A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife. She was called by his coworkers to come and pick him up from work after he barged into the company’s board meeting and was being very disruptive as he ranted on about all the great ideas he had for the company. When they tried to reason with him, he became hostile and insisted that he should be the CEO as he knew what was best for the future of the company. The patient’s wife also noted that her husband has been up all night for the past few days but assumed that he was handling a big project at work. The patient has no significant past medical or psychiatric history. Which of the following treatments is most likely to benefit this patient’s condition?
Q12
A 19-year-old woman presents to an outpatient psychiatrist after 2 weeks of feeling “miserable.” She has been keeping to herself during this time with no desire to socialize with her friends or unable to enjoy her usual hobbies. She also endorses low energy, difficulty concentrating and falling asleep, and decreased appetite. You diagnose a major depressive episode but want to screen for bipolar disorder before starting her on an anti-depressant. Which of the following cluster of symptoms, if previously experienced by this patient, would be most consistent with bipolar I disorder?
Q13
A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by EMS after being found naked in a busy downtown square. The patient stated that she is liberating people from material desires and was found destroying objects. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is deferred due to patient combativeness. The patient is given diphenhydramine and haloperidol and transferred to the psychiatric ward. On day 1 on the ward, the patient is no longer aggressive or agitated and has calmed down. She states that she feels severely depressed and wants to kill herself. The patient is started on a medication and monitored closely. On day 3 of the patient's stay in the hospital she is found in her room drawing up plans and states that she has major plans to revamp the current energy problems in the country. Which of the following is the most likely medication that was started in this patient?
Q14
A 14-year-old girl is presented by her mother who says she has trouble focusing. The patient’s mother says that, over the past 2 months, the patient has lost interest in her normal activities and has become more withdrawn. She no longer participates in activities she enjoys and says that she has contemplated suicide. The patient’s mother says that, at other times, she is hyperactive and can’t ever seem to be still. Before the onset of her depression, she had an 8 day period where she did not sleep and was constantly on the go. She was so energetic at school that she was suspended for a month. The patient is afebrile and vitals are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. Routine laboratory tests and a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) of the head are normal. Which of the following would be the best course of treatment in this patient?
Q15
A 29-year-old man comes to the physician with his wife because she has noticed a change in his behavior over the past 2 weeks. His wife reports that he is very distracted and irritable. His colleagues have voiced concerns that he has not been turning up for work regularly and behaves erratically when he does. Previously, her husband had been a reliable and reasonable person. The patient says that he feels “fantastic”; he only needs 4 hours of sleep each night and wakes up cheerful and full of energy each morning. He thinks that his wife is overreacting. The patient has been healthy except for a major depressive episode 5 years ago that was treated with paroxetine. He currently takes no medications. His pulse is 98/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 128/62 mm Hg. Mental status examination shows frenzied speech and a flight of ideas. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
Q16
A 33-year-old female with bipolar disorder, well controlled with lithium, presents to your clinic. She would like to discuss pregnancy and her medication. She is in a committed monogamous relationship and because her symptoms are well-controlled, would like to become pregnant. She is worried that her folate levels might be low despite taking multivitamins every day. She would like to know if she needs to wait before becoming pregnant. What is the single most appropriate recommendation at this stage?
Q17
A 33-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of persistent sadness for the past 2 months. During this period, she also has had difficulty sleeping and an increased appetite. She had similar episodes that occurred 2 years ago and 9 months ago that each lasted for 4 months. Between these episodes, she reported feeling very energetic and rested after 3 hours of sleep. She often went for long periods of time without eating. She works as a stock market trader and received a promotion 5 months ago. She regularly attends yoga classes on the weekends with her friends. On mental status examination, she has a blunted affect. She denies suicidal thoughts and illicit drug use. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q18
A 23-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her father because of irritability, mood swings, and difficulty sleeping over the past 10 days. A few days ago, she quit her job and spent all of her savings on supplies for a “genius business plan.” She has been energetic despite sleeping only 1–2 hours each night. She was diagnosed with major depressive disorder 2 years ago. Mental status examination shows pressured speech, a labile affect, and flight of ideas. Throughout the examination, she repeatedly states “I feel great, I don't need to be here.” Urine toxicology screening is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q19
A 34-year-old man is brought to a psychiatric hospital by friends for erratic behavior. He has been up for the past several nights painting his apartment walls purple and reading the Bible out loud, as well as talking fast and making sexually provocative comments. Collateral information from family reveals 2 similar episodes last year. Mental status exam is notable for labile affect and grandiose delusions. Urine toxicology is negative. The patient is admitted and started on lithium for mania. His symptoms resolve within 2 weeks. How should this patient’s lithium be managed in anticipation of discharge?
