A 35-year-old widow has been attending psychotherapy sessions for grief counseling following her husband's death. During a recent session, she notices that her male therapist physically resembles her deceased husband. Over the next few sessions, she begins to feel increasing affection and warmth toward the therapist, similar to the feelings she had for her husband. She has not mentioned the physical resemblance to the therapist. Which of the following best explains the patient's feelings toward her therapist?
Q52
A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of blindness in her right eye that suddenly started 1 hour ago. She has no feeling of pain, pressure, or sensation of a foreign body in the right eye. She has a history of major depressive disorder treated with fluoxetine. The patient attends college and states that she has had a lot of stress lately due to relationship problems with her partner. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. She appears anxious. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Ophthalmologic examination shows a normal-appearing eye with no redness. Slit lamp examination and fundoscopy show no abnormalities. A visual field test shows nonspecific visual field defects. An MRI of the brain shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q53
A 24-year-old man presents to the college campus clinic worried that he is having a nervous breakdown. The patient was diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) during his freshman year and has been struggling to keep his grades up. He has recently become increasingly worried that he might not be able to graduate on time. For the past 2 months, he has been preoccupied with thoughts of his dorm room burning down and he finds himself checking all the appliances and outlets over and over even though he knows he already checked everything thoroughly. This repetitive behavior makes him late to class and has seriously upset his social activities. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q54
A 32-year-old man comes to the Veterans Affairs hospital because of difficulty sleeping for the past 9 weeks. He is a soldier who returned from a deployment in Afghanistan 12 weeks ago. Fifteen weeks ago, his unit was ambushed in a deserted street, and a fellow soldier was killed. He wakes up frequently during the night from vivid dreams of this incident. He blames himself for being unable to save his friend. He also has trouble falling asleep and gets up earlier than desired. During this period, he has started to avoid walking in deserted streets. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. He refuses cognitive behavioral therapy and is started on sertraline. Five weeks later, he returns to the physician and complains about persistent nightmares and difficulty sleeping. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q55
A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with minor injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. He says that he is fine. He also witnessed the death of a teenage girl in the accident who was his sister’s friend. He is able to return to work within a few days. A month later, he presents being withdrawn and increasingly irritable. He says recently he has been experiencing depressed moods and higher anxiety than usual. He says that he feels guilty about the girl’s death, stating that he could have saved her if only he had acted quicker. He adds that he became extremely anxious while driving by a car accident on the freeway recently, and that, even when watching television or a movie, he feels panicked during a car crash scene. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q56
A 20-year-old man comes to the physician because of decreasing academic performance at his college for the past 6 months. He reports a persistent fear of “catching germs” from his fellow students and of contracting a deadly disease. He finds it increasingly difficult to attend classes. He avoids handshakes and close contact with other people. He states that when he tries to think of something else, the fears “keep returning” and that he has to wash himself for at least an hour when he returns home after going outside. Afterwards he cleans the shower and has to apply disinfectant to his body and to the bathroom. He does not drink alcohol. He used to smoke cannabis but stopped one year ago. His vital signs are within normal limits. He appears anxious. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place, and time. In addition to starting an SSRI, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q57
An 8-year-old male presents to his pediatrician with dry, cracking skin on his hands. His mother states that this problem has been getting progressively worse over the past couple of months. During this time period, she has noticed that he also has become increasingly concerned with dirtiness. He tearfully admits to washing his hands many times a day because "everything has germs." When asked what happens if he doesn't wash them, he responds that he just feels very worried until he does. With which other condition is this disorder associated?
Q58
A mother brings her 7-year-old son to the pediatrician because she is worried about his sleep. She reports that the child has repeatedly woken up in the middle of the night screaming and thrashing. Although she tries to reassure the child, he does not respond to her or acknowledge her presence. Soon after she arrives, he stops screaming and appears confused and lethargic before falling back asleep. When asked about these events, the child reports that he cannot recall ever waking up or having any bad dreams. These events typically occur within four hours of the child going to sleep. The child’s past medical history is notable for asthma and type I diabetes mellitus. He uses albuterol and long-acting insulin. There have been no recent changes in this patient’s medication regimen. His family history is notable for obesity and obstructive sleep apnea in his father. Physical examination reveals a healthy male at the 40th and 45th percentiles for height and weight, respectively. Which of the following EEG waveforms is most strongly associated with this patient’s condition?
