Ten days after the vaginal delivery of a healthy infant girl, a 27-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of frequent mood changes. She has been tearful and anxious since she went home from the hospital 2 days after delivery. She says that she feels overwhelmed with her new responsibilities and has difficulties taking care of her newborn because she feels constantly tired. She only sleeps for 2 to 3 hours nightly because the baby “is keeping her awake.” Sometimes, the patient checks on her daughter because she thinks she heard her cry but finds her sleeping quietly. Her husband says that she is afraid that something could happen to the baby. She often gets angry at him and has yelled at him when he picks up the baby without using a hand sanitizer beforehand. She breastfeeds the baby without any problems. The patient's mother has bipolar disorder with psychotic features. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows an involuting uterus consistent in size with her postpartum date. Mental status examination shows a labile affect with no evidence of homicidal or suicidal ideation. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 13 g/dL and a thyroid-stimulating hormone level of 3.1 μU/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q62
A 35-year-old woman presents to clinic in emotional distress. She states she has been unhappy for the past couple of months and is having problems with her sleep and appetite. Additionally, she reports significant anxiety regarding thoughts of dirtiness around the house. She states that she cleans all of the doorknobs 5-10 times per day and that, despite her actions, the stress related to cleaning is becoming worse. What is this patient's diagnosis?
Q63
A 39-year-old woman comes to the physician for difficulty sleeping and poor concentration at work. She sleeps with the lights turned on and wakes up frequently during the night with palpitations and profuse sweating. Three weeks ago she was sexually assaulted in her car. Since the assault she has avoided using her car and only uses public transportation. She also has nightmares of her attacker. She has been sent home from work for yelling at her coworkers. She has Hashimoto thyroiditis. Current medications include levothyroxine. She has been treated for pelvic inflammatory disease in the past. She has tried alcohol and melatonin to help her sleep. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and a negative affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q64
A 33-year-old woman presents with lethargy and neck pain. She says that, for the past 6 months, she has been feeling tired all the time and has noticed a lot of muscle tension around the base of her neck. She also says she finds herself constantly worrying about everything, such as if her registered mail would reach family and friends in time for the holidays or if the children got their nightly bath while she was away over the weekend. She says that this worrying has prevented her from sleeping at night and has made her more irritable and edgy with her family and friends. Which of the following is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Q65
A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of intermittent episodes of shortness of breath, chest tightness, palpitation, dizziness, sweaty hands, and a feeling of impending doom. She says that her symptoms occur when she goes for a walk or waits in line for coffee. She reports that she no longer leaves the house by herself because she is afraid of being alone when her symptoms occur. She only goes out when her boyfriend accompanies her. She does not smoke or use illicit drugs. Within a few hours after each episode, physical examination and laboratory studies have shown no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q66
A 20-year-old woman presents with chest pain for the last 20 minutes. She describes a ''squeezing'' sensation in the chest and can feel her heart ''racing''. Worried that she might be having a heart attack, she took aspirin before coming to the hospital. Five days ago, she says she had similar symptoms, but they resolved within 10 minutes. Her medical and family history is unremarkable. She denies any drug and alcohol use. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), a pulse of 110/min, a respiratory rate of 28/min, and blood pressure of 136/80 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient appears fidgety and restless. An echocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the next best step in treatment of this patient?
Q67
A 55-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction 3 months ago presents with feelings of depression. He says that he has become detached from his friends and family and has daily feelings of hopelessness. He says he has started to avoid strenuous activities and is no longer going to his favorite bar where he used to spend a lot of time drinking with his buddies. The patient says these symptoms have been ongoing for the past 6 weeks, and his wife is starting to worry about his behavior. He notes that he continues to have nightmares that he is having another heart attack. He says he is even more jumpy than he used to be, and he startles very easily. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q68
A 29-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because she has been experiencing episodes of intense fear. Specifically, she says that roughly once per week she will feel an intense fear of dying accompanied by chest pain, lightheadedness, sweating, and palpitations. In addition, she will feel as if she is choking which leads her to hyperventilate. She cannot recall any trigger for these episodes and is afraid that they will occur while she is driving or working. In order to avoid this possibility, she has been getting rides from a friend and has been avoiding interactions with her coworkers. These changes have not stopped the episodes so she came in for evaluation. This patient's disorder is most likely genetically associated with a personality disorder with which of the following features?