Q20
A 19-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her parents because of irritable mood that started 5 days ago. Since then, she has been staying up late at night working on a secret project. She is energetic despite sleeping less than 4 hours per day. Her parents report that she seems easily distracted. She is usually very responsible, but this week she spent her paycheck on supplies for her project. She has never had similar symptoms before. In the past, she has had episodes where she felt too fatigued to go to school and slept until 2 pm every day for 2 weeks at a time. During those times, her parents noticed that she cried excessively, was very indecisive, and expressed feelings of worthlessness. Two months ago, she had an asthma exacerbation and was treated with bronchodilators and steroids. She tried cocaine once in high school but has not used it since. Vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is irritable but cooperative. Her speech is pressured and her thought process is linear. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Bipolar disorder US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife. She was called by his coworkers to come and pick him up from work after he barged into the company’s board meeting and was being very disruptive as he ranted on about all the great ideas he had for the company. When they tried to reason with him, he became hostile and insisted that he should be the CEO as he knew what was best for the future of the company. The patient’s wife also noted that her husband has been up all night for the past few days but assumed that he was handling a big project at work. The patient has no significant past medical or psychiatric history. Which of the following treatments is most likely to benefit this patient’s condition?
A. Antidepressants
B. Valproic acid (Correct Answer)
C. Haloperidol
D. Psychotherapy
E. Clozapine
Explanation: ***Valproic acid***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of a **manic episode**, including grandiosity (believing he should be CEO), decreased need for sleep (up all night for days), pressured speech (ranting), and impulsivity with poor judgment (disruptive behavior at a board meeting).
- **Valproic acid** is a **first-line, guideline-recommended mood stabilizer** for acute mania. It is particularly effective for managing the core symptoms of mania including mood elevation, irritability, and impulsivity.
- It has a relatively rapid onset of action and a favorable side effect profile compared to typical antipsychotics, making it an excellent choice for initial management of acute mania in the emergency setting.
*Antidepressants*
- Administering **antidepressants** during a manic or hypomanic episode can exacerbate symptoms, potentially leading to a rapid cycling pattern or worsening mania.
- Antidepressants are primarily used for depressive episodes in bipolar disorder, typically in conjunction with a mood stabilizer, never as monotherapy in a patient presenting with mania.
*Haloperidol*
- **Haloperidol** is a typical antipsychotic that can be used for acute agitation in mania, but it does not address the underlying mood dysregulation.
- While it may help with immediate behavioral control, mood stabilizers like valproic acid or lithium are preferred as primary treatments because they target the core pathophysiology of bipolar disorder.
- Haloperidol also has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms and does not prevent future mood episodes.
*Psychotherapy*
- **Psychotherapy** is a crucial component of long-term management for bipolar disorder but is not effective as a sole treatment for acute mania.
- Patients in acute mania are often too agitated, impulsive, and lack sufficient insight to meaningfully engage in therapeutic interventions.
- Psychotherapy should be initiated after mood stabilization with pharmacotherapy.
*Clozapine*
- **Clozapine** is an atypical antipsychotic reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia or treatment-resistant bipolar disorder, particularly with prominent psychotic features that have not responded to multiple other medications.
- Given its significant side effect profile, including agranulocytosis requiring regular blood monitoring, it is not a first-line or even second-line treatment for an initial presentation of mania.
- This patient has no psychiatric history and requires standard first-line treatment, not a medication reserved for refractory cases.
Question 12: A 19-year-old woman presents to an outpatient psychiatrist after 2 weeks of feeling “miserable.” She has been keeping to herself during this time with no desire to socialize with her friends or unable to enjoy her usual hobbies. She also endorses low energy, difficulty concentrating and falling asleep, and decreased appetite. You diagnose a major depressive episode but want to screen for bipolar disorder before starting her on an anti-depressant. Which of the following cluster of symptoms, if previously experienced by this patient, would be most consistent with bipolar I disorder?