Q59
A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department with palpitations, sweating, and shortness of breath that began 10 minutes ago. He says, “Please help me, I don't want to die.” He has experienced several similar episodes over the past 2 months, which occurred without warning in situations including open spaces or crowds and resolved gradually after 5 to 10 minutes. He has been staying at home as much as possible out of fear of triggering another episode. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. He drinks 3 bottles of beer daily. He appears anxious and has a flushed face. His pulse is 104/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 135/82 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Q60
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother for the evaluation of abdominal pain and trouble sleeping for the past 6 months. His mother says he complains of crampy abdominal pain every morning on school days. He started attending a new school 7 months ago and she is concerned because he has missed school frequently due to the abdominal pain. He also has trouble falling asleep at night and asks to sleep in the same room with his parents every night. He has not had fever, vomiting, diarrhea, or weight loss. He sits very close to his mother and starts to cry when she steps out of the room to take a phone call. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Anxiety US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A 35-year-old widow has been attending psychotherapy sessions for grief counseling following her husband's death. During a recent session, she notices that her male therapist physically resembles her deceased husband. Over the next few sessions, she begins to feel increasing affection and warmth toward the therapist, similar to the feelings she had for her husband. She has not mentioned the physical resemblance to the therapist. Which of the following best explains the patient's feelings toward her therapist?
A. Sublimation
B. Projection
C. Transference (Correct Answer)
D. Countertransference
E. Identification
Explanation: ***Transference***
- **Transference** is when a patient unconsciously redirects emotions and feelings from a significant person in their past (e.g., a deceased husband) onto their therapist in the therapeutic relationship.
- The widow's feelings of affection and warmth toward her therapist, derived from his resemblance to her deceased husband, are a classic example of transference in psychotherapy.
- Transference is a normal part of the therapeutic process and provides important material for therapeutic work.
*Sublimation*
- **Sublimation** is a mature defense mechanism where unacceptable urges or feelings are unconsciously channeled into socially acceptable behaviors.
- This scenario does not involve redirecting inappropriate desires into constructive activities.
*Projection*
- **Projection** is an ego defense mechanism in which an individual attributes their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses to another person.
- The scenario describes the patient experiencing feelings herself, not attributing her own feelings to the therapist.
*Countertransference*
- **Countertransference** refers to the therapist's unconscious emotional reactions to a patient, often in response to the patient's transference.
- This concept applies to the therapist's feelings toward the patient, not the patient's feelings toward the therapist.
*Identification*
- **Identification** is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously takes on the characteristics, behaviors, or attitudes of another person.
- The patient is not adopting the therapist's characteristics but rather experiencing feelings toward him based on her past relationship with her husband.
Question 52: A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of blindness in her right eye that suddenly started 1 hour ago. She has no feeling of pain, pressure, or sensation of a foreign body in the right eye. She has a history of major depressive disorder treated with fluoxetine. The patient attends college and states that she has had a lot of stress lately due to relationship problems with her partner. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. She appears anxious. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Ophthalmologic examination shows a normal-appearing eye with no redness. Slit lamp examination and fundoscopy show no abnormalities. A visual field test shows nonspecific visual field defects. An MRI of the brain shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Conversion disorder (Correct Answer)
B. Somatic symptom disorder
C. Factitious disorder
D. Malingering
E. Retinal detachment
Explanation: ***Conversion disorder***
- The sudden onset of blindness following significant stress (relationship problems) and the absence of any physiological explanation (normal ophthalmological exam, MRI, vital signs) are classic features of **conversion disorder**.
- **La belle indifference**, or a lack of concern about the dramatic symptom, may be present, though anxiety can also be observed. The nonspecific visual field defects further support a non-organic cause.
