A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her friends. She is naked except for a blanket and speaking rapidly and incoherently. Her friends say that she was found watering her garden naked and refused to put on any clothes when they tried to make her do so, saying that she has accepted how beautiful she is inside and out. Her friends say she has also purchased a new car she can not afford. They are concerned about her, as they have never seen her behave this way before. For the past week, she has not shown up at work and has been acting ‘strangely’. They say she was extremely excited and has been calling them at odd hours of the night to tell them about her future plans. Which of the following drug mechanisms will help with the long-term management this patient’s symptoms?
Q2
A 29-year-old woman presents to her primary physician with complaints of episodic late-night agitations and insomnia to an extent that her work is at stake due to her poor performance for months. Her husband reports that she has recently spent their savings on a shopping spree. He is worried that she might be taking illicit substances as her behavior changes very often. The toxicology screen comes back negative. The physician diagnoses her with bipolar disorder and prescribes her a medication. Which of the following statements best describes the prescribed therapy?
Q3
A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department when she was found trying to direct traffic on the highway in the middle of the night. The patient states that she has created a pooled queuing system that will drastically reduce the traffic during rush hour. When speaking with the patient, she does not answer questions directly and is highly distractible. She is speaking very rapidly in an effort to explain her ideas to you. The patient has a past medical history of depression for which she was started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) last week. Physical exam is deferred as the patient is highly irritable. The patient’s home medications are discontinued and she is started on a mortality-lowering agent. The next morning, the patient is resting peacefully. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q4
A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department by his father for not sleeping for 2 nights consecutively. His father noticed that the patient has been in an unusual mood. One day ago, the patient disrobed in front of guests after showering. He has also had lengthy conversations with strangers. One month ago, the patient took out a large loan from a bank in order to fund a business idea he has not yet started. He also borrowed his father's credit card to make a spontaneous trip to Switzerland by himself for a few days, where he spent over 30,000 dollars. His father notes that there have been episodes where he would not leave his bed and remained in his room with the lights off. During these episodes, he sleeps for approximately 15 hours. On physical exam, he is talkative, distractable, and demonstrates a flight of ideas. His speech is pressured, difficult to interrupt, and he asks intrusive questions. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
Q5
A 26-year-old woman is found wandering in the street at 3 AM in the morning shouting about a new cure for cancer. When interviewed in the psychiatric triage unit, she speaks rapidly without pauses and continues to boast of her upcoming contribution to science. When the physician attempts to interrupt her, she becomes angry and begins to shout about all of her "accomplishments" in the last week. She states that because she anticipates a substantial sum of money from the Nobel Prize she will win, she bought a new car and diamond earrings. In addition, the patient divulges that she is 8 weeks pregnant with a fetus who is going to "change the course of history." Her chart in the electronic medical record shows an admission 3 months ago for suicidality and depression. She was released on fluoxetine after being stabilized, but the patient now denies ever taking any medications that "could poison my brain." Urine pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is a potential adverse outcome of lithium, the drug shown to reduce suicide-related mortality in bipolar patients?
Q6
A 16-year-old girl presents with multiple manic and hypomanic episodes. The patient says that these episodes started last year and have progressively worsened. She is anxious to start treatment, so this will not impact her school or social life. The patient was prescribed an anticonvulsant drug that is also used to treat her condition. Which of the following is the drug most likely prescribed to this patient?
Q7
A 27-year-old woman presents to the psychiatrist due to feelings of sadness for the past 3 weeks. She was let go from her job 1 month ago, and she feels as though her whole life is coming to an end. She is unable to sleep well at night and also finds herself crying at times during the day. She has not been able to eat well and has been losing weight as a result. She has no will to go out and meet with her friends, who have been extremely supportive during this time. Her doctor gives her an antidepressant which blocks the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine to help with these symptoms. One week later, she is brought to the emergency room by her friends who say that she was found to be in a state of euphoria. They mention bizarre behavior, one of which is booking a plane ticket to New York, even though she has 3 interviews lined up the same week. Her words cannot be understood as she is speaking very fast, and she is unable to sit in one place for the examination. Which of the following was most likely prescribed by her psychiatrist?
