A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her roommate because of bizarre behavior and incoherent talkativeness for the past week. Her roommate reports that the patient has been rearranging the furniture in her room at night and has ordered a variety of expensive clothes online. The patient says she feels “better than ever” and has a lot of energy. She had absence seizures as a child and remembers that valproate had to be discontinued because it damaged her liver. She has been otherwise healthy and is not taking any medication. She is sexually active with her boyfriend. She does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. Physical and neurologic examinations show no abnormalities. Her pulse is 78/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 122/60 mm Hg. Mental status examination shows pressured and disorganized speech, flight of ideas, lack of insight, and affective lability. Which of the following is the best initial step before deciding on a therapy for this patient's condition?
Q22
A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by police officers due to inappropriate public behavior. He was at a pharmacy demanding to speak with the manager so he could discuss a business deal. Two weeks ago, he left his wife of 10 years and moved from another city in order to pursue his dreams of being an entrepreneur. He has not slept for more than 3-4 hours a night in the last 2 weeks. He has a history of bipolar disorder and diabetes. He has been hospitalized three times in the last year for mood instability. Current medications include lithium and insulin. Mental status examination shows accelerated speech with flight of ideas. His serum creatinine concentration is 2.5 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management with respect to his behavior?
Q23
A 23-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric emergency room after she was found naked in the street proclaiming that she was a prophet sent down from heaven to save the world. A review of the electronic medical record reveals that she has a history of an unspecified coagulation disorder. On exam, she speaks rapidly and makes inappropriate sexual comments about the physician. She is alert and oriented to person but not place, time, or situation. She is easily distracted and reports that she has not slept in 3 days. She is involuntarily admitted and is treated appropriately. Her symptoms improve and she is discharged 4 days later. She misses multiple outpatient psychiatric appointments after discharge. She is seen 5 months later and reports feeling better and that she is 3 months pregnant. Her fetus is at an increased risk for developing which of the following?
Q24
A 22-year-old male with a history of difficult-to-treat bipolar disorder with psychotic features is undergoing a medication adjustment under the guidance of his psychiatrist. The patient was previously treated with lithium and is transitioning to clozapine. Which of the following tests will the patient need routinely?
Q25
A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up visit. She has a 2-year history of depressed mood and fatigue accompanied by early morning awakening. One week ago, she started feeling a decrease in her need for sleep and now feels rested after about 5 hours of sleep per night. She had two similar episodes that occurred 6 months ago and a year ago, respectively. She reports increased energy and libido. She has a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight loss over the past month. She does not feel the need to eat and says she derives her energy ""from the universe"". She enjoys her work as a librarian. She started taking fluoxetine 3 months ago. On mental exam, she is alert and oriented to time and place; she is irritable. She does not have auditory or visual hallucinations. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q26
A 28-year-old woman presents with continuous feelings of sadness and rejection. She says that over the past couple of weeks, she has been unable to concentrate on her job and has missed several days of work. She also has no interest in any activity and typically rejects invitations to go out with friends. She has no interest in food or playing with her dog. Her husband is concerned about this change in behavior. A few months ago, she was very outgoing and made many plans with her friends. She remembers being easily distracted and also had several ‘brilliant ideas’ on what she should be doing with her life. She did not sleep much during that week, but now all she wants to do is lie in bed all day. She denies any suicidal or homicidal ideations. She has no past medical history and has never been hospitalized. Laboratory tests were normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q27
A 45-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife for the evaluation of abnormal sleep patterns that began 10 days ago. She reports that he has only been sleeping 2–3 hours nightly during this time and has been jogging for long periods of the night on the treadmill. The patient has also been excessively talkative and has missed work on several occasions to write emails to his friends and relatives to convince them to invest in a new business idea that he has had. He has chronic kidney disease requiring hemodialysis, but he has refused to take his medications because he believes that he is cured. Eight months ago, he had a 3-week long period of persistent sadness and was diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Mental status examination shows psychomotor agitation and pressured speech. Treatment of this patient's condition should include which of the following drugs?