*Somatic symptom disorder*
- This disorder involves having **one or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life**, accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to those symptoms.
- Unlike conversion disorder, somatic symptom disorder typically involves a **persistent preoccupation** with the physical symptoms and associated anxieties, rather than a single dramatic neurological symptom with no medical explanation.
*Factitious disorder*
- In **factitious disorder**, individuals **intentionally produce or feign physical or psychological signs or symptoms** for the primary purpose of assuming the sick role.
- The key differentiator is the **conscious production of symptoms** without external incentives, which is not suggested by the patient's presentation here, especially the sudden blindness in response to stress.
*Malingering*
- **Malingering** involves the **intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms** motivated by **external incentives**, such as avoiding work, obtaining financial compensation, or evading criminal prosecution.
- The patient's presentation does not suggest any obvious external incentives for feigning blindness.
*Retinal detachment*
- **Retinal detachment** would typically present with symptoms such as **flashing lights (photopsia), floaters, or a curtain-like visual field defect**.
- A retinal detachment would be readily identifiable on **fundoscopic examination**, which was reported as normal in this patient.
Question 53: A 24-year-old man presents to the college campus clinic worried that he is having a nervous breakdown. The patient was diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) during his freshman year and has been struggling to keep his grades up. He has recently become increasingly worried that he might not be able to graduate on time. For the past 2 months, he has been preoccupied with thoughts of his dorm room burning down and he finds himself checking all the appliances and outlets over and over even though he knows he already checked everything thoroughly. This repetitive behavior makes him late to class and has seriously upset his social activities. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (Correct Answer)
B. Tourette syndrome
C. Delusional disorder
D. Schizophrenia
E. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Explanation: ***Obsessive-compulsive disorder***
- The patient exhibits **recurrent, persistent thoughts (obsessions)** about his dorm room burning down and **repetitive behaviors (compulsions)** of checking appliances, which are characteristic of OCD.
- These obsessions and compulsions cause **significant distress** and **impairment** in his social activities and academic life, meeting the diagnostic criteria for OCD.
*Tourette syndrome*
- This condition is primarily characterized by **multiple motor tics** and **one or more vocal tics**, which fluctuate over time.
- While tics can be severe and impairing, they are distinct from the **obsessive thoughts** and **compulsive checking behaviors** described in the patient.
*Delusional disorder*
- Delusional disorder involves the presence of **non-bizarre delusions** (beliefs that are not obviously implausible) for at least one month, without other significant psychotic symptoms.
- The patient's preoccupation with his dorm room burning down, while intense, is recognized by him as excessive ("he knows he already checked everything thoroughly"), indicating it is an obsession rather than a **firmly held false belief (delusion)**.
*Schizophrenia*
- Schizophrenia is characterized by a combination of positive symptoms (e.g., **hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech**), negative symptoms (e.g., **alogia, avolition**), and cognitive dysfunction.
- The patient's symptoms are specific to obsessions and compulsions, without the broader range of **psychotic symptoms** or **functional decline** typically seen in schizophrenia.
*Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder*
- OCPD is a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with **orderliness, perfectionism**, and **mental and interpersonal control** at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency.
- Unlike OCD, OCPD does not involve true **obsessions** or **compulsions** and is considered ego-syntonic, meaning the individual perceives their traits as desirable, whereas the patient is distressed by his checking behavior.
Question 54: A 32-year-old man comes to the Veterans Affairs hospital because of difficulty sleeping for the past 9 weeks. He is a soldier who returned from a deployment in Afghanistan 12 weeks ago. Fifteen weeks ago, his unit was ambushed in a deserted street, and a fellow soldier was killed. He wakes up frequently during the night from vivid dreams of this incident. He blames himself for being unable to save his friend. He also has trouble falling asleep and gets up earlier than desired. During this period, he has started to avoid walking in deserted streets. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. He refuses cognitive behavioral therapy and is started on sertraline. Five weeks later, he returns to the physician and complains about persistent nightmares and difficulty sleeping. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Prazosin therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Triazolam therapy
C. Diazepam therapy
D. Supportive psychotherapy
E. Phenelzine therapy
Explanation: ***Prazosin therapy***
- **Prazosin**, an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist, is effective in reducing **nightmares and sleep disturbances** associated with **post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)**, especially when SSRIs are insufficient.