Q8
A 19-year-old female college student is brought into the emergency department by her boyfriend. The boyfriend reports that the patient got caught stealing from the company she works for and subsequently got fired. The boyfriend received a text that evening saying “I’ll miss you.” When he arrived at her dorm room, the patient was slumped in the shower covered in blood. The patient agreed to be driven to the emergency room. When asked about what happened, the patient replies “I just want out of this life.” The patient has bipolar disorder, and takes lithium as prescribed. She has a psychiatrist she sees every week, which the boyfriend confirms. She has never had a prior suicide attempt nor has she ever been hospitalized for a psychiatric disorder. The patient’s vitals are stable. Upon physical examination, a 4 centimeter vertical incision is noted on the patient’s left forearm. During the patient’s laceration repair, she asks if she will be admitted. She states, “these ups and downs are common for me, but I feel better now.” She verbalizes that she understands that she overreacted. She asks to go home, and her boyfriend insists that he will stay with her. They both confirm that neither of them have guns or know any peers with access to guns. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the patient?
Q9
A 22-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after being detained by campus police for attempting to steal from the bookstore. Her roommate says that the patient has been acting strangely over the last 2 weeks. She has not slept in 4 days and has painted her room twice in that time span. She has also spent all of her savings on online shopping and lottery tickets. She has no history of psychiatric illness or substance abuse, and takes no medications. During the examination, she is uncooperative, combative, and refusing care. She screams, “Let me go, God has a plan for me and I must go finish it!”. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she describes her mood as “amazing.” She has a labile affect, speaks rapidly, and her thought process is tangential. She denies having any hallucinations. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?
Q10
A 32-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband, who is concerned about her ability to care for herself. Three weeks ago, she quit her marketing job to start a clothing company. Since then, she has not slept more than 4 hours per night because she has been working on her business plans. She used a significant portion of their savings to fund business trips to Switzerland in order to buy “only the best quality fabrics in the world.” She has not showered and has eaten little during the past 3 days. She has had 2 similar episodes a few years back that required hospitalization and treatment in a psychiatry unit. She has also suffered from periods of depression. She is currently not taking any medications. She appears unkempt and agitated, pacing up and down the room. She speaks very fast without interruption about her business ideas. She has no suicidal ideation or ideas of self-harm. Toxicology screening is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for the management of this patient?
Bipolar disorder US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her friends. She is naked except for a blanket and speaking rapidly and incoherently. Her friends say that she was found watering her garden naked and refused to put on any clothes when they tried to make her do so, saying that she has accepted how beautiful she is inside and out. Her friends say she has also purchased a new car she can not afford. They are concerned about her, as they have never seen her behave this way before. For the past week, she has not shown up at work and has been acting ‘strangely’. They say she was extremely excited and has been calling them at odd hours of the night to tell them about her future plans. Which of the following drug mechanisms will help with the long-term management this patient’s symptoms?
A. Inhibition of inositol monophosphatase and inositol polyphosphate 1-phosphatase (Correct Answer)
B. Increase the concentration of dopamine and norepinephrine at the synaptic cleft
C. Modulate the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid receptors
D. Acts as an antagonist at the dopamine, serotonin and adrenergic receptors
E. Inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin from the presynaptic cleft
Explanation: ***Inhibition of inositol monophosphatase and inositol polyphosphate 1-phosphatase***
- The patient's symptoms (euphoria, grandiosity, reduced need for sleep, impulsivity, rapid speech, and unusual behavior) are classic for a **manic episode**, strongly suggesting **bipolar disorder**.