Q69
A 26-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a routine physical exam. He is concerned about a burning sensation that he feels in his throat whenever he eats large meals and is concerned he may have esophageal cancer like his uncle. The patient has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and constipation. His current medications include whey protein supplements, fish oil, a multivitamin, and sodium docusate. The patient is concerned about his performance in school and fears he may fail out. He recently did poorly on an exam and it has caused him significant stress. He also is worried that his girlfriend is going to leave him. The patient claims that he thought he was going to be an incredible doctor some day, but now he feels like a terrible person. The patient also states that he feels guilty about his grandfather's death which occurred 1 year ago and he often reexperiences the funeral in his mind. He regularly has trouble sleeping for which he takes melatonin. The patient has been praying every 4 hours with the hopes that this will make things go better for him. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q70
A 45-year-old woman repetitively visits the general surgery clinic worried that her inguinal hernia is incarcerated. 2 months ago, she was seen in the emergency department where she presented with a left lower abdominal swelling. The mass was easily reduced and the patient was referred to the general surgery clinic for elective surgical repair. Because her condition was deemed not urgent, she was informed that she was down on the surgical waiting list. Despite this, she continues to visit the clinic and the ED worried that her bowels are ‘trapped and dying.’ Each time she is reassured and any protrusion present is quickly reduced. She has previously frequently visited her primary care physician for complaints of abdominal pain and inconsistent bowel habits, but no etiology could be identified. She continues to intermittently have these symptoms and spends hours every day worrying about what may be going on. She has no other significant past medical history. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Anxiety US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: Ten days after the vaginal delivery of a healthy infant girl, a 27-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of frequent mood changes. She has been tearful and anxious since she went home from the hospital 2 days after delivery. She says that she feels overwhelmed with her new responsibilities and has difficulties taking care of her newborn because she feels constantly tired. She only sleeps for 2 to 3 hours nightly because the baby “is keeping her awake.” Sometimes, the patient checks on her daughter because she thinks she heard her cry but finds her sleeping quietly. Her husband says that she is afraid that something could happen to the baby. She often gets angry at him and has yelled at him when he picks up the baby without using a hand sanitizer beforehand. She breastfeeds the baby without any problems. The patient's mother has bipolar disorder with psychotic features. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows an involuting uterus consistent in size with her postpartum date. Mental status examination shows a labile affect with no evidence of homicidal or suicidal ideation. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 13 g/dL and a thyroid-stimulating hormone level of 3.1 μU/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Risperidone therapy
B. Bupropion therapy
C. Cognitive behavioral therapy
D. Reassurance (Correct Answer)
E. Sertraline therapy
Explanation: ***Reassurance***
- The patient exhibits symptoms of **"baby blues"**, including tearfulness, anxiety, mood swings, and feeling overwhelmed, which are common within the first two weeks postpartum and typically resolve spontaneously.
- Given the transient nature of **baby blues** and the absence of more severe symptoms like psychosis or significant functional impairment, **reassurance** and supportive care are the most appropriate initial steps.
*Risperidone therapy*
- **Risperidone** is an **antipsychotic** medication used for conditions like psychosis or severe mood disorders, which are not present in this patient's mild, transient symptoms of baby blues.
- Initiating antipsychotic therapy for **self-limiting baby blues** is unnecessary and could lead to unwanted side effects.
*Bupropion therapy*
- **Bupropion** is an **antidepressant** primarily used for major depressive disorder and seasonal affective disorder, and is not indicated for the mild, transient symptoms of **baby blues**.
- Its mechanism of action involves dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibition, differing from typical SSRIs often considered for postpartum depression.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy*
- While **CBT** is an effective treatment for **postpartum depression** and anxiety disorders, the patient's symptoms are consistent with **baby blues**, which are self-limiting and resolve with supportive care in most cases.
- CBT would be more appropriate if the symptoms were severe, persistent beyond two weeks, or indicative of a more significant mood disorder.
*Sertraline therapy*
- **Sertraline** is an **SSRI antidepressant** commonly used for **postpartum depression** and anxiety, but it is not indicated for the transient and mild symptoms of **baby blues**.