Q28
A 57-year-old woman presents to the emergency department for laboratory abnormalities detected by her primary care physician. The patient went to her appointment complaining of difficulty using her hands and swelling of her arms and lower extremities. The patient has notably smooth skin that seems to have not aged considerably. Upon seeing her lab values, her physician sent her to the ED. The patient has a past medical history of multiple suicide attempts, bipolar disorder, obesity, diabetes, and anxiety. Her current medications include lithium, insulin, captopril, and clonazepam. The patient's laboratory values are below.
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
K+: 5.2 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
HCO3-: 20 mEq/L
BUN: 39 mg/dL
Glucose: 127 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.2 mg/dL
Ca2+: 8.4 mg/dL
The patient is restarted on her home medications. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 155/90 mmHg, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q29
A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife for evaluation of abnormal behavior that began 2 weeks ago. The patient has not slept in over a week and has been partying each night. He has never done this before. The patient has also been skipping work and purchased a car last week with money they had saved for their vacation to Italy. He has a past medical history of major depressive disorder and systemic lupus erythematosus. He normally drinks 2 beers per week but has been drinking 6–10 beers per day for the past two weeks. Current medications include hydroxychloroquine. He appears agitated and is wearing bright-colored mismatched clothing. His temperature is 36°C (96.8°F), pulse is 94/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, his speech is pressured and his thought process is tangential. A complete blood count, serum electrolytes, and liver enzyme activities are within the reference range; his serum creatinine is 1.8 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows 2+ proteinuria, and WBC casts. Toxicology screening is negative. This patient would most likely benefit from which of the following long-term treatments?
Q30
A 39-year-old man with a history of major depression is brought into the emergency department by his concerned daughter. She reports that he was recently let go from work because of his sudden and erratic behavior at work. He was noted to be making inappropriate sexual advances to his female co-workers which is very out of his character. He seemed to be full of energy, running on little to no sleep, trying to fix all the company's problems and at times arguing with some of the senior managers. During admission, he was uncooperative as he boasted about how he was right and that the managers were fools for not listening to his great ideas. What is the most appropriate initial treatment approach for this patient?
Bipolar disorder US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her roommate because of bizarre behavior and incoherent talkativeness for the past week. Her roommate reports that the patient has been rearranging the furniture in her room at night and has ordered a variety of expensive clothes online. The patient says she feels “better than ever” and has a lot of energy. She had absence seizures as a child and remembers that valproate had to be discontinued because it damaged her liver. She has been otherwise healthy and is not taking any medication. She is sexually active with her boyfriend. She does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. Physical and neurologic examinations show no abnormalities. Her pulse is 78/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 122/60 mm Hg. Mental status examination shows pressured and disorganized speech, flight of ideas, lack of insight, and affective lability. Which of the following is the best initial step before deciding on a therapy for this patient's condition?
A. Obtain CBC, liver function studies, and beta-HCG
B. Obtain TSH, β-hCG, and serum creatinine concentration (Correct Answer)
C. Obtain BMI, HbA1c, lipid levels, and prolactin levels
D. Perform urine drug testing and begin cognitive behavior therapy
E. Assess for suicidal ideation and obtain echocardiography
Explanation: ***Obtain TSH, β-hCG, and serum creatinine concentration***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **mania** (bizarre behavior, incoherent talkativeness, grandiosity, increased energy, pressured speech, flight of ideas). Before initiating treatment, it's crucial to rule out other medical conditions that can **mimic mania**, such as **hyperthyroidism** (TSH), **pregnancy** (β-hCG), or **kidney dysfunction** (creatinine), which can impact medication choice and dosage.
- TSH levels are essential as **hyperthyroidism** can cause symptoms like agitation, rapid speech, and increased energy, mimicking mania. A **pregnancy test (β-hCG)** is critical for women of childbearing age to ensure that any potential psychiatric medications are safe for both the mother and fetus. **Serum creatinine** helps assess kidney function, which is important for dosing many psychotropic medications eliminated by the kidneys.
*Obtain CBC, liver function studies, and beta-HCG*
- While a **β-hCG** is appropriate, **CBC** and **liver function studies (LFTs)** are typically obtained if there are specific concerns for anemia, infection, or liver damage (which the patient mentions about valproate in childhood, but there's no immediate indication for current LFTs before diagnosis confirmation).
- Although LFTs are important for certain antidepressant or mood stabilizer monitoring (e.g., valproate, carbamazepine), they are not the most immediate initial screen for ruling out medical mimics of mania in this context as **TSH** and **renal function** are more critical.