- **Lithium** is a mood stabilizer used for long-term management of bipolar disorder, and its primary molecular action is thought to involve the **inhibition of inositol phosphatases**, thereby depleting inositol and modulating intracellular signaling.
*Increase the concentration of dopamine and norepinephrine at the synaptic cleft*
- This mechanism describes the action of **stimulants** or some **antidepressants** (like TCAs or SNRIs), which could exacerbate manic symptoms in bipolar disorder.
- Increasing dopamine and norepinephrine would likely worsen the current patient's **hyperactivity**, **agitation**, and **psychosis**.
*Inhibit the reuptake norepinephrine and serotonin from the presynaptic cleft*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **antidepressants** (e.g., SSRIs, SNRIs) used to treat depression.
- Administering such drugs during a manic episode can precipitate or worsen **mania** or induce **rapid cycling** in bipolar patients.
*Modulate the activity of Ƴ-aminobutyric acid receptors*
- This describes the action of **benzodiazepines** or some **antiepileptic drugs** (e.g., valproate, lamotrigine).
- While some antiepileptic drugs (like valproate) are used as mood stabilizers, the direct modulation of GABA receptors to **increase GABAergic activity** (as with benzodiazepines) is typically for acute agitation and anxiety, not the primary long-term mood stabilization for bipolar disorder.
*Acts as an antagonist at the dopamine, serotonin, and adrenergic receptors*
- This mechanism generally describes the action of **antipsychotic medications** (e.g., olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone).
- While antipsychotics are effective for acute mania and some are used in long-term maintenance of bipolar disorder, the question asks for the primary drug mechanism for long-term management which is **Lithium's mechanism of action**, targeting intracellular signaling rather than broad receptor antagonism.
Question 2: A 29-year-old woman presents to her primary physician with complaints of episodic late-night agitations and insomnia to an extent that her work is at stake due to her poor performance for months. Her husband reports that she has recently spent their savings on a shopping spree. He is worried that she might be taking illicit substances as her behavior changes very often. The toxicology screen comes back negative. The physician diagnoses her with bipolar disorder and prescribes her a medication. Which of the following statements best describes the prescribed therapy?
A. She can be pregnant if she wishes to do so while on this medication
B. The patient should be informed about the risk of thyroid function impairment (Correct Answer)
C. Patient cannot be switched to any other therapy if this therapy fails
D. The prescribed medication does not require therapeutic monitoring
E. The medication can be discontinued abruptly when the patient’s symptoms ameliorate
Explanation: ***The patient should be informed about the risk of thyroid function impairment***
- **Lithium**, a common mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, can interfere with **thyroid hormone synthesis** and release, leading to **hypothyroidism**.
- Regular monitoring of **thyroid function tests (TFTs)** is crucial for patients on lithium therapy.
*She can be pregnant if she wishes to do so while on this medication*
- **Lithium** is known to be **teratogenic** and is associated with an increased risk of **Ebstein's anomaly** in the fetus, especially when taken in the first trimester.
- Therefore, it is generally **contraindicated or used with extreme caution** during pregnancy, and women of childbearing age should be counseled on effective contraception.
*Patient can not be switched to any other therapy if this therapy fails*
- Several other medications, such as **valproate**, **carbamazepine**, and **atypical antipsychotics**, are effective in treating bipolar disorder and can be used if initial therapy fails or is not tolerated.
- Treatment for bipolar disorder is often **individualized**, and patients may require trials of different medications or combinations to find the most effective regimen.
*The prescribed medication does not require therapeutic monitoring*
- **Lithium** has a **narrow therapeutic index**, meaning the difference between an effective dose and a toxic dose is small.
- Regular **serum lithium levels** must be monitored to ensure the drug remains within the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) and to prevent toxicity.
*The medication can be discontinued abruptly when the patient’s symptoms ameliorate*
- Abrupt discontinuation of **lithium** can lead to a **relapse of mood episodes**, including both manic and depressive episodes.
