A 38-year-old woman presents with anxiety. She says that, for as long as she can remember, she has been anxious, especially when at work or in social situations, which she has difficulty controlling. She also reports difficulty sleeping, irritability, and muscle tension. She says her symptoms have significantly limited her work and personal relationships. She has no other significant past medical history. The patient denies any history of smoking, alcohol consumption or recreational drug use. She is afebrile, and her vitals signs are within normal limits. A physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Q72
A 20-year-old man comes to the physician because he believes he has low testosterone. He states that he is embarrassed at his lack of musculature, despite lifting weights twice daily. Every day, he drinks a gallon of milk and several protein shakes in addition to 3 large meals. He is convinced that his female classmates at the community college he attends are secretly laughing at his scrawny appearance. Over the course of the semester, he has attended fewer and fewer classes out of embarrassment and shame. He is also concerned that his hair is thinning and applies topical minoxidil to his scalp 3 times daily. He spends 2 hours daily anxiously examining himself in the mirror. Today, he is wearing a long-sleeved shirt and a hat. His BMI is 26 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, he has an anxious mood and a full range of affect. Serum studies show a normal testosterone concentration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q73
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department multiple times over the past 3 months feeling like her chest is about to explode. She has been screened on several occasions for acute coronary syndrome, but each time, her cardiac enzymes have all been within normal limits. She comes into the emergency room diaphoretic, short of breath, and complaining of chest pain. Her symptoms usually resolve within 30 minutes, but she is left with a lingering fear for the next attack. She does not know of any triggers for these episodes. After medical causes are ruled out, the patient is referred to outpatient psychiatry to confirm her most likely diagnosis. Which one of the following is correct regarding this patient’s most likely condition?
Q74
A 24-year-old woman is brought to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue for the past 6 months. During this period, she has had recurrent episodes of constipation and diarrhea. She also reports frequent nausea and palpitations. She works as a nurse at a local hospital. She has tried cognitive behavioral therapy, but her symptoms have not improved. Her mother has hypothyroidism. The patient is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 62 kg (137 lb); BMI is 21.5 kg/m2. She appears pale. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows calluses on the knuckles and bilateral parotid gland enlargement. Oropharyngeal examination shows eroded dental enamel and decalcified teeth. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q75
A 30-year-old man presents to his family physician admitting to using heroin. He says he started using about 6-months ago when his back pain medication ran out. At first, he says he would borrow his wife’s Percocet but, eventually, that ran out and he had to find a different source. Since then, he has been having more and more issues related to his heroin use, and it has started to affect his work and home life. He is concerned that, if he continues like this, he might end up in real trouble. He denies sharing needles and is sincerely interested in quitting. He recalls trying to quit last month but recounts how horrible the withdrawal symptoms were. Because of this and the strong cravings, he relapsed shortly after his initial attempt. Methadone maintenance therapy is prescribed. Which of the following would most likely be the most important benefit of this new treatment plan in this patient?
Q76
A 26-year-old woman presents to the office complaining of bloating and consistent fatigue. Past medical notes on her record show that she has seen several doctors at the clinic in the past year for the same concerns. During the discussion, she admits that coming to the doctor intensifies her anxiety and she does not enjoy it. However, she came because she fears that she has colon cancer and says, “There’s gotta be something wrong with me, I can feel it.” Past medical history is significant for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). She sees a therapist a few times a month. Her grandfather died of colon cancer at 75. Today, her blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 18/min, and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). Physical examination reveals a well-nourished, well-developed woman who appears anxious and tired. Her heart has a regular rhythm and her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is soft, non-tender, and non-distended. No masses are palpated, and a digital rectal examination is unremarkable. Laboratory results are as follows:
Serum chemistry
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Hematocrit
38%
MCV 90 fl
TSH
4.1 μU/mL
Fecal occult blood test negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q77
A 42-year-old woman presents with trouble focusing. She says that she has trouble focusing on simple tasks and her thoughts are very scattered. These difficulties have been present since she was a young student in elementary school. She says she had difficulty focusing both at school and at home. The patient is diagnosed with a psychiatric condition and is prescribed the medication that is recommended as the first-line treatment. Which of the following statements is true regarding this new medication?