*Obtain BMI, HbA1c, lipid levels, and prolactin levels*
- These tests are important for **monitoring long-term metabolic side effects** of certain antipsychotics and mood stabilizers, but they are not the best initial steps for ruling out acute medical causes of manic symptoms.
- **BMI, HbA1c, and lipid levels** are typically assessed *after* diagnosis and initiation of treatment to establish a baseline for future metabolic monitoring. **Prolactin levels** might be checked if there is concern for hyperprolactinemia, which is a side effect of some antipsychotics, but not usually a cause of acute mania.
*Perform urine drug testing and begin cognitive behavior therapy*
- While **urine drug testing** is often performed in acute psychiatric presentations to rule out substance-induced mania, it is not listed as the *best initial step* alone, as other medical conditions also need to be ruled out concurrently.
- **Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)** is not an appropriate initial treatment for acute mania due to the patient's severe symptoms, lack of insight, and disorganized thought processes. **Pharmacotherapy** is the cornerstone of acute mania management.
*Assess for suicidal ideation and obtain echocardiography*
- Assessing for **suicidal ideation** is crucial in every psychiatric evaluation, but it is a mental status component rather than a diagnostic lab test. While important for patient safety, it doesn't rule out medical mimics of mania.
- **Echocardiography** is not indicated in the initial work-up of acute mania unless there are specific cardiac symptoms or a history that suggests underlying heart disease.
Question 22: A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by police officers due to inappropriate public behavior. He was at a pharmacy demanding to speak with the manager so he could discuss a business deal. Two weeks ago, he left his wife of 10 years and moved from another city in order to pursue his dreams of being an entrepreneur. He has not slept for more than 3-4 hours a night in the last 2 weeks. He has a history of bipolar disorder and diabetes. He has been hospitalized three times in the last year for mood instability. Current medications include lithium and insulin. Mental status examination shows accelerated speech with flight of ideas. His serum creatinine concentration is 2.5 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management with respect to his behavior?
A. Lithium and olanzapine
B. Valproic acid and quetiapine (Correct Answer)
C. Carbamazepine only
D. Clozapine only
E. Lithium and valproic acid
Explanation: ***Valproic acid and quetiapine***
- This patient presents with symptoms of **acute mania**, including **grandiosity**, **decreased need for sleep**, accelerated speech, and flight of ideas, in the context of bipolar disorder. His **elevated serum creatinine (2.5 mg/dL) indicates significant renal impairment**, which necessitates **lithium discontinuation**.
- The renal impairment may be due to **lithium-induced nephrotoxicity** (a known complication of chronic lithium therapy), making continuation of lithium both ineffective and potentially dangerous.
- **Valproic acid** is an effective mood stabilizer for acute mania and can be safely used in patients with renal impairment (hepatically metabolized), while **quetiapine**, an atypical antipsychotic, targets the psychotic symptoms and helps with **agitation and sleep disturbances**.
- This combination provides both mood stabilization and rapid control of acute manic symptoms.
*Lithium and olanzapine*
- The patient's **serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL indicates significant renal impairment**, making lithium, which is renally cleared and can be nephrotoxic, **contraindicated**.
- Continuing lithium in the setting of renal dysfunction increases risk of **lithium toxicity** and further renal damage.
- While olanzapine is effective for acute mania, continuing lithium would be unsafe given the patient's kidney function.
*Carbamazepine only*
- **Carbamazepine** is an alternative mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, but **monotherapy with carbamazepine is insufficient** for managing severe acute mania with psychotic features and significant agitation.
- This patient requires both a mood stabilizer and an antipsychotic for rapid stabilization.
- Additionally, carbamazepine requires monitoring for **hematologic and hepatic side effects**.
*Clozapine only*
- **Clozapine** is reserved for **treatment-resistant cases** of bipolar disorder or schizophrenia that have failed multiple other agents.
- It requires intensive monitoring for life-threatening side effects including **agranulocytosis** (weekly/biweekly CBC monitoring) and myocarditis.
- It is **not appropriate as a first-line agent** for acute manic stabilization in the emergency setting.
*Lithium and valproic acid*
- **Lithium is contraindicated** in this patient due to his **elevated serum creatinine (2.5 mg/dL)**, which indicates significant renal impairment.