A. Insomnia, anxiety, nightmares, and flashbacks for 6 months
B. Elevated mood, insomnia, distractibility, and flight of ideas for 5 days
C. Impulsivity, rapid mood swings, intense anger, self-harming behavior, and splitting for 10 years
D. Auditory hallucinations, paranoia, and disorganized speech for 2 weeks
E. Impulsivity, insomnia, increased energy, irritability, and auditory hallucinations for 2 weeks (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Impulsivity, insomnia, increased energy, irritability, and auditory hallucinations for 2 weeks***
- This cluster of symptoms indicates a past **manic episode** with **psychotic features**, characteristic of **Bipolar I disorder**. The duration of 2 weeks meets the diagnostic criteria for a manic episode.
- The presence of **auditory hallucinations** during a manic episode signifies **psychosis**, which is a key differentiator in Bipolar I as opposed to Bipolar II.
*Elevated mood, insomnia, distractibility, and flight of ideas for 5 days*
- While these symptoms suggest a **hypomanic episode**, the duration of 5 days is insufficient to meet the criteria for a manic episode (which requires a minimum of 7 days or hospitalization).
- A hypomanic episode, without psychotic features, indicates **Bipolar II disorder**, not Bipolar I.
*Insomnia, anxiety, nightmares, and flashbacks for 6 months*
- This symptom cluster is highly suggestive of **Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)** due to the presence of nightmares and flashbacks over an extended period.
- These symptoms are not indicative of a manic or hypomanic episode, and thus do not point to bipolar disorder.
*Auditory hallucinations, paranoia, and disorganized speech for 2 weeks*
- This constellation of symptoms suggests a **psychotic disorder** such as **schizophrenia** or **schizophreniform disorder**, especially with auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech dominating the clinical picture.
- While psychosis can occur in bipolar disorder, the question specifically asks for symptoms *consistent with bipolar I*, and these symptoms alone do not describe the characteristic mood disturbance (mania) of bipolar disorder.
*Impulsivity, rapid mood swings, intense anger, self-harming behavior, and splitting for 10 years*
- This pattern of symptoms, particularly the chronic impulsivity, rapid mood swings, intense anger, and splitting, is highly suggestive of **Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)**.
- The chronic nature and specific interpersonal and behavioral challenges are hallmarks of BPD, not primarily a manic or hypomanic episode of bipolar disorder.
Question 13: A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by EMS after being found naked in a busy downtown square. The patient stated that she is liberating people from material desires and was found destroying objects. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is deferred due to patient combativeness. The patient is given diphenhydramine and haloperidol and transferred to the psychiatric ward. On day 1 on the ward, the patient is no longer aggressive or agitated and has calmed down. She states that she feels severely depressed and wants to kill herself. The patient is started on a medication and monitored closely. On day 3 of the patient's stay in the hospital she is found in her room drawing up plans and states that she has major plans to revamp the current energy problems in the country. Which of the following is the most likely medication that was started in this patient?
A. Quetiapine
B. Olanzapine
C. Lamotrigine
D. Sertraline (Correct Answer)
E. Lithium
Explanation: ***Sertraline***
- This patient exhibits classic **bipolar I disorder** with rapid mood cycling from **mania** (naked in public, grandiose delusions, destroying objects) to **severe depression** (suicidal ideation on Day 1) and back to **mania** (grandiose plans on Day 3).
- The key clinical clue is the **rapid return to mania by Day 3** after starting medication during the depressive phase. This suggests **antidepressant-induced mania/mood switch**, a well-known complication of using **SSRI antidepressants** (like sertraline) **without adequate mood stabilization** in bipolar disorder.
- **Antidepressants can precipitate manic episodes** within days in bipolar patients, which is why they should be avoided or used only with concomitant mood stabilizers. This question tests recognition of this critical psychiatric principle.
*Lithium*
- Lithium is a first-line **mood stabilizer** for bipolar disorder and would be appropriate for long-term management. However, lithium **prevents manic episodes** rather than causing them.
- Lithium takes **1-2 weeks to reach therapeutic levels**, so it would not explain the rapid mood switch to mania by Day 3. If lithium had been started, we would expect **stabilization or improvement**, not a return to mania.
*Quetiapine*
- Quetiapine is an **atypical antipsychotic** effective for both acute mania and bipolar depression. It can provide rapid mood stabilization.
- If quetiapine was started on Day 1, we would expect **mood stabilization or sedation**, not a switch back to mania. Quetiapine does **not precipitate manic episodes**.
*Olanzapine*
- Olanzapine is another **atypical antipsychotic** used for acute mania and maintenance in bipolar disorder.