Q78
A 32-year-old woman presents complaining of nightmares. She reports that these “nightmares” happen when she is asleep and also sometimes when she is awake, but she cannot come up with another description for them. The episodes have been happening for at least 3 weeks now. She states that when it happens she feels “outside of her body,” like she’s “watching myself.” She also reports some chronic fatigue. The patient denies headaches, vision changes, dizziness, or loss in sensation or motor function. She has no notable medical or surgical history. She takes a multivitamin every day. She smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day but denies alcohol or illicit drug use. The patient appears slightly anxious but is in no acute distress. A physical and neurological exam is normal. She denies suicidal or homicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms?
Q79
A 21-year-old female college student is brought to the university clinic by her roommates. They became worried because they noted long strands of hair all over the dormitory room floor. This has progressively worsened, with the midterms approaching. During discussions with the physician, the roommates also mention that she aggressively manipulates her scalp when she becomes upset or stressed. Physical examination reveals an otherwise well but anxious female with patches of missing and varying lengths of hair. A dermal biopsy is consistent with traumatic alopecia. What is the single most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Q80
An 11-year-old girl is brought into the clinic by her parents, who are distraught over her behavior. They state that over the past several months she has started to act oddly, combing the hair of her toy dolls for hours without stopping and repetitively counting her steps in the house. She is often brought to tears when confronted about these behaviors. The patient has no past medical history. When questioned about family history, the mother states she has needed close medical follow-up in the past, but declines to elaborate. The patient's vital signs are all within normal limits. On physical exam the patient is a well nourished 11-year-old girl in no acute distress. She has occasional motor tics, but the remainder of the exam is benign. What is the diagnosis in this patient?
Anxiety US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: A 38-year-old woman presents with anxiety. She says that, for as long as she can remember, she has been anxious, especially when at work or in social situations, which she has difficulty controlling. She also reports difficulty sleeping, irritability, and muscle tension. She says her symptoms have significantly limited her work and personal relationships. She has no other significant past medical history. The patient denies any history of smoking, alcohol consumption or recreational drug use. She is afebrile, and her vitals signs are within normal limits. A physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Paroxetine (Correct Answer)
B. Propranolol
C. Buspirone
D. Lurasidone
E. Alprazolam
Explanation: ***Paroxetine***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)**, characterized by **persistent, excessive anxiety** and worry about various events or activities, occurring for at least six months, along with difficulty controlling the worry and associated symptoms like **sleep disturbance**, **irritability**, and **muscle tension**.
- **SSRIs** like paroxetine are considered **first-line pharmacotherapy** for GAD due to their efficacy and generally favorable side-effect profile when used long-term.
*Propranolol*
- Propranolol is a **beta-blocker** primarily used for the **symptomatic relief** of somatic anxiety symptoms like **tremors**, **tachycardia**, and **palpitations**, often in performance anxiety.
- It does **not address the core psychological symptoms** or chronic worry associated with GAD and is not a first-line treatment for the disorder itself.
*Buspirone*
- Buspirone is an **anxiolytic** that can be effective for GAD, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate or prefer to avoid SSRIs.
- While it is a good option, it's often considered a **second-line agent** or an alternative when SSRIs are not fully effective or tolerated, rather than the initial first-line choice.
*Lurasidone*
- Lurasidone is an **atypical antipsychotic** primarily approved for the treatment of **schizophrenia** and **bipolar depression**.
- It is **not indicated for the treatment of anxiety disorders** like GAD and would not be an appropriate first-line choice.
*Alprazolam*
- Alprazolam is a **benzodiazepine** that provides **rapid relief** of anxiety symptoms.
- However, due to the risk of **dependence**, **tolerance**, and **withdrawal symptoms**, benzodiazepines are generally recommended for **short-term use** or for immediate symptom relief while awaiting the effects of first-line antidepressants, not as a long-term first-line monotherapy for GAD.
Question 72: A 20-year-old man comes to the physician because he believes he has low testosterone. He states that he is embarrassed at his lack of musculature, despite lifting weights twice daily. Every day, he drinks a gallon of milk and several protein shakes in addition to 3 large meals. He is convinced that his female classmates at the community college he attends are secretly laughing at his scrawny appearance. Over the course of the semester, he has attended fewer and fewer classes out of embarrassment and shame. He is also concerned that his hair is thinning and applies topical minoxidil to his scalp 3 times daily. He spends 2 hours daily anxiously examining himself in the mirror. Today, he is wearing a long-sleeved shirt and a hat. His BMI is 26 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, he has an anxious mood and a full range of affect. Serum studies show a normal testosterone concentration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Obsessive compulsive disorder
B. Avoidant personality disorder
C. Binge eating disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
E. Body dysmorphic disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Body dysmorphic disorder***
- The patient's preoccupation with perceived flaws in his physique (lack of musculature, scrawny appearance), excessive gym activity, dietary habits, mirror checking, camouflage (long-sleeved shirt, hat), and social avoidance (missing classes) despite normal physique strongly suggest **body dysmorphic disorder**.