- While valproic acid would be appropriate, combining it with lithium would pose serious safety risks given the renal dysfunction.
Question 23: A 23-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric emergency room after she was found naked in the street proclaiming that she was a prophet sent down from heaven to save the world. A review of the electronic medical record reveals that she has a history of an unspecified coagulation disorder. On exam, she speaks rapidly and makes inappropriate sexual comments about the physician. She is alert and oriented to person but not place, time, or situation. She is easily distracted and reports that she has not slept in 3 days. She is involuntarily admitted and is treated appropriately. Her symptoms improve and she is discharged 4 days later. She misses multiple outpatient psychiatric appointments after discharge. She is seen 5 months later and reports feeling better and that she is 3 months pregnant. Her fetus is at an increased risk for developing which of the following?
A. Sirenomelia
B. Failure of vertebral arch fusion (Correct Answer)
C. Cleft palate
D. Phocomelia
E. Atrialized right ventricle
Explanation: ***Failure of vertebral arch fusion***
- The patient's presentation (rapid speech, grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, hypersexuality, distractibility) is classic for a **manic episode**, consistent with **bipolar I disorder**
- First-line treatment for acute mania includes mood stabilizers, most commonly **valproate (valproic acid)** or lithium
- **Valproate** is associated with a **1-2% risk of neural tube defects** including spina bifida (failure of vertebral arch fusion) when exposed during the first trimester
- This represents the **highest teratogenic risk** among mood stabilizers for neural tube defects
- Given she was treated during her admission and is now 3 months pregnant (first trimester exposure), neural tube defects are a significant concern
*Atrialized right ventricle*
- This condition (**Ebstein anomaly**) is the classic teratogenic effect associated with **lithium** exposure during pregnancy
- The risk is approximately 0.05-0.1% (lower than previously thought)
- While lithium could have been used for her acute mania, **valproate is more commonly used as first-line therapy** and has a stronger association with the correct answer (neural tube defects)
- If lithium was used, this would be the primary fetal concern
*Sirenomelia*
- This rare congenital malformation (fused lower extremities resembling a mermaid) is associated with **maternal diabetes mellitus** and vascular disruption
- Not associated with mood stabilizer exposure
*Cleft palate*
- While various teratogens can increase cleft palate risk, this is **not a primary concern** with mood stabilizer exposure
- More commonly associated with anticonvulsants like phenytoin or maternal smoking
*Phocomelia*
- This limb malformation (proximal limb absence with hands/feet attached near trunk) is classically associated with **thalidomide** exposure
- Not related to mood stabilizer therapy
Question 24: A 22-year-old male with a history of difficult-to-treat bipolar disorder with psychotic features is undergoing a medication adjustment under the guidance of his psychiatrist. The patient was previously treated with lithium and is transitioning to clozapine. Which of the following tests will the patient need routinely?
A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone, prior to introducing the medication
B. Basic metabolic panel, weekly
C. Hemoglobin A1c, weekly
D. Dexamethasone suppression test, monthly
E. Complete blood count, weekly (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Complete blood count, weekly***
- **Clozapine** can cause **agranulocytosis** (a severe drop in white blood cell count), which is a potentially life-threatening side effect.
- Due to this risk, initial treatment with clozapine requires **weekly complete blood count (CBC)** monitoring to detect early signs of agranulocytosis.
*Thyroid-stimulating hormone, prior to introducing the medication*
- While initial thyroid function tests might be considered in the workup for bipolar disorder, routine and specific monitoring of **TSH** is not a primary requirement for **clozapine** initiation.
- **Lithium**, not clozapine, is more directly associated with thyroid dysfunction, so monitoring would be more relevant to the patient's previous medication.
*Basic metabolic panel, weekly*
- A **basic metabolic panel (BMP)** assesses **electrolyte levels**, **kidney function**, and **glucose**, which can be affected by various psychotropic medications.
- While important for overall health monitoring, a **weekly BMP** is not specifically mandated for **clozapine** due to the specific and severe risk of agranulocytosis.
*Hemoglobin A1c, weekly*
- **Clozapine** is associated with a risk of **metabolic side effects**, including **weight gain**, **dyslipidemia**, and **new-onset diabetes**.