- It works by blocking the effects of norepinephrine, thereby reducing hyperarousal and improving sleep quality in patients with PTSD.
*Triazolam therapy*
- **Triazolam** is a short-acting benzodiazepine primarily used for **insomnia** but is generally not recommended for long-term use due to its potential for **dependence** and withdrawal symptoms.
- While it can help with sleep onset, it does not address the underlying **PTSD-related nightmares** and may worsen the overall sleep architecture.
*Diazepam therapy*
- **Diazepam** is a long-acting benzodiazepine that can provide sedation, but its use in PTSD is **limited due to risks of dependence**, sedation, and cognitive impairment.
- Benzodiazepines like diazepam can also **suppress REM sleep**, which is where nightmares occur, but they don't treat the root cause of the nightmares and are not a first-line therapy for PTSD sleep disturbances.
*Supportive psychotherapy*
- While **psychotherapy is crucial for PTSD**, the patient has already refused **cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)**, and supportive psychotherapy, while helpful, may not specifically target persistent **nightmares** as effectively as targeted pharmacological interventions when initial SSRI treatment has failed.
- Other forms of psychotherapy like **trauma-focused CBT** or **eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)** would be more appropriate for PTSD, but the question asks for the next **management step** for persistent nightmares after an SSRI.
*Phenelzine therapy*
- **Phenelzine** is a **monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)**, an older class of antidepressants with a **significant side effect profile** and numerous dietary restrictions due to risk of **hypertensive crisis**.
- While MAOIs can be used in refractory depression or anxiety, they are **not a first-line treatment for PTSD** and their risks typically outweigh benefits for sleep disturbances in this context, especially given safer and more targeted options.
Question 55: A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with minor injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. He says that he is fine. He also witnessed the death of a teenage girl in the accident who was his sister’s friend. He is able to return to work within a few days. A month later, he presents being withdrawn and increasingly irritable. He says recently he has been experiencing depressed moods and higher anxiety than usual. He says that he feels guilty about the girl’s death, stating that he could have saved her if only he had acted quicker. He adds that he became extremely anxious while driving by a car accident on the freeway recently, and that, even when watching television or a movie, he feels panicked during a car crash scene. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Post-traumatic stress disorder (Correct Answer)
B. Panic disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Adjustment disorder
E. Acute stress disorder
Explanation: ***Post-traumatic stress disorder***
- The patient experienced a **traumatic event** (witnessing a fatal accident) and now exhibits characteristic symptoms occurring more than one month after the trauma.
- **Re-experiencing symptoms**: Panicking during car crash scenes on TV or when passing accidents (intrusive trauma-related memories triggered by reminders).
- **Avoidance**: Social withdrawal may represent avoiding situations or activities related to the trauma.
- **Negative alterations in cognition and mood**: Guilt about the girl's death ("could have saved her"), depressed moods.
- **Arousal and reactivity symptoms**: Irritability, heightened anxiety, exaggerated startle response (panic when exposed to trauma cues).
- These symptoms have persisted for **longer than one month**, distinguishing it from acute stress disorder, and significantly impact his social functioning.
*Panic disorder*
- Characterized by recurrent, unexpected **panic attacks** (not triggered by specific cues) and persistent worry about future attacks or their consequences.
- While the patient experiences panic, it is specifically triggered by **trauma-related cues** (car accidents), not spontaneous attacks, which points to PTSD rather than panic disorder.
*Generalized anxiety disorder*
- Involves excessive and uncontrollable worry about various events or activities, present for **at least six months**.
- The patient's anxiety is clearly linked to a **specific trauma** and has specific triggers (car accidents), rather than the broad, pervasive worry characteristic of GAD.