- Like quetiapine, olanzapine would **stabilize mood** and reduce manic symptoms, not trigger them. It would not explain the return to mania on Day 3.
*Lamotrigine*
- Lamotrigine is a mood stabilizer particularly effective for **preventing depressive episodes** in bipolar disorder, though less effective for acute mania.
- Lamotrigine **does not precipitate manic episodes** and takes weeks to titrate to therapeutic doses due to risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome. It would not explain the rapid mood switch observed here.
Question 14: A 14-year-old girl is presented by her mother who says she has trouble focusing. The patient’s mother says that, over the past 2 months, the patient has lost interest in her normal activities and has become more withdrawn. She no longer participates in activities she enjoys and says that she has contemplated suicide. The patient’s mother says that, at other times, she is hyperactive and can’t ever seem to be still. Before the onset of her depression, she had an 8 day period where she did not sleep and was constantly on the go. She was so energetic at school that she was suspended for a month. The patient is afebrile and vitals are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. Routine laboratory tests and a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) of the head are normal. Which of the following would be the best course of treatment in this patient?
A. Ramelteon
B. Amitriptyline
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Lithium (Correct Answer)
E. Phenobarbital
Explanation: ***Lithium***
- This patient's presentation with alternating periods of severe depression and **hypomania**/**mania** (decreased need for sleep, hyperactivity, increased energy leading to suspension) is highly suggestive of **bipolar disorder**.
- **Lithium** is a mood stabilizer and is considered a first-line treatment for managing both manic and depressive episodes in bipolar disorder, especially in adolescents.
*Ramelteon*
- **Ramelteon** is a melatonin receptor agonist primarily used for the treatment of **insomnia**, particularly for sleep onset difficulties.
- It is not indicated for the management of bipolar disorder or its associated mood swings.
*Amitriptyline*
- **Amitriptyline** is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) primarily used for **major depressive disorder**, chronic pain, and sometimes insomnia.
- Administering an antidepressant alone to a patient with undiagnosed or untreated bipolar disorder can precipitate **mania** or worsen rapid cycling.
*Chlorpromazine*
- **Chlorpromazine** is a first-generation antipsychotic primarily used for the treatment of **schizophrenia** and severe behavioral problems.
- While it can help manage acute manic episodes due to its sedative properties, it is not a primary mood stabilizer for long-term bipolar disorder treatment and is associated with significant side effects.
*Phenobarbital*
- **Phenobarbital** is a barbiturate with anticonvulsant and sedative-hypnotic properties, primarily used for **epilepsy** and anxiety.
- It is not indicated for the treatment of bipolar disorder and does not have mood-stabilizing effects for this condition.
Question 15: A 29-year-old man comes to the physician with his wife because she has noticed a change in his behavior over the past 2 weeks. His wife reports that he is very distracted and irritable. His colleagues have voiced concerns that he has not been turning up for work regularly and behaves erratically when he does. Previously, her husband had been a reliable and reasonable person. The patient says that he feels “fantastic”; he only needs 4 hours of sleep each night and wakes up cheerful and full of energy each morning. He thinks that his wife is overreacting. The patient has been healthy except for a major depressive episode 5 years ago that was treated with paroxetine. He currently takes no medications. His pulse is 98/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 128/62 mm Hg. Mental status examination shows frenzied speech and a flight of ideas. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
A. Advanced paternal age
B. Genetic predisposition (Correct Answer)
C. Higher socioeconomic class
D. Maternal obstetric complications
E. Being married
Explanation: ***Genetic predisposition***
- A strong **genetic predisposition** is a primary predisposing factor for bipolar disorder, as evidenced by a significantly higher concordance rate in monozygotic twins compared to dizygotic twins or the general population.
- The patient's presentation with **manic symptoms** (decreased need for sleep, euphoria, irritability, frenzied speech, flight of ideas, erratic behavior) following a history of a **major depressive episode** is highly suggestive of **bipolar I disorder**.
*Advanced paternal age*
- While advanced paternal age has been associated with an increased risk of some neurodevelopmental disorders like **schizophrenia** and **autism spectrum disorder**, its link to bipolar disorder is less robust and not considered the strongest predisposing factor.
- The primary risk factor for bipolar disorder involves heritability rather than specific parental age.
*Higher socioeconomic class*
- There is **no consistent evidence** to suggest that higher socioeconomic class is a predisposing factor for bipolar disorder.