- When discontinuing lithium, the dose should be **tapered gradually** under medical supervision to minimize the risk of relapse and withdrawal symptoms.
Question 3: A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department when she was found trying to direct traffic on the highway in the middle of the night. The patient states that she has created a pooled queuing system that will drastically reduce the traffic during rush hour. When speaking with the patient, she does not answer questions directly and is highly distractible. She is speaking very rapidly in an effort to explain her ideas to you. The patient has a past medical history of depression for which she was started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) last week. Physical exam is deferred as the patient is highly irritable. The patient’s home medications are discontinued and she is started on a mortality-lowering agent. The next morning, the patient is resting peacefully. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. TSH and renal function tests (Correct Answer)
B. Clonazepam
C. CT head
D. Valproic acid
E. Restart home SSRI
Explanation: ***TSH and renal function tests***
- The patient was already started on a **mortality-lowering agent** (most likely **lithium**, given its proven anti-suicide efficacy in bipolar disorder) and is now stabilized.
- Before continuing mood stabilizer therapy, **baseline TSH and renal function tests are essential** as they are required for safe monitoring of lithium (renal excretion) and to rule out thyroid dysfunction (which can affect mood).
- These labs guide **safe long-term management** and should be obtained as soon as the patient is stable enough to cooperate with blood draw.
- This represents appropriate **follow-up care** after acute stabilization of a manic episode.
*Valproic acid*
- While valproic acid is a first-line mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, the question states a medication was **already started** the previous night.
- Starting another mood stabilizer when the patient is already stable and resting peacefully would not be the immediate next step.
- If valproic acid were to be considered, it would be as an alternative or adjunct after proper baseline assessment.
*Clonazepam*
- Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine useful for acute agitation during manic episodes.
- Since the patient is now **resting peacefully**, acute sedation is no longer needed.
- Benzodiazepines do not address the underlying mood disorder and are not appropriate for long-term management.
*CT head*
- A CT scan would be indicated if there were signs of organic brain pathology, focal neurological deficits, or first-episode psychosis requiring workup.
- This patient has a clear **psychiatric history** (depression) and SSRI-induced mania, making a structural brain lesion unlikely.
- The clinical picture strongly suggests **bipolar disorder** rather than a neurological cause.
*Restart home SSRI*
- Restarting an SSRI in a patient who just experienced **SSRI-induced mania** is **contraindicated**.
- SSRIs can precipitate or worsen mania in individuals with underlying bipolar disorder.
- Antidepressants in bipolar disorder should only be used cautiously with mood stabilizer coverage, if at all.
Question 4: A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department by his father for not sleeping for 2 nights consecutively. His father noticed that the patient has been in an unusual mood. One day ago, the patient disrobed in front of guests after showering. He has also had lengthy conversations with strangers. One month ago, the patient took out a large loan from a bank in order to fund a business idea he has not yet started. He also borrowed his father's credit card to make a spontaneous trip to Switzerland by himself for a few days, where he spent over 30,000 dollars. His father notes that there have been episodes where he would not leave his bed and remained in his room with the lights off. During these episodes, he sleeps for approximately 15 hours. On physical exam, he is talkative, distractable, and demonstrates a flight of ideas. His speech is pressured, difficult to interrupt, and he asks intrusive questions. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
A. Observation
B. Escitalopram
C. Carbamazepine
D. Lithium (Correct Answer)
E. Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation: ***Lithium***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of a **manic episode** including decreased need for sleep, elevated expansive mood, impulsivity (large loan, spontaneous trip, disrobing), increased talkativeness with pressured speech and flight of ideas, and distractibility. The history also suggests episodes of depression, indicating **bipolar I disorder**.
- **Lithium** is a first-line treatment for acute mania and for long-term mood stabilization in bipolar disorder, effective in reducing the severity and frequency of mood episodes.