*Adjustment disorder*
- Symptoms develop in response to an identifiable stressor but are **less severe** than PTSD and do not meet criteria for another mental disorder.
- The patient's symptoms include specific PTSD features (re-experiencing, trauma-specific triggers, persistent guilt) that exceed adjustment disorder severity.
- Symptoms typically resolve within **six months** of stressor termination; PTSD symptoms are more persistent.
*Acute stress disorder*
- Characterized by symptoms similar to PTSD (intrusion, avoidance, negative mood, arousal), but they occur within **three days to one month** of the traumatic event.
- The patient's symptoms are reported to be present **one month later** with persistence beyond the one-month mark, thus meeting criteria for PTSD rather than acute stress disorder.
Question 56: A 20-year-old man comes to the physician because of decreasing academic performance at his college for the past 6 months. He reports a persistent fear of “catching germs” from his fellow students and of contracting a deadly disease. He finds it increasingly difficult to attend classes. He avoids handshakes and close contact with other people. He states that when he tries to think of something else, the fears “keep returning” and that he has to wash himself for at least an hour when he returns home after going outside. Afterwards he cleans the shower and has to apply disinfectant to his body and to the bathroom. He does not drink alcohol. He used to smoke cannabis but stopped one year ago. His vital signs are within normal limits. He appears anxious. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place, and time. In addition to starting an SSRI, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
C. Motivational interviewing
D. Interpersonal therapy
E. Group therapy
Explanation: **Cognitive-behavioral therapy**
- **Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)**, specifically **Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)**, is the most effective psychotherapy for **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)**, which this patient's symptoms strongly suggest.
- CBT helps patients challenge distorted thoughts and gradually expose themselves to feared situations while preventing compulsive rituals, thus breaking the cycle of obsessions and compulsions.
*Psychodynamic psychotherapy*
- This therapy focuses on **unconscious conflicts** and **past experiences** to understand current symptoms.
- While it can be helpful for some mental health conditions, it is generally **less effective** than CBT for the specific, highly ritualized symptoms of OCD.
*Motivational interviewing*
- **Motivational interviewing** is a patient-centered counseling style designed to address **ambivalence about change** and enhance intrinsic motivation.
- It is often used in substance abuse or lifestyle changes, but it does not directly teach coping skills for OCD symptoms or address the underlying thought patterns.
*Interpersonal therapy*
- **Interpersonal therapy (IPT)** focuses on the patient's **current interpersonal relationships** and social functioning.
- While social difficulties can arise from OCD, IPT does not directly target the obsessions and compulsions that are central to the disorder.
*Group therapy*
- **Group therapy** can provide support and a sense of community, but for a severe condition like OCD, **individual therapy** (especially CBT/ERP) is typically recommended first due to the highly individualized nature of obsessions and compulsions.
- It may be a complementary approach, but usually not the most appropriate initial next step given the intensity of the patient's symptoms.
Question 57: An 8-year-old male presents to his pediatrician with dry, cracking skin on his hands. His mother states that this problem has been getting progressively worse over the past couple of months. During this time period, she has noticed that he also has become increasingly concerned with dirtiness. He tearfully admits to washing his hands many times a day because "everything has germs." When asked what happens if he doesn't wash them, he responds that he just feels very worried until he does. With which other condition is this disorder associated?
A. Autism spectrum disorders
B. Tourette's syndrome (Correct Answer)
C. Delusional disorder
D. Rett's disorder
E. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Explanation: ***Tourette's syndrome***
- This patient's symptoms of **obsessive handwashing** due to a fear of germs and significant distress if not performed are classic for **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)**.
- **Tourette's syndrome** is commonly comorbid with **OCD**, with up to 60% of individuals with Tourette's also having OCD.
*Autism spectrum disorders*
- While individuals with **autism spectrum disorders** may exhibit **repetitive behaviors** or rituals, these are typically distinct from the intrusive thoughts and anxiety-driven compulsions of OCD.