- Antidepressants are typically reserved for more severe and persistent symptoms characteristic of postpartum depression, which usually lasts longer than two weeks.
Question 62: A 35-year-old woman presents to clinic in emotional distress. She states she has been unhappy for the past couple of months and is having problems with her sleep and appetite. Additionally, she reports significant anxiety regarding thoughts of dirtiness around the house. She states that she cleans all of the doorknobs 5-10 times per day and that, despite her actions, the stress related to cleaning is becoming worse. What is this patient's diagnosis?
A. Panic Disorder (PD)
B. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
C. Obsessive compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)
D. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) (Correct Answer)
E. Tic disorder
Explanation: ***Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)***
- The patient's **recurrent distressing thoughts** about dirtiness (obsessions) and **repetitive cleaning behaviors** (compulsions) designed to reduce anxiety are hallmark symptoms of OCD.
- The significant **emotional distress**, impact on daily life, and worsening stress despite the compulsions further support this diagnosis.
*Panic Disorder (PD)*
- Characterized by **recurrent, unexpected panic attacks** and persistent worry about additional attacks or their consequences.
- While anxiety is present, the patient's primary distress is driven by specific obsessions and compulsions, not sudden episodes of intense fear.
*Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)*
- Involves **excessive, uncontrollable worry** about a variety of events or activities for at least 6 months.
- The anxiety symptoms are general, not focused on specific obsessions leading to compulsive behaviors as seen in this case.
*Obsessive compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)*
- Marked by pervasive patterns of **perfectionism, orderliness, and control** at the expense of flexibility and efficiency.
- While there may be a preoccupation with rules, OCPD does not typically involve intrusive, ego-dystonic obsessions or ritualistic compulsions like repetitive cleaning to reduce anxiety.
*Tic disorder*
- Characterized by **sudden, rapid, recurrent, non-rhythmic motor movements or vocalizations**.
- Tics are distinct from the complex, goal-directed, and anxiety-driven compulsive behaviors described by the patient.
Question 63: A 39-year-old woman comes to the physician for difficulty sleeping and poor concentration at work. She sleeps with the lights turned on and wakes up frequently during the night with palpitations and profuse sweating. Three weeks ago she was sexually assaulted in her car. Since the assault she has avoided using her car and only uses public transportation. She also has nightmares of her attacker. She has been sent home from work for yelling at her coworkers. She has Hashimoto thyroiditis. Current medications include levothyroxine. She has been treated for pelvic inflammatory disease in the past. She has tried alcohol and melatonin to help her sleep. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and a negative affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Post-traumatic stress disorder
B. Persistent complex bereavement disorder
C. Acute stress disorder (Correct Answer)
D. Adjustment disorder
E. Adverse effect of medication
Explanation: ***Acute stress disorder***
- The patient experiences **intrusive memories** (nightmares), **avoidance** (of her car), **negative mood** (depressed mood, negative affect), **dissociative symptoms** (difficulty concentrating, feeling dazed), and **arousal symptoms** (difficulty sleeping, palpitations, profuse sweating, irritability) within **one month of a traumatic event** (sexual assault).
- These symptoms cause **significant distress** and **functional impairment**, meeting the diagnostic criteria for acute stress disorder.
*Post-traumatic stress disorder*
- This diagnosis is considered if the symptoms persist for **longer than one month** after the traumatic event.
- While the patient exhibits many PTSD symptoms, the **timeline** (three weeks since the assault) fits acute stress disorder more precisely.
*Persistent complex bereavement disorder*
- This disorder is diagnosed in response to the **death of a loved one** where grief symptoms are unusually prolonged and impairing.
- The patient's symptoms are a direct result of a **sexual assault**, not the death of a loved one.
*Adjustment disorder*
- Adjustment disorder involves emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an **identifiable stressor**, but the symptoms are **less severe** and do not meet the full criteria for other specific mental disorders.
- The patient's symptoms are extensive, debilitating, and clearly meet criteria for a more specific stress-related disorder.
*Adverse effect of medication*
- While some medications can cause sleep disturbances or mood changes, the patient's symptoms are directly tied to a **recent traumatic event** and include classic features of a stress-related disorder.
- Her current medication, **levothyroxine**, is unlikely to cause a sudden onset of such a complex constellation of symptoms, especially avoidance behaviors and flashbacks.