- While **HbA1c** is used to monitor long-term glycemic control, it's typically checked less frequently (e.g., quarterly or annually) for metabolic monitoring, not weekly, and is not the primary immediate safety concern for clozapine.
*Dexamethasone suppression test, monthly*
- The **dexamethasone suppression test (DST)** is used to assess **adrenal gland function** and can be relevant in certain psychiatric conditions like **depression with melancholic features** or to rule out **Cushing's syndrome**.
- It is **not a routine monitoring test** for patients starting or on **clozapine** therapy.
Question 25: A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up visit. She has a 2-year history of depressed mood and fatigue accompanied by early morning awakening. One week ago, she started feeling a decrease in her need for sleep and now feels rested after about 5 hours of sleep per night. She had two similar episodes that occurred 6 months ago and a year ago, respectively. She reports increased energy and libido. She has a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight loss over the past month. She does not feel the need to eat and says she derives her energy ""from the universe"". She enjoys her work as a librarian. She started taking fluoxetine 3 months ago. On mental exam, she is alert and oriented to time and place; she is irritable. She does not have auditory or visual hallucinations. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Delusional disorder
B. Cyclothymic disorder
C. Schizoaffective disorder
D. Bipolar II disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Medication-induced bipolar disorder
Explanation: ***Bipolar II disorder***
- The patient meets criteria for **Bipolar II disorder**: at least one **hypomanic episode** (current presentation) and at least one **major depressive episode** (2-year history with recurrent episodes).
- Current hypomanic features include: **decreased need for sleep** (feels rested after 5 hours), **increased energy and libido**, **significant weight loss** (4 kg in one month), **irritability**, and grandiose thinking ("derives energy from the universe").
- She has had **recurrent depressive episodes** over 2 years (episodes 1 year ago and 6 months ago), fulfilling the major depressive episode requirement.
- While the hypomania emerged after starting **fluoxetine**, antidepressants commonly **unmask underlying bipolar disorder** rather than cause a separate medication-induced condition. The diagnosis remains **Bipolar II disorder** per DSM-5-TR when there is evidence of an underlying mood disorder pattern.
*Medication-induced bipolar disorder*
- Substance/medication-induced bipolar disorder requires that symptoms occur **exclusively during substance use** without evidence of an independent bipolar disorder.
- This patient's **recurrent pattern** of mood episodes (multiple depressive episodes over 2 years) suggests an **underlying bipolar disorder** that was unmasked by antidepressant treatment, not a purely medication-induced condition.
- The temporal relationship with fluoxetine is significant but represents **antidepressant-induced switching** in bipolar disorder, not a separate diagnostic entity.
*Delusional disorder*
- Requires **non-bizarre delusions** persisting for at least one month as the predominant feature, without prominent mood symptoms.
- This patient's primary presentation is a **mood episode** (hypomania) with the "universe" comment being part of her elevated/expansive mood rather than a fixed, systematized delusion.
- Functioning remains relatively intact (still enjoys her work).
*Cyclothymic disorder*
- Involves numerous periods of **hypomanic and depressive symptoms** for at least 2 years, but symptoms never meet full criteria for hypomanic or major depressive episodes.
- This patient has **full hypomanic and major depressive episodes**, making Bipolar II disorder the more appropriate diagnosis.
- The severity of her current symptoms (significant sleep reduction, 4-kg weight loss, marked functional changes) exceeds cyclothymic disorder.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- Requires a **major mood episode** concurrent with **criterion A symptoms of schizophrenia** (delusions, hallucinations) for at least 2 weeks, plus psychotic symptoms without mood symptoms for at least 2 weeks.
- This patient has **no hallucinations** and no clear psychotic symptoms independent of her mood state.
- Her elevated mood fully accounts for her presentation.
Question 26: A 28-year-old woman presents with continuous feelings of sadness and rejection. She says that over the past couple of weeks, she has been unable to concentrate on her job and has missed several days of work. She also has no interest in any activity and typically rejects invitations to go out with friends. She has no interest in food or playing with her dog. Her husband is concerned about this change in behavior. A few months ago, she was very outgoing and made many plans with her friends. She remembers being easily distracted and also had several ‘brilliant ideas’ on what she should be doing with her life. She did not sleep much during that week, but now all she wants to do is lie in bed all day. She denies any suicidal or homicidal ideations. She has no past medical history and has never been hospitalized. Laboratory tests were normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Dysthymia
C. Bipolar disorder, type II (Correct Answer)
D. Schizoaffective disorder
E. Bipolar disorder, type I
Explanation: ***Bipolar disorder, type II***
− This patient's current symptoms of profound **sadness, anhedonia, low energy, and social withdrawal** are indicative of a major depressive episode.