- The core features of autism involve impairments in **social communication** and interaction, which are not described as the primary issue here.
*Delusional disorder*
- **Delusional disorder** involves **fixed, false beliefs** that are not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence, and these delusions are usually non-bizarre.
- The patient's belief about germs, while intense, is recognized as a source of anxiety by him and doesn't reach the level of a fixed, false delusion.
*Rett's disorder*
- **Rett's disorder** is a neurodevelopmental disorder almost exclusively affecting **females**, characterized by normal early development followed by regression in social and communication skills, and characteristic **stereotypic hand movements**.
- The patient is male, and the presentation of OCD symptoms does not align with the typical progression of Rett's disorder.
*Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder*
- **Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)** is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism**, and mental and interpersonal control, at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency.
- Unlike **OCD**, OCPD generally does not involve true obsessions or compulsions but rather ego-syntonic traits that the individual sees as desirable.
Question 58: A mother brings her 7-year-old son to the pediatrician because she is worried about his sleep. She reports that the child has repeatedly woken up in the middle of the night screaming and thrashing. Although she tries to reassure the child, he does not respond to her or acknowledge her presence. Soon after she arrives, he stops screaming and appears confused and lethargic before falling back asleep. When asked about these events, the child reports that he cannot recall ever waking up or having any bad dreams. These events typically occur within four hours of the child going to sleep. The child’s past medical history is notable for asthma and type I diabetes mellitus. He uses albuterol and long-acting insulin. There have been no recent changes in this patient’s medication regimen. His family history is notable for obesity and obstructive sleep apnea in his father. Physical examination reveals a healthy male at the 40th and 45th percentiles for height and weight, respectively. Which of the following EEG waveforms is most strongly associated with this patient’s condition?
A. Delta waves (Correct Answer)
B. Theta waves
C. Sleep spindles
D. Beta waves
E. Alpha waves
Explanation: ***Delta waves***
- The child's symptoms (screaming, thrashing, unresponsiveness during waking, confusion afterward, and no recall) are characteristic of **sleep terror (pavor nocturnus)**, which is a **non-REM parasomnia**.
- Sleep terrors typically occur during **slow-wave sleep (NREM stage 3/4 sleep)**, which is predominantly characterized by the presence of **delta waves** on an EEG.
*Theta waves*
- **Theta waves** are characteristic of **NREM stage 1 and 2 sleep**, which are lighter stages of sleep.
- Sleep terrors are arousal disorders that originate from the deep stages of non-REM sleep, not the lighter stages where theta waves are prominent.
*Sleep spindles*
- **Sleep spindles** and **K-complexes** are characteristic EEG findings of **NREM stage 2 sleep**.
- While stage 2 is part of NREM sleep, sleep terrors are specifically associated with the deeper NREM stage 3/4, which is dominated by delta waves, not sleep spindles.
*Beta waves*
- **Beta waves** are high-frequency, low-amplitude waves associated with **awake, alert, and active mental states**.
- Their presence indicates wakefulness or active mental engagement and is not associated with any stage of sleep.
*Alpha waves*
- **Alpha waves** are characteristic of a state of **relaxed wakefulness**, often with closed eyes, and are a precursor to sleep onset.
- They are not associated with the deep sleep stages where sleep terrors occur.
Question 59: A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department with palpitations, sweating, and shortness of breath that began 10 minutes ago. He says, “Please help me, I don't want to die.” He has experienced several similar episodes over the past 2 months, which occurred without warning in situations including open spaces or crowds and resolved gradually after 5 to 10 minutes. He has been staying at home as much as possible out of fear of triggering another episode. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. He drinks 3 bottles of beer daily. He appears anxious and has a flushed face. His pulse is 104/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 135/82 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
A. Oral propranolol
B. Oral venlafaxine
C. Oral buspirone
D. Long-term ECG monitoring
E. Oral alprazolam (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Oral alprazolam***
- This patient is experiencing an acute panic attack, characterized by sudden onset of intense fear, physical symptoms (palpitations, sweating, shortness of breath), and a fear of losing control or dying. **Benzodiazepines like alprazolam** are the most appropriate initial treatment for rapid symptom relief due to their fast onset of action.