Question 64: A 33-year-old woman presents with lethargy and neck pain. She says that, for the past 6 months, she has been feeling tired all the time and has noticed a lot of muscle tension around the base of her neck. She also says she finds herself constantly worrying about everything, such as if her registered mail would reach family and friends in time for the holidays or if the children got their nightly bath while she was away over the weekend. She says that this worrying has prevented her from sleeping at night and has made her more irritable and edgy with her family and friends. Which of the following is the best course of treatment for this patient?
A. Support groups
B. A vacation
C. Diazepam
D. Family therapy
E. Buspirone (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Buspirone***
- **Buspirone** is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic agent. It is often preferred for long-term management of **generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)** due to its favorable side effect profile and lack of dependence potential, addressing the patient's chronic symptoms effectively.
- Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone does not cause sedation or withdrawal symptoms, making it suitable for a patient experiencing prolonged anxiety, sleep disturbances, and irritability.
*Support groups*
- While **support groups** can provide emotional support and coping strategies, they are typically used as an adjunct to pharmacotherapy or psychotherapy, not as a primary standalone treatment for moderate to severe GAD.
- This patient's symptoms (lethargy, significant muscle tension, chronic worrying, sleep disturbance) suggest a need for a more direct pharmacological intervention to alleviate her symptoms.
*A vacation*
- A vacation might offer temporary relief from stress but will not address the underlying physiological and psychological components of her **generalized anxiety disorder**.
- Her chronic and pervasive worrying, along with physical symptoms, indicates a need for sustained medical management.
*Diazepam*
- **Diazepam** is a benzodiazepine that provides rapid, short-term relief from anxiety, but it is generally not recommended for long-term management due to the risks of **dependence, tolerance, and withdrawal symptoms**, especially in a patient with chronic symptoms.
- Given the patient's 6-month history of symptoms, a medication with a better long-term safety profile is preferred.
*Family therapy*
- **Family therapy** could be beneficial if family dynamics are a significant contributor to her stress or if her symptoms are impacting family relationships negatively. However, it does not directly address the primary diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder with its constellation of chronic symptoms.
- While it may provide some support, it is not the initial best course of treatment for the patient's core anxiety symptoms.
Question 65: A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of intermittent episodes of shortness of breath, chest tightness, palpitation, dizziness, sweaty hands, and a feeling of impending doom. She says that her symptoms occur when she goes for a walk or waits in line for coffee. She reports that she no longer leaves the house by herself because she is afraid of being alone when her symptoms occur. She only goes out when her boyfriend accompanies her. She does not smoke or use illicit drugs. Within a few hours after each episode, physical examination and laboratory studies have shown no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Separation anxiety disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Agoraphobia (Correct Answer)
D. Panic disorder
E. Somatic symptom disorder
Explanation: ***Agoraphobia***
- The patient's avoidance of leaving the house alone due to fear of symptom recurrence in various situations (e.g., walking, waiting in line), and her reliance on her boyfriend's presence, are classic symptoms of **agoraphobia**.
- Agoraphobia typically involves marked fear or anxiety about being in situations from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing, or in which help might not be available in the event of panic-like symptoms.
- The key feature here is the **pervasive avoidance behavior** that significantly restricts her independence and daily functioning.
*Separation anxiety disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by excessive anxiety concerning separation from home or from those to whom the individual is attached.
- While the patient avoids leaving home, her anxiety is not specifically about separating from an attachment figure, but rather about being alone when panic-like symptoms might occur in situations where escape or help is unavailable.
*Generalized anxiety disorder*
- Generalized anxiety disorder involves persistent and excessive worry about multiple everyday events or activities for at least six months.
- The patient's symptoms are episodic and specifically triggered by certain situations with agoraphobic features, rather than a constant, diffuse worry about various life circumstances.
*Panic disorder*
- Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and persistent worry about additional attacks or their consequences.
- While the patient clearly experiences panic attacks, panic disorder alone does not fully explain the **extensive avoidance behavior** and dependence on a companion for routine activities.
- In DSM-5, agoraphobia and panic disorder can co-occur, but when the predominant clinical feature is the situational avoidance and restriction of independence (as seen here), agoraphobia is the more complete diagnosis.
