolar disorder, making him susceptible to antidepressant-induced mania.
- **SNRIs carry a higher risk of precipitating mania** compared to SSRIs due to their noradrenergic effects.
*Quetiapine*
- **Quetiapine** is an atypical antipsychotic often used as a mood stabilizer and frequently prescribed for bipolar disorder, rather than causing mania.
- It would typically help to stabilize mood and reduce manic symptoms, and is also sedating, making insomnia less likely.
*Selegiline*
- **Selegiline** is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) often used for Parkinson's disease or major depressive disorder, but less commonly prescribed as a first-line antidepressant due to dietary restrictions and drug interactions.
- While MAOIs can activate some patients, they are not typically associated with the rapid onset and severity of mania described, especially as first-line treatment for a new mood complaint.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is an SSRI antidepressant commonly prescribed for major depressive disorder. While SSRIs can precipitate manic episodes in patients with underlying bipolar disorder, they generally carry a **lower risk** compared to SNRIs or tricyclic antidepressants.
- The timing and severity of mania in this case (3 days of no sleep, dangerous behavior) is more characteristic of SNRI-induced mania.
*Lithium*
- **Lithium** is a mood stabilizer and is a primary treatment for bipolar disorder, used to manage both manic and depressive episodes.
- It would be expected to *prevent* or *treat* manic symptoms, not cause them.
Question 36: A 35-year-old female presents to her PCP at the request of her husband after 3 weeks of erratic behavior. The patient has been staying up all night online shopping on eBay. Despite a lack of sleep, she is "full of energy" during the day at her teaching job, which she believes is "beneath [her], anyway." She has not sought psychiatric treatment in the past, but reports an episode of self-diagnosed depression 2 years ago. The patient denies thoughts of suicide. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?
A. Valproate
B. Haloperidol
C. Electroconvulsive therapy
D. Valproate and venlafaxine
E. Valproate and olanzapine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Valproate and olanzapine***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **acute mania**, including elevated mood (full of energy), decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity (online shopping), talkativeness, and grandiosity (job is "beneath her").
- An **antipsychotic** (olanzapine) is effective for rapid control of agitation and psychotic features often seen in acute mania, and a **mood stabilizer** (valproate) is crucial for long-term mood regulation.
*Valproate*
- While **valproate** is a good choice for **mood stabilization** in bipolar disorder, it may not be sufficient on its own for the rapid control of severe manic symptoms and associated agitation.
- In acute mania, particularly with prominent behavioral disturbances, an **antipsychotic** is often added to achieve quicker symptom resolution.
*Haloperidol*
- **Haloperidol** is an antipsychotic that could help with acute agitation and psychotic features, but it has a high risk of **extrapyramidal side effects** and does not provide mood stabilization.
- It is typically reserved for severe agitation or psychosis when other agents are less effective or contraindicated, and it's not ideal as a sole initial treatment given the need for mood stabilization.
*Electroconvulsive therapy*
- **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is a highly effective treatment for severe mania, especially when associated with psychosis, catatonia, or severe agitation/refractoriness to pharmacotherapy, but it is typically reserved for cases that are **refractory to medication** or are life-threatening due to its invasive nature.
- It is not considered a first-line initial treatment when pharmacotherapy can be safely and effectively initiated.
*Valproate and venlafaxine*
- Combining a **mood stabilizer** (valproate) with an **antidepressant** (venlafaxine) is generally avoided in acute mania as antidepressants can **exacerbate manic symptoms** or induce rapid cycling in bipolar disorder.
- Antidepressants are typically used with caution, if at all, and only after mood stabilization is achieved, and they are usually discontinued during acute manic episodes.
Question 37: A 35-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his wife. The patient’s wife says his last visit was 3 years ago for an episode of depression. At that time, he was prescribed fluoxetine, which he did not take because he believed that his symptoms would subside on their own. A few months later, his wife says that he suddenly came out of his feelings of ‘depression’ and began to be more excitable and show pressured speech. She observed that he slept very little but had a heightened interest in sexual activity. This lasted for a few weeks, and he went back to his depressed state. He has continued to experience feelings of sadness and shows a lack of concentration at work. She often finds him crying, and he also expresses feelings of guilt for all the wrongs he allegedly did to her and to the family. There was a week where he had a brief time of excitability and was considering donating all their savings to a local charity. She is highly perturbed by his behavior and often finds it hard to predict what his mood will be like next. The patient denies any suicidal or homicidal ideations. A urine toxicology screen is negative. All laboratory tests, including thyroid hormone levels, are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis in this patient?
A. Bipolar disorder, type I (Correct Answer)
B. Cyclothymia
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Schizoaffective disorder
E. Dysthymia
Explanation: ***Bipolar disorder, type I***
- The patient experienced a clear **manic episode** characterized by **pressured speech**, **decreased need for sleep**, heightened interest in sexual activity, and impulsive financial decisions (donating savings). This manic episode, lasting for a few weeks, is sufficient to diagnose bipolar I disorder.