- **Muscle dysmorphia**, a specific form of BDD, is characterized by a preoccupation with the idea that one's body is too small or not muscular enough, often leading to excessive exercise and dietary changes, as seen in this patient.
*Obsessive compulsive disorder*
- While there are compulsive behaviors (mirror checking, excessive exercise), the primary driver is the preoccupation with perceived physical flaws, which is central to **body dysmorphic disorder**, not a generalized obsession or compulsion.
- OCD involves recurrent, persistent thoughts (obsessions) that cause anxiety and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) performed to reduce anxiety, but the content of the obsession in BDD is specific to body image.
*Avoidant personality disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, which might explain social withdrawal.
- However, the core of this patient's distress is his intense preoccupation with perceived physical flaws, which drives his social avoidance, differentiating it from the general anxiety about social competence seen in **avoidant personality disorder**.
*Binge eating disorder*
- This disorder involves recurrent episodes of eating unusually large amounts of food in a short period, often accompanied by feelings of lack of control, distress, and guilt.
- While the patient consumes a large amount of food (gallon of milk, protein shakes, 3 large meals), it's presented as part of an effort to gain muscle and address his perceived "scrawny appearance," not as uncontrolled overeating in response to distress, which is characteristic of **binge eating disorder**.
*Generalized anxiety disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry about a variety of events or activities for at least 6 months.
- While the patient exhibits anxiety, it is specifically focused on his body image and appearance, distinguishing it from the broad, pervasive worries seen in **generalized anxiety disorder**.
Question 73: A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department multiple times over the past 3 months feeling like her chest is about to explode. She has been screened on several occasions for acute coronary syndrome, but each time, her cardiac enzymes have all been within normal limits. She comes into the emergency room diaphoretic, short of breath, and complaining of chest pain. Her symptoms usually resolve within 30 minutes, but she is left with a lingering fear for the next attack. She does not know of any triggers for these episodes. After medical causes are ruled out, the patient is referred to outpatient psychiatry to confirm her most likely diagnosis. Which one of the following is correct regarding this patient’s most likely condition?
A. The patient must have a fear of not being able to escape.
B. The patient must have symptoms for at least 3 months.
C. The patient must have symptoms of elevated autonomic activity. (Correct Answer)
D. Attacks occur at regular intervals.
E. There is a fixed number of attacks needed for diagnosis.
Explanation: ***The patient must have symptoms of elevated autonomic activity.***
- The patient's presentation with **diaphoresis**, **shortness of breath**, and **chest pain** during these episodes are classic symptoms of **autonomic arousal**, which are central to a panic attack diagnosis.
- Medical causes for these physical symptoms, such as acute coronary syndrome, have been ruled out, further supporting a psychiatric etiology involving **hyperactivity of the autonomic nervous system**.
*The patient must have a fear of not being able to escape.*
- While **agoraphobia** (fear of not being able to escape, often in public places) can co-occur with panic disorder, it is **not a mandatory diagnostic criterion** for panic disorder itself.
- The patient’s primary anxiety described is about recurrence of the attacks and their physical sensations, not specifically about being unable to escape a particular situation.
*The patients must have symptoms for at least 3 months.*
- According to DSM-5 criteria, panic disorder requires at least **one month** of persistent concern or worry about additional panic attacks or their consequences, or a significant maladaptive change in behavior related to the attacks.
- The 3-month timeframe mentioned in the clinical vignette describes the duration of her symptoms, but it's not a direct diagnostic threshold for the duration of symptoms.
*Attacks occur at regular intervals.*
- Panic attacks in panic disorder are characterized by their **unpredictable** and **spontaneous** nature, often occurring "out of the blue," rather than at regular intervals.
- The lack of known triggers supports the spontaneous nature of these attacks, a hallmark of panic disorder.