− The history of prior periods of **decreased need for sleep, brilliant ideas, and being easily distracted** suggests a hypomanic episode, a hallmark of bipolar disorder type II.
*Major depressive disorder*
− While the patient is currently experiencing a **major depressive episode**, the history of previous hypomanic symptoms rules out a diagnosis of unipolar major depressive disorder.
− **Major depressive disorder** does not include a history of manic or hypomanic episodes.
*Dysthymia*
− **Dysthymia** (persistent depressive disorder) is characterized by chronic, milder depressive symptoms lasting at least two years.
− The current episode is severe and marked by a clear change from a previous elevated mood state, which is inconsistent with dysthymia.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
− **Schizoaffective disorder** involves episodes of mood disturbance alongside symptoms of schizophrenia (e.g., hallucinations, delusions) that occur at least two weeks without prominent mood symptoms.
− This patient's symptoms are primarily mood-related and do not include psychotic features characteristic of schizophrenia.
*Bipolar disorder, type I*
− **Bipolar disorder type I** is characterized by the occurrence of at least one manic episode, which involves more severe symptoms, significant impairment, and often psychosis.
− The patient's previous "brilliant ideas" and decreased need for sleep describe a **hypomanic episode** rather than a full manic episode and are not associated with marked functional impairment or psychotic features.
Question 27: A 45-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife for the evaluation of abnormal sleep patterns that began 10 days ago. She reports that he has only been sleeping 2–3 hours nightly during this time and has been jogging for long periods of the night on the treadmill. The patient has also been excessively talkative and has missed work on several occasions to write emails to his friends and relatives to convince them to invest in a new business idea that he has had. He has chronic kidney disease requiring hemodialysis, but he has refused to take his medications because he believes that he is cured. Eight months ago, he had a 3-week long period of persistent sadness and was diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Mental status examination shows psychomotor agitation and pressured speech. Treatment of this patient's condition should include which of the following drugs?
A. Triazolam
B. Valproate (Correct Answer)
C. Mirtazapine
D. Fluoxetine
E. Bupropion
Explanation: ***Valproate***
- This patient presents with classic features of a **manic episode** (decreased need for sleep, psychomotor agitation, pressured speech, grandiosity, increased goal-directed activity, impaired judgment) occurring after a prior depressive episode, indicating **bipolar I disorder**.
- **Mood stabilizers** are first-line treatment for acute mania. While **lithium** is traditionally considered the gold standard, this patient has **chronic kidney disease requiring hemodialysis**, making lithium relatively **contraindicated** due to its renal excretion and narrow therapeutic index.
- **Valproate** is an excellent alternative mood stabilizer for acute mania and maintenance therapy in bipolar disorder, and it is **hepatically metabolized**, making it safer in patients with **renal impairment**.
- Other options include atypical antipsychotics (e.g., olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole), but valproate is the appropriate mood stabilizer choice given this clinical context.
*Triazolam*
- **Triazolam** is a short-acting benzodiazepine used for **insomnia**.
- While it may provide symptomatic relief for sleep disturbance, it does **not treat the underlying manic episode** and is not indicated as primary therapy for bipolar mania.
- Benzodiazepines may be used as adjunctive agents for acute agitation but are not definitive treatment.
*Mirtazapine*
- **Mirtazapine** is a tetracyclic antidepressant used for **major depressive disorder**.
- Antidepressant monotherapy in bipolar disorder can **precipitate or worsen manic episodes** and is contraindicated during an acute manic phase.
- If antidepressants are needed for bipolar depression, they should be combined with mood stabilizers.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant.
- Like other antidepressants, using fluoxetine as monotherapy in a patient with bipolar disorder can **induce or exacerbate manic episodes**.
- It is inappropriate for treating acute mania.