- The patient's history of recurrent, uncued episodes, fear of future attacks, and subsequent avoidance behaviors (staying at home) are consistent with a diagnosis of **panic disorder**.
*Oral propranolol*
- **Beta-blockers like propranolol** can help manage some physical symptoms of anxiety (e.g., palpitations, tremor) by blocking adrenergic receptors. However, they are not effective in directly reducing the psychological distress or fear associated with acute panic attacks.
- Propranolol might be considered for **performance anxiety** or generalized anxiety with prominent physical symptoms but is not first-line for acute panic.
*Oral venlafaxine*
- **Venlafaxine**, a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), is a first-line treatment for **panic disorder** for long-term management and prevention of future attacks.
- However, its onset of action is slow (several weeks), making it unsuitable for immediate relief during an **acute panic attack**.
*Oral buspirone*
- **Buspirone** is an anxiolytic that is used for generalized anxiety disorder. It has a slow onset of action and is less effective for acute panic attacks.
- It does not provide the rapid, potent anxiolytic effects needed for an urgent presentation of **panic symptoms**.
*Long-term ECG monitoring*
- While an **ECG is appropriate during an acute presentation** to rule out cardiac causes, and the current ECG shows only sinus tachycardia, long-term ambulatory ECG monitoring (Holter monitor) is not the initial step for managing an acute panic attack in the absence of other cardiac symptoms or pathology.
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of a **psychiatric condition (panic attack)**, and cardiac causes have already been largely ruled out by the initial ECG and unremarkable cardiopulmonary exam.
Question 60: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother for the evaluation of abdominal pain and trouble sleeping for the past 6 months. His mother says he complains of crampy abdominal pain every morning on school days. He started attending a new school 7 months ago and she is concerned because he has missed school frequently due to the abdominal pain. He also has trouble falling asleep at night and asks to sleep in the same room with his parents every night. He has not had fever, vomiting, diarrhea, or weight loss. He sits very close to his mother and starts to cry when she steps out of the room to take a phone call. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute stress disorder
B. Separation anxiety disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Normal behavior
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
E. Conduct disorder
Explanation: ***Separation anxiety disorder***
- This child exhibits classic symptoms of **separation anxiety disorder**, including **school refusal** due to physical complaints (abdominal pain), **difficulty sleeping alone**, and **excessive distress** when separated from a primary attachment figure (mother).
- The symptoms started shortly after attending a new school, a common trigger for separation anxiety, and have persisted for 6 months, meeting the **diagnostic criteria for duration** in children (≥4 weeks).
*Acute stress disorder*
- **Acute stress disorder** typically occurs within one month of exposure to a **traumatic event** and involves symptoms like intrusive thoughts, negative mood, dissociation, and hypervigilance.
- The boy's symptoms are **chronic (6 months)** and are related to separation, not a specific traumatic event, making this diagnosis less likely.
*Normal behavior*
- While some mild separation anxiety is normal in young children, the **severity**, **duration (6 months)**, and **functional impairment** (missing school, difficulty sleeping alone) in this 7-year-old go beyond what is considered typical developmental behavior.
- Normal separation anxiety usually resolves by preschool age or is short-lived without significant impact on daily life.
*Irritable bowel syndrome*
- **Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)** is a common cause of recurrent abdominal pain, but it is typically associated with **changes in bowel habits** (constipation or diarrhea), which are absent in this case.
- Furthermore, the child's other symptoms, such as **school refusal**, **sleep disturbances**, and **distress upon separation**, are not characteristic of IBS and point towards a psychological rather than purely gastrointestinal etiology.
*Conduct disorder*
- **Conduct disorder** involves a persistent pattern of **aggressive behavior**, **destruction of property**, **deceitfulness or theft**, and **serious rule violations**, none of which are described in this case.
- The child's symptoms are characterized by anxiety and emotional distress related to separation, not defiant or antisocial behavior.