- Bipolar disorder affects individuals across all socioeconomic levels.
*Maternal obstetric complications*
- Maternal obstetric complications, such as **prenatal infections** or **hypoxia**, have been implicated in the development of certain psychiatric disorders, particularly **schizophrenia**.
- However, for bipolar disorder, genetic factors play a far more significant and direct role than obstetric complications.
*Being married*
- **Marital status** does not serve as a predisposing factor for the development of bipolar disorder.
- While relationship challenges can be a consequence or stressor for individuals with bipolar disorder, marriage itself is not a cause.
Question 16: A 33-year-old female with bipolar disorder, well controlled with lithium, presents to your clinic. She would like to discuss pregnancy and her medication. She is in a committed monogamous relationship and because her symptoms are well-controlled, would like to become pregnant. She is worried that her folate levels might be low despite taking multivitamins every day. She would like to know if she needs to wait before becoming pregnant. What is the single most appropriate recommendation at this stage?
A. Switch to lamotrigine for the 1st trimester (Correct Answer)
B. Continue lithium with close monitoring
C. She can be maintained on valproate instead
D. Increase folic acid supplementation and continue lithium
E. Discontinue the lithium
Explanation: ***Switch to lamotrigine for the 1st trimester***
- **Lamotrigine** is considered a **safer alternative** to lithium during the first trimester of pregnancy due to a lower risk of major congenital malformations
- The switch should ideally occur **prior to conception** to minimize fetal exposure to lithium during organogenesis
- Lamotrigine has a better safety profile in pregnancy compared to other mood stabilizers like valproate
*Continue lithium with close monitoring*
- While **lithium** carries a risk of **Ebstein's anomaly** (cardiac malformation), the absolute risk is relatively low (0.05-0.1%)
- Some current guidelines support continuing lithium in well-controlled patients with close monitoring, but switching to a safer alternative before conception is generally preferred when feasible
- This approach would require high-resolution fetal echocardiography and monitoring of lithium levels
*She can be maintained on valproate instead*
- **Valproate** is **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to high risk of **neural tube defects** (1-2%), cognitive impairment, and other developmental abnormalities
- Switching to valproate would significantly increase fetal risk and is inappropriate
*Increase folic acid supplementation and continue lithium*
- While folic acid supplementation is important for preventing neural tube defects, the primary concern with lithium is **cardiac malformations (Ebstein's anomaly)**, not neural tube defects
- Simply increasing folate does not address the teratogenic risk of lithium
- A medication change or careful risk-benefit discussion is more appropriate than just supplementation
*Discontinue the lithium*
- **Abruptly discontinuing lithium** carries a **high risk of relapse** in bipolar disorder (up to 50% within 6 months)
- Relapse during pregnancy can be harmful to both mother and fetus
- Any medication changes should be **gradual and planned** in collaboration with psychiatry, not abrupt cessation
Question 17: A 33-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of persistent sadness for the past 2 months. During this period, she also has had difficulty sleeping and an increased appetite. She had similar episodes that occurred 2 years ago and 9 months ago that each lasted for 4 months. Between these episodes, she reported feeling very energetic and rested after 3 hours of sleep. She often went for long periods of time without eating. She works as a stock market trader and received a promotion 5 months ago. She regularly attends yoga classes on the weekends with her friends. On mental status examination, she has a blunted affect. She denies suicidal thoughts and illicit drug use. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern
B. Persistent depressive disorder
C. Bipolar II disorder (Correct Answer)
D. Major depressive disorder with atypical features
E. Cyclothymic disorder
Explanation: ***Bipolar II disorder***
- The patient exhibits recurrent episodes of **major depression** (sadness, sleep difficulties, increased appetite) interspersed with periods of **hypomania** (energetic, reduced need for sleep, long periods without eating, successful work performance with promotion)
- This pattern is characteristic of **Bipolar II disorder**: major depressive episodes plus at least one hypomanic episode
- No evidence of **frank mania** (e.g., psychosis, severe impairment requiring hospitalization) is present, which distinguishes this from Bipolar I disorder
*Major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern*
- While the patient presents with depressive symptoms, the episodes of **hypomania** (increased energy, decreased need for sleep) rule out unipolar depression
- The history of episodes at various times (2 years ago, 9 months ago, current) does not fit a **seasonal pattern**
- The **hypomanic phases** between depressive episodes are inconsistent with any form of major depressive disorder
*Persistent depressive disorder*
- This condition involves **chronic depressive symptoms** lasting at least 2 years, but typically less severe than major depressive episodes