*Observation*
- The patient's symptoms are severe, impacting his social and occupational functioning, and involve significant risk-taking behaviors (spending $30,000, taking a large loan). These warrant immediate intervention, not just observation.
- Delaying treatment could lead to further financial, legal, or social consequences, as well as an increased risk of self-harm or harm to others due to impaired judgment.
*Escitalopram*
- **Escitalopram** is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression and anxiety.
- While the patient has a history of depressive episodes, using an antidepressant alone in bipolar disorder can precipitate or worsen a **manic episode**.
*Carbamazepine*
- **Carbamazepine** is an anticonvulsant that is used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder, particularly for rapid cycling or patients who don't respond to lithium.
- While a valid option, **lithium** is generally considered a first-line treatment for acute mania and maintenance therapy for most patients with bipolar disorder due to its established efficacy and safety profile.
*Electroconvulsive therapy*
- **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is a highly effective treatment for severe mania or depression, especially when there is psychosis, catatonia, or when other treatments have failed, or rapid response is needed.
- While effective, it is typically reserved for **treatment-resistant cases** or situations requiring immediate and drastic symptom reduction due to its invasive nature and potential side effects, and is not usually the initial treatment choice.
Question 5: A 26-year-old woman is found wandering in the street at 3 AM in the morning shouting about a new cure for cancer. When interviewed in the psychiatric triage unit, she speaks rapidly without pauses and continues to boast of her upcoming contribution to science. When the physician attempts to interrupt her, she becomes angry and begins to shout about all of her "accomplishments" in the last week. She states that because she anticipates a substantial sum of money from the Nobel Prize she will win, she bought a new car and diamond earrings. In addition, the patient divulges that she is 8 weeks pregnant with a fetus who is going to "change the course of history." Her chart in the electronic medical record shows an admission 3 months ago for suicidality and depression. She was released on fluoxetine after being stabilized, but the patient now denies ever taking any medications that "could poison my brain." Urine pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is a potential adverse outcome of lithium, the drug shown to reduce suicide-related mortality in bipolar patients?
A. Tardive dyskinesia
B. Hyperprolactinemia and galactorrhea
C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D. Atrialization of the right ventricle in the patient’s fetus (Correct Answer)
E. Weight loss
Explanation: ***Atrialization of the right ventricle in the patient’s fetus***
- This describes **Ebstein's anomaly**, a congenital heart defect linked to **lithium exposure in the first trimester**.
- Lithium use during early pregnancy significantly increases the risk of this serious cardiac malformation in the fetus.
*Tardive dyskinesia*
- This is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary, repetitive body movements, typically associated with **long-term use of dopamine receptor-blocking antipsychotics**.
- It is not a known adverse effect of lithium.
*Hyperprolactinemia and galactorrhea*
- These conditions are commonly associated with antipsychotic medications, particularly **first-generation antipsychotics** and some **second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., risperidone)**, due to their dopamine-blocking effects.
- Lithium does not typically cause hyperprolactinemia or galactorrhea.
*Stevens-Johnson syndrome*
- This is a severe, life-threatening mucocutaneous reaction often triggered by medications, most notably **lamotrigine**, **carbamazepine**, and certain **antibiotics (e.g., sulfonamides)**.
- While various drugs can cause it, lithium is not a primary or common cause.
*Weight loss*
- Lithium commonly causes **weight gain** as a side effect, rather than weight loss.
- Weight loss is often associated with other psychotropic medications like bupropion or topiramate, or can be a symptom of conditions like hyperthyroidism, which lithium can paradoxically induce.
Question 6: A 16-year-old girl presents with multiple manic and hypomanic episodes. The patient says that these episodes started last year and have progressively worsened. She is anxious to start treatment, so this will not impact her school or social life. The patient was prescribed an anticonvulsant drug that is also used to treat her condition. Which of the following is the drug most likely prescribed to this patient?