*Bupropion*
- **Bupropion** is an atypical antidepressant (norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor) used for depression and smoking cessation.
- It carries a **higher risk of inducing mania** compared to other antidepressants due to its dopaminergic activity.
- It is not appropriate for acute mania treatment and could worsen the patient's current symptoms.
Question 28: A 57-year-old woman presents to the emergency department for laboratory abnormalities detected by her primary care physician. The patient went to her appointment complaining of difficulty using her hands and swelling of her arms and lower extremities. The patient has notably smooth skin that seems to have not aged considerably. Upon seeing her lab values, her physician sent her to the ED. The patient has a past medical history of multiple suicide attempts, bipolar disorder, obesity, diabetes, and anxiety. Her current medications include lithium, insulin, captopril, and clonazepam. The patient's laboratory values are below.
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
K+: 5.2 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
HCO3-: 20 mEq/L
BUN: 39 mg/dL
Glucose: 127 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.2 mg/dL
Ca2+: 8.4 mg/dL
The patient is restarted on her home medications. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 155/90 mmHg, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Continue medications and add nifedipine
B. Continue medications and start furosemide
C. Continue medications and start metformin
D. Start valproic acid and discontinue lithium (Correct Answer)
E. Start lisinopril and discontinue captopril
Explanation: ***Start valproic acid and discontinue lithium***
- The patient presents with **elevated creatinine (2.2 mg/dL)** and **elevated BUN (39 mg/dL)**, indicating **acute kidney injury or chronic kidney disease**.
- She is currently on **lithium** for bipolar disorder, which is known to cause **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus** and **chronic interstitial nephritis** with long-term use.
- The combination of **renal impairment**, **lithium therapy**, and concurrent **ACE inhibitor use (captopril)** creates a high risk for **lithium toxicity**, as ACE inhibitors can increase lithium levels by reducing renal clearance.
- **Immediate discontinuation of lithium** is essential, and switching to an alternative mood stabilizer like **valproic acid** is appropriate for managing her bipolar disorder.
*Continue medications and add nifedipine*
- Continuing lithium in the setting of **renal impairment** would risk worsening toxicity and further kidney damage.
- While the patient has **hypertension (155/90 mmHg)**, the acute concern is the renal dysfunction and potential lithium toxicity, which must be addressed first.
*Continue medications and start furosemide*
- **Furosemide** (a loop diuretic) can actually **worsen lithium toxicity** by promoting sodium excretion, leading to increased lithium reabsorption in the proximal tubules.
- Continuing lithium with significant renal impairment is contraindicated and could lead to life-threatening toxicity.
*Continue medications and start metformin*
- Continuing lithium is inappropriate given the **renal impairment** and risk of toxicity.
- Additionally, **metformin is contraindicated** in patients with **creatinine ≥1.5 mg/dL in women** due to risk of lactic acidosis; this patient's creatinine is 2.2 mg/dL.
*Start lisinopril and discontinue captopril*
- Both lisinopril and captopril are **ACE inhibitors**; switching between them does not address the primary issue of **lithium toxicity risk**.
- ACE inhibitors can **increase lithium levels** by reducing renal blood flow and lithium clearance, making continuation of any ACE inhibitor problematic without first addressing the lithium issue.
Question 29: A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife for evaluation of abnormal behavior that began 2 weeks ago. The patient has not slept in over a week and has been partying each night. He has never done this before. The patient has also been skipping work and purchased a car last week with money they had saved for their vacation to Italy. He has a past medical history of major depressive disorder and systemic lupus erythematosus. He normally drinks 2 beers per week but has been drinking 6–10 beers per day for the past two weeks. Current medications include hydroxychloroquine. He appears agitated and is wearing bright-colored mismatched clothing. His temperature is 36°C (96.8°F), pulse is 94/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, his speech is pressured and his thought process is tangential. A complete blood count, serum electrolytes, and liver enzyme activities are within the reference range; his serum creatinine is 1.8 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows 2+ proteinuria, and WBC casts. Toxicology screening is negative. This patient would most likely benefit from which of the following long-term treatments?
A. Dialectical behavioral therapy
B. Escitalopram
C. Clonazepam
D. Lithium
E. Valproate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Valproate***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of a **manic episode** (decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, tangential thought, impulsivity, grandiosity, increased goal-directed activity, excessive involvement in pleasurable activities), indicating **bipolar disorder**.