*There is a fixed number of attacks needed for diagnosis.*
- There is **no fixed number of attacks** required for the diagnosis of panic disorder; instead, the diagnosis hinges on the presence of **recurrent, unexpected panic attacks** followed by at least one month of persistent concern about additional attacks or their consequences.
- The severity and impact of the attacks, along with the subsequent worry, are more important than a specific count.
Question 74: A 24-year-old woman is brought to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue for the past 6 months. During this period, she has had recurrent episodes of constipation and diarrhea. She also reports frequent nausea and palpitations. She works as a nurse at a local hospital. She has tried cognitive behavioral therapy, but her symptoms have not improved. Her mother has hypothyroidism. The patient is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 62 kg (137 lb); BMI is 21.5 kg/m2. She appears pale. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows calluses on the knuckles and bilateral parotid gland enlargement. Oropharyngeal examination shows eroded dental enamel and decalcified teeth. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Administration of topiramate
B. Administration of fluoxetine (Correct Answer)
C. Administration of mirtazapine
D. Administration of olanzapine
E. Administration of venlafaxine
Explanation: ***Administration of fluoxetine***
- The patient's symptoms, including **parotid gland enlargement**, **eroded dental enamel**, **calluses on the knuckles (Russell's sign)**, and a history of recurrent constipation/diarrhea with normal BMI despite purging behaviors, are highly suggestive of **bulimia nervosa**.
- **Fluoxetine** is the only antidepressant specifically approved by the FDA for the treatment of bulimia nervosa, demonstrating efficacy in reducing binge-eating and purging behaviors.
*Administration of topiramate*
- **Topiramate** is an anticonvulsant that can be used off-label for weight loss and may reduce binge-eating frequency in some individuals.
- However, it is **not FDA-approved** for bulimia nervosa and its use is usually reserved for cases refractory to first-line treatments like fluoxetine, or in patients with comorbid conditions like migraines or seizures.
*Administration of mirtazapine*
- **Mirtazapine** is an antidepressant known for its **sedative and appetite-stimulating effects**, often leading to weight gain.
- This characteristic makes it **less suitable** as a primary treatment for bulimia nervosa, where weight gain is often a significant concern for patients.
*Administration of olanzapine*
- **Olanzapine** is an atypical antipsychotic often associated with **significant weight gain and metabolic side effects**.
- While it can be used in some eating disorders, particularly **anorexia nervosa** to aid weight restoration, it is **not indicated** as a first-line treatment for bulimia nervosa and would be counterproductive given the patient's concerns.
*Administration of venlafaxine*
- **Venlafaxine** is a **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)** used for depression and anxiety.
- While it may have some antidepressant effects, it is **not a first-line treatment** specifically approved or recommended for bulimia nervosa in the way fluoxetine is.
Question 75: A 30-year-old man presents to his family physician admitting to using heroin. He says he started using about 6-months ago when his back pain medication ran out. At first, he says he would borrow his wife’s Percocet but, eventually, that ran out and he had to find a different source. Since then, he has been having more and more issues related to his heroin use, and it has started to affect his work and home life. He is concerned that, if he continues like this, he might end up in real trouble. He denies sharing needles and is sincerely interested in quitting. He recalls trying to quit last month but recounts how horrible the withdrawal symptoms were. Because of this and the strong cravings, he relapsed shortly after his initial attempt. Methadone maintenance therapy is prescribed. Which of the following would most likely be the most important benefit of this new treatment plan in this patient?
A. Decreases methadone dependence
B. Euphoria without the side effects
C. Prevention of withdrawal symptoms and reduced cravings (Correct Answer)
D. Reduced risk of hepatitis B and C transmission
E. Improved interpersonal relationships
Explanation: ***Prevention of withdrawal symptoms and reduced cravings***
- **Methadone maintenance therapy** is a long-acting μ-opioid receptor agonist that prevents withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings—this is the **primary therapeutic benefit** and mechanism of action.
- By providing a stable, long-acting opioid, methadone eliminates the cycle of withdrawal and drug-seeking behavior that characterizes heroin addiction.
- This patient's previous quit attempt failed specifically due to **"horrible withdrawal symptoms"** and **strong cravings**, making this the most directly relevant benefit for his situation.
- All other benefits of methadone maintenance (improved functioning, better relationships, reduced risk behaviors) are **secondary consequences** that stem from this primary pharmacological effect.