*Somatic symptom disorder*
- This disorder involves one or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life, accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
- Although the patient's physical symptoms are distressing, the primary issue is the fear and avoidance of specific situations where help might not be available, not a preoccupation with the somatic symptoms themselves or excessive healthcare utilization.
Question 66: A 20-year-old woman presents with chest pain for the last 20 minutes. She describes a ''squeezing'' sensation in the chest and can feel her heart ''racing''. Worried that she might be having a heart attack, she took aspirin before coming to the hospital. Five days ago, she says she had similar symptoms, but they resolved within 10 minutes. Her medical and family history is unremarkable. She denies any drug and alcohol use. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), a pulse of 110/min, a respiratory rate of 28/min, and blood pressure of 136/80 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient appears fidgety and restless. An echocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the next best step in treatment of this patient?
A. Buspirone
B. Propranolol
C. Alprazolam (Correct Answer)
D. Sertraline
E. Nitroglycerin
Explanation: ***Alprazolam***
- This patient is experiencing an **acute panic attack**, and **benzodiazepines** like alprazolam are the **treatment of choice for immediate symptom relief** due to their rapid anxiolytic effects.
- The patient's symptoms (squeezing chest pain, racing heart, worry about heart attack, tachypnea, fidgetiness, normal ECG except for sinus tachycardia) are classic for a panic attack.
- For **acute management**, benzodiazepines work within minutes, though SSRIs would be initiated concurrently for **long-term management** of panic disorder.
*Buspirone*
- Buspirone is an **anxiolytic** but has a **delayed onset of action** (weeks to take effect), making it unsuitable for acute panic attacks.
- It is typically used for **generalized anxiety disorder** for long-term management, not for immediate symptom resolution.
*Propranolol*
- Propranolol is a **beta-blocker** that can help reduce the **physical symptoms of anxiety** (e.g., palpitations, tremor) but does not address the underlying psychological component of panic.
- It is not considered first-line for acute panic attacks, especially when benzodiazepines are more effective for rapid relief of both physical and psychological symptoms.
*Sertraline*
- Sertraline is an **SSRI** used for **long-term management of panic disorder** and is the preferred maintenance therapy.
- Its therapeutic effects take **several weeks to manifest**, making it inappropriate for immediate symptom relief in an acute attack.
- While SSRIs should be initiated for ongoing treatment, they do not address the current acute episode.
*Nitroglycerin*
- Nitroglycerin is used to treat **angina (chest pain due to myocardial ischemia)** and acts by vasodilation.
- The patient's symptoms are inconsistent with angina (young age, unremarkable family history, normal ECG, recurrent self-limited episodes, and features suggesting panic disorder), and there is no indication of cardiac ischemia.
Question 67: A 55-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction 3 months ago presents with feelings of depression. He says that he has become detached from his friends and family and has daily feelings of hopelessness. He says he has started to avoid strenuous activities and is no longer going to his favorite bar where he used to spend a lot of time drinking with his buddies. The patient says these symptoms have been ongoing for the past 6 weeks, and his wife is starting to worry about his behavior. He notes that he continues to have nightmares that he is having another heart attack. He says he is even more jumpy than he used to be, and he startles very easily. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Acute stress disorder
D. Alcohol withdrawal
E. Midlife crisis
Explanation: ***Post-traumatic stress disorder***
- The patient's symptoms, including **nightmares** about another heart attack, **hypervigilance** (being jumpy and easily startled), **avoidance behaviors** (strenuous activities, bar), **detachment**, and feelings of **hopelessness**, are characteristic of **PTSD** following a traumatic event like a myocardial infarction.
- The symptoms have persisted for **6 weeks**, exceeding the 1-month duration required for a PTSD diagnosis.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While feelings of **hopelessness** and **detachment** are present, the pervasive **recurrent nightmares**, **hypervigilance**, and **avoidance specifically related to the traumatic event** (MI) point more strongly to PTSD.
- A diagnosis of MDD would not fully encompass the trauma-specific symptoms described.
*Acute stress disorder*
- This diagnosis is considered when symptoms similar to PTSD (intrusion, negative mood, dissociation, avoidance, arousal) occur within **3 days to 1 month** after a traumatic event.