A. Lithium
B. Phenobarbital
C. Valproic acid (Correct Answer)
D. Diazepam
E. Clonazepam
Explanation: ***Valproic acid***
- **Valproic acid** is an **anticonvulsant** commonly used as a **mood stabilizer** in bipolar disorder, especially for rapid cycling or mixed manic episodes.
- Its broad-spectrum anticonvulsant properties make it effective for various seizure types, in addition to its use in bipolar disorder, fitting the description of a drug used for both.
*Lithium*
- While **lithium** is a first-line treatment for **bipolar disorder**, it is not primarily an **anticonvulsant** drug, making it less likely given the specific prompt.
- It has a narrow therapeutic index and requires regular monitoring, which can be a consideration in treatment compliance.
*Phenobarbital*
- **Phenobarbital** is an older **barbiturate anticonvulsant** and sedative, but it is not typically used for treating **bipolar disorder** due to its significant side effects and potential for dependence.
- Its primary use is in seizure control, not mood stabilization.
*Diazepam*
- **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** used for acute anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, but it is not a primary **mood stabilizer** for bipolar disorder.
- It would be used for acute agitation or anxiety symptoms, not long-term mood regulation.
*Clonazepam*
- **Clonazepam** is another **benzodiazepine** with anticonvulsant properties, often used for anxiety and panic disorders, but generally not as a primary mood stabilizer in **bipolar disorder**.
- While it can help with acute agitation, it does not address the underlying mood dysregulation of bipolar disorder.
Question 7: A 27-year-old woman presents to the psychiatrist due to feelings of sadness for the past 3 weeks. She was let go from her job 1 month ago, and she feels as though her whole life is coming to an end. She is unable to sleep well at night and also finds herself crying at times during the day. She has not been able to eat well and has been losing weight as a result. She has no will to go out and meet with her friends, who have been extremely supportive during this time. Her doctor gives her an antidepressant which blocks the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine to help with these symptoms. One week later, she is brought to the emergency room by her friends who say that she was found to be in a state of euphoria. They mention bizarre behavior, one of which is booking a plane ticket to New York, even though she has 3 interviews lined up the same week. Her words cannot be understood as she is speaking very fast, and she is unable to sit in one place for the examination. Which of the following was most likely prescribed by her psychiatrist?
A. Bupropion
B. Venlafaxine (Correct Answer)
C. Sertraline
D. Fluvoxamine
E. Lithium
Explanation: ***Venlafaxine***
- The patient's presentation of depression followed by a rapid shift to **euphoria**, **bizarre behavior**, **rapid speech**, and **psychomotor agitation** after starting an antidepressant strongly suggests **antidepressant-induced mania**.
- This response is characteristic of an underlying **bipolar disorder** unmasked by an antidepressant, particularly a **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)** like venlafaxine.
*Bupropion*
- Bupropion is a **norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI)**, not an SNRI, and is less commonly associated with inducing mania compared to SNRIs or SSRIs in vulnerable individuals.
- While it can be activating, its specific mechanism primarily targets dopamine and norepinephrine, with less direct serotonin reuptake blockade.
*Sertraline*
- Sertraline is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, which primarily blocks serotonin reuptake.
- While SSRIs can induce mania in patients with undiagnosed bipolar disorder, the question specifically states the doctor prescribed an antidepressant that blocks the reuptake of **both serotonin and norepinephrine**.
*Fluvoxamine*
- Fluvoxamine is also a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, primarily targeting serotonin, not both serotonin and norepinephrine.
- As with other SSRIs, it can induce manic episodes in vulnerable individuals, but it does not fit the description of the prescribed drug's mechanism of action.
*Lithium*
- Lithium is a **mood stabilizer** primarily used for the treatment of bipolar disorder and prevention of manic/depressive episodes, not an antidepressant.
- It would be contraindicated as a first-line treatment for what initially presented as unipolar depression and is used to *treat* rather than *induce* mania.