- The presence of distinct, severe **major depressive episodes** and recurrent **hypomanic periods** contradicts this diagnosis
- Persistent depressive disorder does not include hypomania or mood elevation
*Major depressive disorder with atypical features*
- Atypical features include **increased appetite**, **hypersomnia**, leaden paralysis, interpersonal rejection sensitivity, and mood reactivity
- While increased appetite is present during depressive phases, the alternating periods of **hypomania** exclude this from being major depressive disorder
- Any form of major depressive disorder is ruled out by the presence of hypomanic episodes
*Cyclothymic disorder*
- Cyclothymic disorder involves numerous periods of **hypomanic symptoms** and **depressive symptoms** for at least 2 years, but symptoms do not meet full criteria for major depressive or hypomanic episodes
- This patient explicitly experiences **major depressive episodes** (persistent sadness, neurovegetative symptoms lasting 4 months), which exceed the threshold for cyclothymia
- The severity and duration of depressive episodes make Bipolar II disorder the correct diagnosis
Question 18: A 23-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her father because of irritability, mood swings, and difficulty sleeping over the past 10 days. A few days ago, she quit her job and spent all of her savings on supplies for a “genius business plan.” She has been energetic despite sleeping only 1–2 hours each night. She was diagnosed with major depressive disorder 2 years ago. Mental status examination shows pressured speech, a labile affect, and flight of ideas. Throughout the examination, she repeatedly states “I feel great, I don't need to be here.” Urine toxicology screening is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Schizoaffective disorder
B. Bipolar disorder type II
C. Bipolar disorder type I (Correct Answer)
D. Delusional disorder
E. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
Explanation: ***Bipolar disorder type I***
- The patient's presentation of lasting **elevated mood**, decreased need for sleep, increased energy, pressured speech, flight of ideas, and impulsive behavior (quitting job, spending savings) are hallmark symptoms of a **manic episode**.
- A diagnosis of **Bipolar I Disorder** requires the occurrence of at least one manic episode, which is clearly evident here and distinguishes it from other mood disorders, especially given her prior history of major depressive disorder.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- This disorder involves a period of illness during which there is an uninterrupted period of major mood episode (depressive or manic) concurrent with symptoms of **schizophrenia**, such as delusions or hallucinations, for at least 2 weeks in the absence of a major mood episode.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily mood-driven and do not include the characteristic psychotic features that persist independently of mood disturbances.
*Bipolar disorder type II*
- Bipolar II Disorder is characterized by at least one major depressive episode and at least one **hypomanic episode**.
- The patient's current symptoms, including significant impairment in social/occupational functioning, are indicative of a **manic episode**, not a hypomanic episode, which by definition does not cause marked impairment or require hospitalization.
*Delusional disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by the presence of **non-bizarre delusions** that last for at least one month, without other prominent psychotic symptoms or significant impairment in functioning.
- While the patient's "genius business plan" might seem delusional, her pervasive mood disturbance, flight of ideas, and significant functional impairment are not consistent with the primary features of delusional disorder.
*Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder*
- ADHD is characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development, often presenting in childhood.
- While there is some overlap in symptoms like impulsivity and difficulty sleeping, the episodic nature, the extent of **mood disturbance**, grandiosity, and **pressured speech** are more characteristic of a manic episode than ADHD.
Question 19: A 34-year-old man is brought to a psychiatric hospital by friends for erratic behavior. He has been up for the past several nights painting his apartment walls purple and reading the Bible out loud, as well as talking fast and making sexually provocative comments. Collateral information from family reveals 2 similar episodes last year. Mental status exam is notable for labile affect and grandiose delusions. Urine toxicology is negative. The patient is admitted and started on lithium for mania. His symptoms resolve within 2 weeks. How should this patient’s lithium be managed in anticipation of discharge?
A. Continue lithium until a therapeutic serum lithium level is reached, then taper it
B. Cross-taper lithium to valproic acid for maintenance therapy
C. Continue lithium lifelong (Correct Answer)
D. Discontinue lithium, but re-start in the future if the patient has another manic episode
E. Cross-taper lithium to aripiprazole for maintenance therapy
Explanation: ***Continue lithium lifelong***
- This patient presents with clear symptoms of **bipolar I disorder**, characterized by recurrent episodes of **mania** (as evidenced by the current presentation and two similar episodes in the past year).