- Since the patient's symptoms have been ongoing for **6 weeks**, exceeding the 1-month timeframe, acute stress disorder is ruled out.
*Alcohol withdrawal*
- Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically include **tremors, hallucinations, seizures, and delirium**, often developing rapidly after a reduction in alcohol intake.
- The patient's symptoms of **nightmares related to his MI**, **hypervigilance**, and emotional detachment are not characteristic of alcohol withdrawal.
*Midlife crisis*
- This is a non-clinical term describing a period of **emotional turmoil and self-doubt** that may occur in middle age, often involving questioning life choices and goals.
- While the patient is in midlife, his specific symptom constellation, particularly the trauma-related nightmares and hypervigilance, aligns with a diagnosable mental health condition rather than a general life transition.
Question 68: A 29-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because she has been experiencing episodes of intense fear. Specifically, she says that roughly once per week she will feel an intense fear of dying accompanied by chest pain, lightheadedness, sweating, and palpitations. In addition, she will feel as if she is choking which leads her to hyperventilate. She cannot recall any trigger for these episodes and is afraid that they will occur while she is driving or working. In order to avoid this possibility, she has been getting rides from a friend and has been avoiding interactions with her coworkers. These changes have not stopped the episodes so she came in for evaluation. This patient's disorder is most likely genetically associated with a personality disorder with which of the following features?
A. Criminality and disregard for rights of others
B. Eccentric appearance and magical thinking
C. Submissive, clingy, and low self-confidence (Correct Answer)
D. Grandiosity, entitlement, and need for admiration
E. Social withdrawal and limited emotional expression
Explanation: ***Submissive, clingy, and low self-confidence***
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **panic disorder** with **agoraphobia**. Panic disorder is genetically correlated with **Cluster C (anxious) personality disorders**, particularly **dependent personality disorder** and **avoidant personality disorder**.
- These personality disorders share genetic vulnerability factors with anxiety disorders including panic disorder, involving neurotransmitter systems (serotonin, GABA) and temperamental traits related to anxiety sensitivity and behavioral inhibition.
- Dependent personality disorder features include **submissiveness, excessive need to be cared for, clinging behavior, and low self-confidence** - all reflecting the underlying anxious temperament shared with panic disorder.
*Social withdrawal and limited emotional expression*
- These features describe **schizoid personality disorder** (Cluster A), which is characterized by social detachment and restricted emotional range.
- Schizoid personality disorder is NOT genetically associated with panic disorder. It belongs to the odd/eccentric cluster and has different genetic underpinnings related to the schizophrenia spectrum.
*Grandiosity, entitlement, and need for admiration*
- These features are characteristic of **narcissistic personality disorder** (Cluster B), which has no established genetic association with panic disorder.
- Narcissistic personality disorder is part of the dramatic/erratic cluster and involves different personality pathology unrelated to anxiety disorders.
*Criminality and disregard for rights of others*
- These features describe **antisocial personality disorder** (Cluster B), which is not genetically linked to panic disorder.
- Antisocial personality disorder is associated with conduct disorder and involves impulsivity and aggression rather than anxiety-related traits.
*Eccentric appearance and magical thinking*
- These are features of **schizotypal personality disorder** (Cluster A), which is genetically associated with the **schizophrenia spectrum**, not panic disorder.
- Schizotypal individuals display cognitive-perceptual distortions and odd behaviors that are unrelated to anxiety disorder genetics.
Question 69: A 26-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a routine physical exam. He is concerned about a burning sensation that he feels in his throat whenever he eats large meals and is concerned he may have esophageal cancer like his uncle. The patient has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and constipation. His current medications include whey protein supplements, fish oil, a multivitamin, and sodium docusate. The patient is concerned about his performance in school and fears he may fail out. He recently did poorly on an exam and it has caused him significant stress. He also is worried that his girlfriend is going to leave him. The patient claims that he thought he was going to be an incredible doctor some day, but now he feels like a terrible person. The patient also states that he feels guilty about his grandfather's death which occurred 1 year ago and he often reexperiences the funeral in his mind. He regularly has trouble sleeping for which he takes melatonin. The patient has been praying every 4 hours with the hopes that this will make things go better for him. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute stress disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Depression
D. Obsessive compulsive disorder
E. Post traumatic stress disorder
Explanation: ***Generalized anxiety disorder***
- This patient exhibits **excessive anxiety and worry** about multiple life domains (school performance, relationship, health) that is **difficult to control** and present for an extended period, which are key features of GAD.