Question 8: A 19-year-old female college student is brought into the emergency department by her boyfriend. The boyfriend reports that the patient got caught stealing from the company she works for and subsequently got fired. The boyfriend received a text that evening saying “I’ll miss you.” When he arrived at her dorm room, the patient was slumped in the shower covered in blood. The patient agreed to be driven to the emergency room. When asked about what happened, the patient replies “I just want out of this life.” The patient has bipolar disorder, and takes lithium as prescribed. She has a psychiatrist she sees every week, which the boyfriend confirms. She has never had a prior suicide attempt nor has she ever been hospitalized for a psychiatric disorder. The patient’s vitals are stable. Upon physical examination, a 4 centimeter vertical incision is noted on the patient’s left forearm. During the patient’s laceration repair, she asks if she will be admitted. She states, “these ups and downs are common for me, but I feel better now.” She verbalizes that she understands that she overreacted. She asks to go home, and her boyfriend insists that he will stay with her. They both confirm that neither of them have guns or know any peers with access to guns. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the patient?
A. Have the patient sign a suicide contract before discharge
B. Set up a next-day appointment with the patient’s psychiatrist
C. Involuntarily admit the patient (Correct Answer)
D. Call the patient’s parents
E. Discontinue lithium and start valproate
Explanation: ***Involuntarily admit the patient***
- The patient's statement "I just want out of this life" combined with the **suicide attempt** (cutting her forearm after a text expressing suicidal ideation) indicates a high risk of self-harm. Despite her current verbalizations of feeling better, the **impulsivity** and severity of the attempt warrant involuntary admission for safety.
- The sudden shift in mood and desire to go home after a serious suicide attempt, stating "these ups and downs are common for me, but I feel better now," suggests potential **lability** and a continued risk that cannot be safely managed with outpatient follow-up alone.
*Have the patient sign a suicide contract before discharge*
- **Suicide contracts** have not been consistently shown to be effective in preventing suicide and can create a false sense of security.
- Given the **actual suicide attempt** and the patient's underlying psychiatric condition, a contract is insufficient to ensure her safety.
*Set up a next-day appointment with the patient’s psychiatrist*
- While follow-up with her psychiatrist is crucial, relying solely on a **next-day appointment** is inadequate given the acute and severe nature of the suicide attempt.
- There is a significant risk of another attempt before the appointment, and the patient needs the **structured environment and constant observation** of an inpatient setting.
*Call the patient’s parents*
- While involving the patient's support system is generally helpful, this action does not directly address the immediate **safety risk** posed by the recent suicide attempt.
- Parental involvement should be considered, but it is not the primary or most appropriate immediate management for a patient at **high risk of self-harm**.
*Discontinue lithium and start valproate*
- Modifying psychotropic medication is a decision made by a psychiatrist after a thorough evaluation, often over time, and is not the immediate or most appropriate "management" in the **emergency setting** for an acute suicide attempt.
- The priority is **safety and stabilization**, not an immediate medication change, especially given that she is already on a mood stabilizer.
Question 9: A 22-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after being detained by campus police for attempting to steal from the bookstore. Her roommate says that the patient has been acting strangely over the last 2 weeks. She has not slept in 4 days and has painted her room twice in that time span. She has also spent all of her savings on online shopping and lottery tickets. She has no history of psychiatric illness or substance abuse, and takes no medications. During the examination, she is uncooperative, combative, and refusing care. She screams, “Let me go, God has a plan for me and I must go finish it!”. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she describes her mood as “amazing.” She has a labile affect, speaks rapidly, and her thought process is tangential. She denies having any hallucinations. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?
A. Clozapine
B. Sertraline
C. Lithium
D. Valproate
E. Haloperidol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Haloperidol***
- The patient presents with acute agitation, **psychomotor agitation**, flight of ideas, pressured speech, and potentially **psychotic features** (grandiosity, combative behavior) within the context of a likely manic episode.