- The presence of recurrent depressive episodes and alternating mood states, along with a distinct manic episode, confirms the diagnosis of **Bipolar I disorder**.
*Cyclothymia*
- This involves numerous periods of **hypomanic symptoms** and numerous periods of depressive symptoms for at least two years, but the symptoms are not severe enough to meet the full criteria for a hypomanic or major depressive episode.
- The described manic episode, especially the "heightened interest in sexual activity" and "considering donating all their savings," is too severe and extensive to be classified as merely hypomanic.
*Major depressive disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by one or more major depressive episodes without any history of manic or hypomanic episodes.
- The patient's history clearly includes a distinct **manic episode**, which rules out a diagnosis of major depressive disorder.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- This disorder involves a period of uninterrupted illness during which there is a **major mood episode (depressive or manic)** concurrent with symptoms of **schizophrenia**.
- While there are mood fluctuations, there are no reported **psychotic symptoms** (e.g., hallucinations, delusions apart from mood-congruent guilt) presented in the absence of a major mood episode, which is a key diagnostic criterion for schizoaffective disorder.
*Dysthymia*
- Also known as **persistent depressive disorder**, this involves chronic low-grade depression lasting for at least two years, with symptoms that are less severe than a major depressive episode.
- The patient's history includes clear **major depressive episodes** and, critically, a **manic episode**, which is inconsistent with dysthymia.
Question 38: A previously healthy 13-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because of a change in behavior. The mother reports that over the past 6 months, her daughter has had frequent mood swings. Sometimes, she is irritable for several days and loses her temper easily. In between these episodes, she behaves “normal,” spends time with her friends, and participates in gymnastics training twice a week. The mother has also noticed that her daughter needs more time than usual to get ready for school. Sometimes, she puts on excessive make-up. One month ago, her teacher had informed the parents that their daughter had skipped school and was seen at the local mall with one of her classmates instead. The patient reports that she often feels tired, especially when she has to wake up early for school. On the weekends, she sleeps until 1 pm. Menses have occurred at 15- to 45-day intervals since menarche at the age of 12 years; they are not associated with abdominal discomfort or functional impairment. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's behavior?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Premenstrual syndrome
C. Borderline personality disorder
D. Normal behavior (Correct Answer)
E. Bipolar disorder
Explanation: ***Normal behavior***
* The patient's behavior, including **mood swings**, irritability, increased sleep, and occasional boundary-testing (skipping school), is consistent with typical **adolescent development** and the challenges of this developmental stage.
* The absence of significant functional impairment, her continued engagement in activities like gymnastics, and the intermittent nature of the symptoms suggest that her behavior falls within the **normal range of adolescent growth and exploration**.
*Major depressive disorder*
* **Major depressive disorder** would typically involve more persistent and pervasive symptoms of **depressed mood** or **anhedonia** (loss of interest or pleasure) for at least two weeks, along with other symptoms like significant weight changes, insomnia/hypersomnia, psychomotor agitation/retardation, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness/guilt, difficulty concentrating, or recurrent thoughts of death.
* While she experiences tiredness and increased sleep, her ability to engage in gymnastics and spend time with friends, along with periods of "normal" behavior, does not align with the diagnostic criteria for **major depressive disorder**, which implies more constant functional impairment.
*Premenstrual syndrome*
* **Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)** symptoms are directly linked to the **luteal phase** of the menstrual cycle, consistently resolving with menstruation or shortly thereafter.
* The patient's mood swings and other behavioral changes are reported over a 6-month period and are not explicitly tied to her 15- to 45-day menstrual cycle, making **PMS** less likely.
*Borderline personality disorder*
* **Borderline personality disorder** is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **instability of interpersonal relationships**, self-image, affects, and marked impulsivity, often including features like frantic efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable self-image or sense of self, impulsivity in at least two areas that are potentially self-damaging, recurrent suicidal behavior or self-mutilation, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, intense anger, and transient stress-related paranoid ideation or severe dissociative symptoms.
* While mood swings are present, the overall clinical picture does not align with the severe and persistent functional impairment and specific diagnostic criteria for **borderline personality disorder**, especially in adolescence where such a diagnosis is made with caution.
*Bipolar disorder*
* **Bipolar disorder** involves distinct periods of elevated, expansive, or irritable mood (manic or hypomanic episodes) alternating with depressive episodes.
* While the patient experiences mood swings and irritability, the description lacks the sustained and severe euphoric, expansive, or irritable mood, increased energy/activity, decreased need for sleep (rather than increased), and other classic symptoms (e.g., grandiosity, flight of ideas, risky behaviors) that define a **manic** or **hypomanic episode**, making **bipolar disorder** an unlikely diagnosis.