- **Lithium** is a highly effective **mood stabilizer** for bipolar I disorder and is crucial for preventing future manic and depressive episodes. Lifelong maintenance therapy is recommended to reduce recurrence rates.
*Continue lithium until a therapeutic serum lithium level is reached, then taper it*
- While achieving a **therapeutic serum lithium level** is essential for acute management, tapering it after symptom resolution would increase the risk of **relapse**, as bipolar disorder requires long-term mood stabilization.
- Tapering off lithium prematurely contradicts evidence-based guidelines for preventing recurrent mood episodes in bipolar disorder.
*Cross-taper lithium to valproic acid for maintenance therapy*
- Although **valproic acid** is another effective mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, there's no indication to switch from lithium if it's effective and tolerated. Both can be used for maintenance.
- Unnecessarily changing an effective medication increases the risk of destabilization during the cross-taper and requires re-establishing therapeutic levels of a new medication.
*Discontinue lithium, but re-start in the future if the patient has another manic episode*
- Discontinuing lithium and waiting for another manic episode is associated with a significantly **higher risk of relapse** and potential worsening of subsequent episodes over time.
- The goal of treating bipolar disorder is to **prevent episodes** rather than waiting for them to occur, which is why long-term prophylactic treatment is critical.
*Cross-taper lithium to aripiprazole for maintenance therapy*
- **Aripiprazole** is an atypical antipsychotic that can be used as a mood stabilizer, particularly for treating acute mania and sometimes for maintenance in bipolar disorder.
- However, similar to valproic acid, there is no compelling reason to switch from lithium if it is effective and well-tolerated. Lithium remains a first-line long-term treatment.
Question 20: A 19-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her parents because of irritable mood that started 5 days ago. Since then, she has been staying up late at night working on a secret project. She is energetic despite sleeping less than 4 hours per day. Her parents report that she seems easily distracted. She is usually very responsible, but this week she spent her paycheck on supplies for her project. She has never had similar symptoms before. In the past, she has had episodes where she felt too fatigued to go to school and slept until 2 pm every day for 2 weeks at a time. During those times, her parents noticed that she cried excessively, was very indecisive, and expressed feelings of worthlessness. Two months ago, she had an asthma exacerbation and was treated with bronchodilators and steroids. She tried cocaine once in high school but has not used it since. Vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is irritable but cooperative. Her speech is pressured and her thought process is linear. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Bipolar I disorder
C. Bipolar II disorder (Correct Answer)
D. Schizoaffective disorder
E. Substance abuse
Explanation: ***Bipolar II disorder***
- This patient exhibits symptoms consistent with both **hypomania** (increased energy, decreased need for sleep, irritability, distractibility, spending sprees) and past episodes of **major depression** (fatigue, hypersomnia, crying, indecisiveness, worthlessness). The key distinction for Bipolar II is the presence of at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode, without a full manic episode.
- The current symptoms of increased energy and decreased need for sleep for 5 days, along with a significant change in behavior (spending paycheck on a "secret project"), indicate a level of impairment consistent with hypomania, rather than a full-blown mania as the thought process is described as linear.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While the patient has a history of depressive episodes, the current presentation with **elevated mood, increased energy, and decreased need for sleep** is inconsistent with a unipolar depressive episode.
- Major depressive disorder does not involve periods of elevated or irritable mood or increased activity.
*Bipolar I disorder*
- Bipolar I disorder requires the occurrence of at least one **manic episode**. While the patient's current symptoms are suggestive of a mood elevation, they do not meet the criteria for full mania, which typically involves severe impairment, psychotic features, or hospitalization.
- The patient's speech is pressured but her thought process is described as **linear**, which is less typical for a full manic episode where **flight of ideas** or **tangential/disorganized thinking** might be present.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- Schizoaffective disorder involves a period of uninterrupted illness during which there is a **major mood episode (depressive or manic) concurrent with symptoms of schizophrenia**, such as delusions or hallucinations.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily mood-related, and there is no mention of psychotic symptoms independent of the mood disturbance.
*Substance abuse*
- Although the patient used cocaine once in high school, there is no evidence of recent substance use that would explain the current symptoms. The symptoms are sustained over days and include a history of recurrent mood disturbances.
- While the patient received steroid treatment 2 months ago (which can precipitate mood episodes), the timing and clinical presentation are more consistent with a primary mood disorder rather than a substance/medication-induced disorder.