- **Haloperidol**, a first-generation antipsychotic, is highly effective for rapidly controlling severe agitation and psychotic symptoms in such emergency settings due to its potent dopamine D2 antagonism.
*Clozapine*
- **Clozapine** is an atypical antipsychotic primarily reserved for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** or bipolar disorder due to its superior efficacy but higher risk of severe side effects like agranulocytosis.
- It is not an appropriate first-line agent for acute agitation or initial treatment of a manic episode given its side effect profile and the need for frequent monitoring.
*Sertraline*
- **Sertraline** is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and other conditions involving serotonin dysregulation.
- Administering an antidepressant like sertraline during an acute manic episode can **worsen mania** or induce rapid cycling, making it contraindicated in this acute presentation.
*Lithium*
- **Lithium** is a mood stabilizer and a cornerstone treatment for bipolar disorder, particularly for chronic management and prevention of manic and depressive episodes.
- While effective, lithium has a **slow onset of action** (days to weeks) and is not suitable for rapid control of acute agitation and psychosis in the emergency setting.
*Valproate*
- **Valproate** (valproic acid) is an anticonvulsant that also functions as a mood stabilizer, commonly used for acute mania and maintenance treatment of bipolar disorder.
- Though effective for mania, like lithium, its onset of action is not as rapid as antipsychotics in controlling severe agitation and acute behavioral disturbances in an emergency.
Question 10: A 32-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband, who is concerned about her ability to care for herself. Three weeks ago, she quit her marketing job to start a clothing company. Since then, she has not slept more than 4 hours per night because she has been working on her business plans. She used a significant portion of their savings to fund business trips to Switzerland in order to buy “only the best quality fabrics in the world.” She has not showered and has eaten little during the past 3 days. She has had 2 similar episodes a few years back that required hospitalization and treatment in a psychiatry unit. She has also suffered from periods of depression. She is currently not taking any medications. She appears unkempt and agitated, pacing up and down the room. She speaks very fast without interruption about her business ideas. She has no suicidal ideation or ideas of self-harm. Toxicology screening is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for the management of this patient?
A. Clonazepam therapy for one year
B. Long-term lithium therapy (Correct Answer)
C. Sertraline therapy for one year
D. Long-term risperidone therapy
E. Long-term clozapine therapy
Explanation: ***Long-term lithium therapy***
- This patient presents with classic symptoms of **mania** (decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, compulsive spending, rapid speech) and a history of both manic and depressive episodes, consistent with **bipolar I disorder**.
- **Lithium** is a first-line agent for the **long-term maintenance treatment** of **bipolar I disorder**, particularly effective in preventing both manic and depressive episodes.
*Clonazepam therapy for one year*
- **Clonazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for short-term management of acute agitation or severe insomnia, not for long-term mood stabilization in bipolar disorder.
- Long-term use of benzodiazepines carries risks of **tolerance** and **dependence**, making it inappropriate for chronic maintenance treatment.
*Sertraline therapy for one year*
- **Sertraline** is an **antidepressant** (SSRI) that, when used as monotherapy in bipolar disorder, can induce **mania** or **rapid cycling**.
- While periods of depression are mentioned, the current presentation is manic, and mood stabilizers are the priority for long-term management.
*Long-term risperidone therapy*
- **Risperidone** is a **second-generation antipsychotic** effective in treating acute mania and can be used for maintenance in bipolar disorder, often as an adjunct or in patients who cannot tolerate lithium.
- However, for long-term monotherapy in bipolar I disorder, **lithium** is generally considered more effective and is the preferred first-line agent, especially given the history of recurrent episodes.
*Long-term clozapine therapy*
- **Clozapine** is an **atypical antipsychotic** reserved for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** and **refractory bipolar disorder**, often due to its significant side effect profile, including **agranulocytosis**.
- While it can be effective for severe or refractory cases of bipolar disorder, it is not a first-line long-term treatment given its risks and the availability of safer alternatives.