- Evidence-based guidelines consistently identify withdrawal prevention and craving reduction as the core therapeutic goals of opioid agonist therapy.
*Improved interpersonal relationships*
- While this is an important **downstream benefit** of successful methadone maintenance, it is an indirect consequence rather than the primary therapeutic effect.
- Improved relationships result FROM the stabilization achieved through withdrawal prevention and craving reduction, not as a direct pharmacological action.
- Though clinically meaningful, this represents a **psychosocial outcome** rather than the most important direct benefit of the medication itself.
*Decreases methadone dependence*
- This is **incorrect**—methadone itself is an opioid agonist and patients on maintenance therapy develop **physical dependence** on methadone.
- The goal is to substitute unstable illicit opioid use (heroin) with stable, medically supervised opioid therapy (methadone), not to eliminate opioid dependence immediately.
- Methadone maintenance is harm reduction, not abstinence-based treatment initially.
*Euphoria without the side effects*
- Methadone is **not intended to produce euphoria**—it is administered at stable doses to maintain normal functioning without intoxication.
- Its slow onset and long duration of action when taken orally minimize the "rush" or euphoric effects associated with rapid-acting opioids like heroin.
- The goal is stabilization and normal functioning, not achieving a "high."
*Reduced risk of hepatitis B and C transmission*
- This is a valuable **harm reduction benefit**, particularly for those who inject drugs and share needles.
- However, this patient specifically **denies sharing needles**, making this less relevant to his individual case.
- More importantly, this is a secondary benefit that occurs as a result of reduced injection drug use, which itself results from the primary effect of withdrawal prevention and craving reduction.
Question 76: A 26-year-old woman presents to the office complaining of bloating and consistent fatigue. Past medical notes on her record show that she has seen several doctors at the clinic in the past year for the same concerns. During the discussion, she admits that coming to the doctor intensifies her anxiety and she does not enjoy it. However, she came because she fears that she has colon cancer and says, “There’s gotta be something wrong with me, I can feel it.” Past medical history is significant for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). She sees a therapist a few times a month. Her grandfather died of colon cancer at 75. Today, her blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 18/min, and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). Physical examination reveals a well-nourished, well-developed woman who appears anxious and tired. Her heart has a regular rhythm and her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is soft, non-tender, and non-distended. No masses are palpated, and a digital rectal examination is unremarkable. Laboratory results are as follows:
Serum chemistry
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Hematocrit
38%
MCV 90 fl
TSH
4.1 μU/mL
Fecal occult blood test negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Malingering
B. Somatic symptom disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Body dysmorphic disorder
E. Illness anxiety disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Illness anxiety disorder***
- This patient exhibits **preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness**, despite minimal somatic symptoms and negative diagnostic findings. Her fear of colon cancer, despite an unremarkable physical exam and negative fecal occult blood test, is a key indicator.
- Her history of seeking care from multiple doctors, admitting anxiety about visits, and stating "There's gotta be something wrong with me, I can feel it," aligns with the **excessive health-related behaviors** (or maladaptive avoidance) and **high anxiety about health** central to illness anxiety disorder.
*Somatic symptom disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by **one or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life**, accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to these symptoms.
- In this case, the patient's symptoms (bloating, fatigue) are minimal, and her primary concern is the *fear of having* a serious illness, rather than the distress caused by the physical symptoms themselves.
*Generalized anxiety disorder*
- This involves **excessive anxiety and worry about a number of events or activities** that is difficult to control and present for at least 6 months.
- While the patient experiences anxiety, it is specifically focused on her health, not generalized concerns about various aspects of her life.
*Malingering*
- This involves the **intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms**, motivated by external incentives such as avoiding work or obtaining financial compensation.
- The patient genuinely believes she has a serious illness and is distressed by this belief, rather than faking symptoms for an external gain.
*Body dysmorphic disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by **preoccupation with one or more perceived defects or flaws in physical appearance** that are not observable or appear slight to others.
- The patient's concerns are about an internal illness (colon cancer), not specific physical appearance flaws.
Question 77: A 42-year-old woman presents with trouble focusing. She says that she has trouble focusing on simple tasks and her thoughts are very scattered. These difficulties have been present since she was a young student in elementary school. She says she had difficulty focusing both at school and at home. The patient is diagnosed with a psychiatric condition and is prescribed the medication that is recommended as the first-line treatment. Which of the following statements is true regarding this new medication?