Question 39: A 32-year-old woman with bipolar disorder visits her gynecologist because she believes she is pregnant. A urine pregnancy test is performed which confirms she is pregnant. She has mild bipolar disorder for which she takes lithium and admits that she has been taking it ‘on and off’ for 2 years now but has never had any symptoms or episodes of relapse. She says that she had not made contact with her psychiatrist for the past several months because she ‘couldn’t find any time.’ Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Continue lithium administration through pregnancy and add lamotrigine
B. Taper lithium and administer valproate
C. Taper lithium and administer carbamazepine
D. Taper lithium and provide a prescription for clonazepam as needed
E. Continue lithium administration through pregnancy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Continue lithium administration through pregnancy***
- Given the available options, this is the **best choice** because the patient has been stable for 2 years on lithium, and **abrupt discontinuation** significantly increases the risk of **relapse** (up to 50-70% risk), which poses serious risks to both mother and fetus.
- While lithium carries teratogenic risks including **Ebstein's anomaly** (absolute risk ~0.05-0.1%, relative risk 2-3x baseline), the risk of **untreated bipolar disorder** during pregnancy includes poor prenatal care, substance abuse, risky behaviors, and postpartum psychosis.
- **Important clinical context**: In practice, this patient urgently needs **psychiatric consultation** for comprehensive risk-benefit assessment, potential dose adjustment, increased monitoring (lithium levels, fetal echocardiography at 18-20 weeks), and shared decision-making about continuing versus tapering lithium.
- For **mild bipolar disorder** with good stability, some guidelines suggest considering a taper in the first trimester, but this must be individualized and closely monitored.
*Continue lithium administration through pregnancy and add lamotrigine*
- Adding lamotrigine creates unnecessary **polypharmacy** and exposes the fetus to an additional medication when the patient has been stable on lithium monotherapy.
- While lamotrigine has a relatively favorable safety profile in pregnancy, there is no clinical indication for augmentation in a stable patient.
*Taper lithium and administer valproate*
- **Valproate is contraindicated in pregnancy** due to high rates of major congenital malformations (10-20%), including **neural tube defects** (1-5%), cardiac defects, and cognitive/developmental delays (IQ reduction of 7-10 points).
- This is never an appropriate option for women of childbearing potential.
*Taper lithium and administer carbamazepine*
- **Carbamazepine** carries significant teratogenic risk including **neural tube defects** (0.5-1%), craniofacial defects, and developmental delays, making it less safe than continuing lithium.
- Switching from a stable medication to one with known substantial risks is not justified.
*Taper lithium and provide a prescription for clonazepam as needed*
- **Clonazepam** is a benzodiazepine that provides only acute symptomatic relief, not mood stabilization for bipolar disorder.
- This would leave the patient **unprotected against mood episodes**, with high risk of manic or depressive relapse during pregnancy.
- Discontinuing effective prophylaxis is inappropriate without an adequate replacement strategy.
Question 40: A 23-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services. She was found trying to hang herself in her kitchen. The patient has a past medical history of drug abuse, alcoholism, anxiety, mania, irritable bowel syndrome, and hypertension. Her current medications include naltrexone, sodium docusate, and clonazepam as needed. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. On physical exam, you note a teary young woman. There are multiple bilateral superficial cuts along her wrists. The patient's cardiac and pulmonary exams are within normal limits. Neurological exam reveals a patient who is alert and oriented. The patient claims that you cannot send her home because if you do she will kill herself. Laboratory values are ordered and return as below.
Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL
Hematocrit: 40%
Leukocyte count: 4,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 197,500/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 90 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
The patient is transferred to the crisis intervention unit. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Haloperidol
B. Escitalopram
C. Diazepam
D. Fluoxetine
E. Lamotrigine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lamotrigine***
- The patient's history of **mania** and current **suicidal ideation** points towards a **bipolar disorder** presentation, for which **lamotrigine** is an excellent mood stabilizer.
- Lamotrigine is particularly effective in preventing the **depressive episodes** associated with bipolar disorder, which are often linked to suicidal thoughts and attempts.
*Haloperidol*
- **Haloperidol** is an **antipsychotic medication** primarily used for acute psychosis, agitation, or severe agitation in bipolar mania.
- While agitation might be present, the primary concern is the underlying mood dysregulation and suicidal risk, not acute psychosis.
*Escitalopram*
- **Escitalopram** is an **SSRI antidepressant**, generally avoided as monotherapy in bipolar disorder as it can precipitate **mania** or **rapid cycling**.
- Using an antidepressant alone in a patient with a history of mania can worsen their underlying mood instability.
*Diazepam*
- **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** used for acute anxiety or sedation.
- While it could help with immediate anxiety, it does not address the underlying mood disorder or reduce long-term suicidal risk; its use would be symptomatic and temporary.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is another **SSRI antidepressant** that, like escitalopram, can induce or exacerbate manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder if not co-administered with a mood stabilizer.
- While it treats depression, it is not suitable as a monotherapy for bipolar depression due to the risk of mood destabilization.