- **Valproate** is a mood stabilizer that is effective for acute mania and long-term maintenance in bipolar disorder, especially when **renal impairment** is present (creatinine 1.8 mg/dL) or **lupus nephritis** (proteinuria, WBC casts), as **lithium** is renally cleared and can exacerbate kidney issues.
*Dialectical behavioral therapy*
- This therapy is primarily used for **borderline personality disorder** to address emotional dysregulation, interpersonal difficulties, and self-harm behaviors.
- While helpful for some mood and impulse control issues, it is not a primary monotherapy for the acute management or long-term stabilization of bipolar disorder.
*Escitalopram*
- **Escitalopram** is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression and anxiety disorders.
- **Antidepressant monotherapy** in bipolar disorder can precipitate or worsen manic episodes, so it is generally avoided or used cautiously with a mood stabilizer.
*Clonazepam*
- **Clonazepam** is a benzodiazepine used for acute agitation, anxiety, and insomnia.
- While it could help with immediate agitation or insomnia, it is **not a long-term treatment** for bipolar disorder due to its lack of mood-stabilizing effects and potential for dependence.
*Lithium*
- **Lithium** is a highly effective mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, particularly for preventing manic episodes.
- However, it is primarily **renally excreted**, and this patient has evidence of renal impairment (serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL, proteinuria, WBC casts), which would make lithium use challenging due to increased risk of **toxicity**.
Question 30: A 39-year-old man with a history of major depression is brought into the emergency department by his concerned daughter. She reports that he was recently let go from work because of his sudden and erratic behavior at work. He was noted to be making inappropriate sexual advances to his female co-workers which is very out of his character. He seemed to be full of energy, running on little to no sleep, trying to fix all the company's problems and at times arguing with some of the senior managers. During admission, he was uncooperative as he boasted about how he was right and that the managers were fools for not listening to his great ideas. What is the most appropriate initial treatment approach for this patient?
A. ECT
B. Mood stabilizers, antipsychotics, benzodiazepines, ECT
C. Mood stabilizers, antipsychotics (Correct Answer)
D. Benzodiazepines
E. Antipsychotics
Explanation: ***Mood stabilizers, antipsychotics***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of a **manic episode** (grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, erratic behavior, impulsivity, inappropriate sexual advances), likely in the context of **bipolar disorder** given his history of major depression.
- The combination of **mood stabilizers** (e.g., lithium, valproate) and **antipsychotics** (e.g., olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, aripiprazole) is the **first-line treatment for acute mania** and represents the most appropriate initial approach.
- **Mood stabilizers** provide long-term mood regulation and prevent future episodes, while **antipsychotics** offer rapid control of acute symptoms including agitation, psychotic features, and behavioral disturbances.
- This combination addresses both immediate symptom control and long-term management of bipolar disorder.
*Mood stabilizers, antipsychotics, benzodiazepines, ECT*
- While this comprehensive list includes treatments that may be used for acute mania, it is overly broad for an **initial treatment approach**.
- **Benzodiazepines** are adjunctive for acute agitation and insomnia but not part of the core initial treatment regimen.
- **ECT** is typically reserved for severe, refractory cases, or when rapid response is critically needed (e.g., catatonia, severe suicidality), not as a routine initial approach.
*ECT*
- **ECT** is highly effective for severe or treatment-refractory mania, especially with psychotic features or when rapid response is essential.
- However, it is not the initial treatment approach; pharmacotherapy with mood stabilizers and antipsychotics is tried first.
- ECT is typically considered after other treatments have failed or in life-threatening situations.
*Benzodiazepines*
- While helpful for managing acute **agitation** and **insomnia** associated with mania, benzodiazepines alone do not address the underlying mood dysregulation.
- They are used as **adjunctive therapy** for symptom control, not as monotherapy or primary initial treatment for mania.
*Antipsychotics*
- **Antipsychotics** alone are effective in reducing agitation and psychotic symptoms in acute mania and can be used as monotherapy in some cases.
- However, the **combination** of antipsychotics with mood stabilizers is preferred for comprehensive acute management and represents the most appropriate initial approach, as it addresses both immediate symptom control and long-term mood stabilization.