A. “Chronic use of this medication can lead to tardive dyskinesia.”
B. “Hypotension is a common side effect of this medication.”
C. “Sedation is a common side effect of this medication.”
D. “Appetite suppression is a common side effect of this medication.” (Correct Answer)
E. Bupropion is more effective than this medication for treating this disorder in adults.
Explanation: ***Appetite suppression is a common side effect of this medication.***
- The patient's symptoms (trouble focusing, scattered thoughts since childhood, difficulty focusing at school and home) are highly suggestive of **Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)**.
- The first-line medications for ADHD are **stimulants** (e.g., methylphenidate, amphetamines), which commonly cause **appetite suppression** and **weight loss**.
*"Chronic use of this medication can lead to tardive dyskinesia."*
- **Tardive dyskinesia** is a severe side effect primarily associated with **long-term use of dopamine receptor blocking antipsychotic medications**, not stimulants.
- Stimulants do not typically cause tardive dyskinesia because their primary mechanism of action is increasing neurotransmitter levels, not blocking dopamine receptors.
*"Hypotension is a common side effect of this medication."*
- **Stimulants** typically cause an **increase in blood pressure and heart rate** (hypertension, tachycardia) due to their sympathomimetic effects, not hypotension.
- **Hypotension** might be observed with certain **antihypertensive medications** or alpha-2 agonists like guanfacine or clonidine, which are sometimes used for ADHD but are not first-line stimulants.
*"Bupropion is more effective than this medication for treating this disorder in adults."*
- This statement is **incorrect**. **Stimulants** are the **first-line treatment** for ADHD due to their superior efficacy in improving attention and reducing hyperactivity/impulsivity.
- **Bupropion** is an antidepressant that is sometimes used off-label for ADHD, but it is generally considered **less effective than stimulant medications** for treating core ADHD symptoms in adults.
*"Sedation is a common side effect of this medication."*
- **Stimulants** are known for their **activating effects** and typically cause **insomnia** and **nervousness**, rather than sedation.
- **Sedation** is a common side effect of medications like **antihistamines, hypnotics, or some antidepressants** (e.g., trazodone), not stimulants.
Question 78: A 32-year-old woman presents complaining of nightmares. She reports that these “nightmares” happen when she is asleep and also sometimes when she is awake, but she cannot come up with another description for them. The episodes have been happening for at least 3 weeks now. She states that when it happens she feels “outside of her body,” like she’s “watching myself.” She also reports some chronic fatigue. The patient denies headaches, vision changes, dizziness, or loss in sensation or motor function. She has no notable medical or surgical history. She takes a multivitamin every day. She smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day but denies alcohol or illicit drug use. The patient appears slightly anxious but is in no acute distress. A physical and neurological exam is normal. She denies suicidal or homicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms?
A. Dissociative identity disorder
B. Brief psychotic disorder
C. Delusional disorder
D. Depersonalization/derealization disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue
Explanation: ***Depersonalization/derealization disorder***
- The patient's symptom of feeling "outside of her body" and "watching myself" is a classic description of **depersonalization**, a core feature of depersonalization/derealization disorder.
- Her episodes occurring both while awake and asleep, chronic fatigue, and normal neurological exam, in the absence of other specific neurological or psychiatric symptoms, align well with this diagnosis.
- **DSM-5 diagnostic criteria** include persistent or recurrent experiences of depersonalization (feeling detached from one's mental processes or body) and/or derealization (feeling detached from surroundings), with intact reality testing.
*Dissociative identity disorder*
- This disorder involves the presence of **two or more distinct personality states** or identities, which is not described.
- Patients typically experience significant memory gaps for everyday events, personal information, and traumatic events, which are not mentioned.
*Brief psychotic disorder*
- This diagnosis involves the sudden onset of **psychotic symptoms** such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or grossly disorganized/catatonic behavior, none of which are present.
- The duration is specific, lasting more than 1 day but less than 1 month, and the patient's symptoms are dissociative, not psychotic.
*Delusional disorder*
- The primary feature of delusional disorder is the presence of **non-bizarre delusions** for at least 1 month, without other signs of psychosis.
- The patient's "nightmares" and feeling "outside of her body" are experiences of depersonalization, not fixed false beliefs.
*Dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue*
- In **DSM-5**, dissociative fugue is a specifier for dissociative amnesia, involving sudden, unexpected travel away from home with **inability to recall one's past**, coupled with confusion about personal identity.
- The patient describes specific dissociative experiences (depersonalization) but does not mention any travel or loss of memory for personal identity.
Question 79: A 21-year-old female college student is brought to the university clinic by her roommates. They became worried because they noted long strands of hair all over the dormitory room floor. This has progressively worsened, with the midterms approaching. During discussions with the physician, the roommates also mention that she aggressively manipulates her scalp when she becomes upset or stressed. Physical examination reveals an otherwise well but anxious female with patches of missing and varying lengths of hair. A dermal biopsy is consistent with traumatic alopecia. What is the single most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A. Clomipramine
B. Venlafaxine
C. Electroconvulsive therapy
D. Cognitive-behavior therapy or behavior modification (Correct Answer)
E. Phenelzine
Explanation: ***Cognitive-behavior therapy or behavior modification***
- The patient's presentation is consistent with **trichotillomania**, a condition characterized by recurrent, irresistible urges to pull out hair. **Cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT)**, specifically habit reversal training (HRT), is the first-line treatment.
- **CBT** helps patients identify triggers, develop alternative coping mechanisms, and reduce hair-pulling behavior.
*Clomipramine*
- **Clomipramine**, a tricyclic antidepressant, has shown some efficacy in severe cases of trichotillomania, but it is typically considered a **second-line treatment** after behavioral therapies.
- It has a less favorable side effect profile compared to SSRIs and behavioral therapies.
*Venlafaxine*
- **Venlafaxine** is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) and is not considered a first-line treatment for trichotillomania.
- While it may be used for co-occurring anxiety or depression, its direct efficacy for hair pulling is **limited** and not established as a primary treatment.
*Electroconvulsive therapy*
- **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is a highly invasive procedure generally reserved for severe, resistant mood disorders, like major depression with psychotic features or severe bipolar disorder.
- It is **not indicated** for the treatment of trichotillomania.
*Phenelzine*
- **Phenelzine** is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) antidepressant.
- MAOIs are generally reserved for **refractory depression** due to their significant dietary restrictions and potential for drug interactions, and they are not a primary treatment for trichotillomania.
Question 80: An 11-year-old girl is brought into the clinic by her parents, who are distraught over her behavior. They state that over the past several months she has started to act oddly, combing the hair of her toy dolls for hours without stopping and repetitively counting her steps in the house. She is often brought to tears when confronted about these behaviors. The patient has no past medical history. When questioned about family history, the mother states she has needed close medical follow-up in the past, but declines to elaborate. The patient's vital signs are all within normal limits. On physical exam the patient is a well nourished 11-year-old girl in no acute distress. She has occasional motor tics, but the remainder of the exam is benign. What is the diagnosis in this patient?
A. Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)
B. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
C. Major depressive disorder (MDD)
D. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) (Correct Answer)
E. Tourette's syndrome
Explanation: ***Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)***
- The patient's **repetitive behaviors** (combing dolls' hair for hours, counting steps) and her distress when confronted ("brought to tears") are classic symptoms of **obsessions** and **compulsions**.
- The presence of **motor tics** also supports OCD, as tics are frequently comorbid with OCD, especially in children and adolescents.
*Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)*
- While ASD involves **repetitive behaviors** and restricted interests, these are typically accompanied by significant deficits in **social communication** and interaction, which are not described here.
- The patient's distress when behaviors are interrupted points more towards anxiety inherent in OCD rather than the rigid adherence common in ASD.
*Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)*
- GAD is characterized by **excessive worry** about various events or activities, often difficult to control, and associated with physical symptoms like restlessness or fatigue.
- While the patient experiences distress, the primary issue is specific, intrusive thoughts and repetitive actions, not generalized worry.
*Major depressive disorder (MDD)*
- MDD involves a persistent period of **depressed mood** or **loss of interest/pleasure** along with other symptoms like changes in appetite, sleep, or energy.
- The patient's primary symptoms are repetitive behaviors and distress, not the core features of depression, although secondary distress could occur.
*Tourette's syndrome*
- Tourette's syndrome is characterized by **multiple motor tics** and at least one **vocal tic** for over a year.
- While the patient has occasional motor tics, the predominant and distressing symptoms are the obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors, which are the hallmarks of OCD, a disorder often comorbid with tic disorders.