- Associated symptoms like **sleep disturbance**, feeling **on edge**, and **difficulty concentrating** further support this diagnosis.
*Acute stress disorder*
- This disorder occurs **within 1 month of exposure to a traumatic event** and involves dissociative symptoms, intrusive thoughts, and hyperarousal.
- While the patient is re-experiencing his grandfather's funeral, the duration of symptoms and the broad range of worries extend beyond the typical presentation and time frame of acute stress disorder.
*Depression*
- Although the patient shows signs of **low self-worth** ("terrible person") and **guilt**, these are intertwined with his anxieties about various life stressors.
- The primary and pervasive symptom is **worry** rather than the sustained anhedonia or profound sadness characteristic of a major depressive episode.
*Obsessive compulsive disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by **recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions)** and **repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions)** aimed at reducing anxiety.
- While the patient's praying every 4 hours could be seen as a ritualistic behavior, it's not clearly linked to specific, intrusive obsessions, and the predominant symptoms are **worry about multiple life domains**, not ritualistic behavior driven by obsessions.
*Post traumatic stress disorder*
- This disorder requires exposure to a **traumatic event** and persistent symptoms for **more than 1 month**, including re-experiencing, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and hyperarousal.
- While the patient re-experiences the funeral of his grandfather, his primary concerns and symptoms revolve around **generalized worries** rather than the pervasive avoidance and hyperarousal typically seen with PTSD.
Question 70: A 45-year-old woman repetitively visits the general surgery clinic worried that her inguinal hernia is incarcerated. 2 months ago, she was seen in the emergency department where she presented with a left lower abdominal swelling. The mass was easily reduced and the patient was referred to the general surgery clinic for elective surgical repair. Because her condition was deemed not urgent, she was informed that she was down on the surgical waiting list. Despite this, she continues to visit the clinic and the ED worried that her bowels are ‘trapped and dying.’ Each time she is reassured and any protrusion present is quickly reduced. She has previously frequently visited her primary care physician for complaints of abdominal pain and inconsistent bowel habits, but no etiology could be identified. She continues to intermittently have these symptoms and spends hours every day worrying about what may be going on. She has no other significant past medical history. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A. Illness anxiety disorder
B. Conversion disorder
C. Factitious disorder
D. Malingering
E. Somatic symptom disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Somatic symptom disorder***
- This patient exhibits **multiple somatic symptoms** (abdominal pain, inconsistent bowel habits, fear of incarcerated hernia), along with excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to these symptoms, causing significant distress and functional impairment.
- Her persistent worry about the incarcerated hernia despite reassurance, and frequent clinic visits for unrelated physical complaints without identifiable etiology, align with the diagnostic criteria for **somatic symptom disorder**.
*Illness anxiety disorder*
- Characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness, but with **minimal or no somatic symptoms** present.
- In this case, the patient clearly has actual physical symptoms (abdominal pain, inconsistent bowel habits, and the inguinal swelling itself), differentiating it from illness anxiety disorder where the primary concern is the *fear* of illness rather than the experience of symptoms.
*Conversion disorder*
- Involves neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness, seizures) that are **incompatible with recognized neurological conditions** and are not intentionally produced.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily somatic and not neurological, and she is worried about an *existing* medical issue (hernia) rather than developing unexplained neurological deficits.
*Factitious disorder*
- Individuals **consciously feign or induce symptoms** to assume the sick role, without obtaining external rewards.
- There is no indication the patient is intentionally producing her symptoms or faking her medical concerns; her distress appears genuine, and she is not seeking a "sick role" but rather relief from her worries.
*Malingering*
- Characterized by the **intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms** with an obvious external motivation (e.g., avoiding work, obtaining money, evading criminal prosecution).
- The patient's presentation does not suggest any clear external incentives for her exaggerated concerns; her anxiety about her health appears to be the primary driver.
- Note: Malingering is not classified as a mental disorder in DSM-5, but rather as a condition that may be a focus of clinical attention.