A 25-year-old male medical student presents to student health with a chief complaint of picking at his skin. He states that at times he has urges to pick his skin that he struggles to suppress. Typically, he will participate in the act during finals or when he has "too many assignments to do." The patient states that he knows that his behavior is not helping his situation and is causing him harm; however, he has trouble stopping. He will often ruminate over all his responsibilities which make his symptoms even worse. The patient has a past medical history of surgical repair of his ACL two years ago. His current medications include melatonin. On physical exam you note a healthy young man with scars on his arms and face. His neurological exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
Q22
A 14-year-old girl presents to the pediatrician for behavior issues. The girl has been having difficulty in school as a result. Every time the girl enters her classroom, she feels the urge to touch every wall before heading to her seat. When asked why she does this, she responds, "I'm not really sure. I just can't stop thinking about it until I have touched each wall." The parents have noticed this behavior occasionally at home but were not concerned. The girl is otherwise healthy, has many friends, eats a balanced diet, does not smoke, and is not sexually active. Her temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 117/74 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a healthy young girl. Neurologic exam is unremarkable. There is no observed abnormalities in behavior while the girl is in the office. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management for this patient?
Q23
A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent attacks of unprovoked fear, palpitations, and fainting. The attacks are usually triggered by entering a crowded place or public transport, so the patient tries to avoid being in public places alone. Besides this, she complains of difficulties in falling asleep, uncontrolled worry about her job and health, fear to lose the trust of her friends, and poor appetite. She enjoys dancing and has not lost a passion for her hobby, but recently when she participated in a local competition, she had an attack which made her stop her performance until she calmed down and her condition improved. She feels upset due to her condition. She works as a sales manager and describes her work as demanding with multiple deadlines to be met. She recently broke up with her boyfriend. She does not report any chronic medical problems, but she sometimes takes doxylamine to fall asleep. She has a 4-pack-year history of smoking and drinks alcohol occasionally. On presentation, her blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, heart rate is 71/min, respiratory rate is 13/min, and temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F). Her physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following medications can be used for the acute management of the patient’s attacks?
Q24
A 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of palpitations, sweating, and flushing. Since he was promoted to a manager in a large software company 6 months ago, he has had several episodes of these symptoms when he has to give presentations in front of a large group of people. During these episodes, his thoughts start racing and he fears that his face will “turn red” and everyone will laugh at him. He has tried to avoid the presentations but fears that he might lose his job if he continues to do so. He is healthy except for mild-persistent asthma. He frequently smokes marijuana to calm his nerves. He does not drink alcohol. His only medication is an albuterol inhaler. His pulse is 78/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, the patient appears worried and has a flattened affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q25
A 23-year-old female college senior comes to the physician with a 1-year history of recurrent palpitations accompanied by sweating, facial blushing, and sometimes nausea. The symptoms are worse during class when she is occasionally called out to speak, which causes her to feel embarrassed. She has been skipping class on discussion days because she is concerned that her classmates may notice her symptoms. The patient does not enjoy jogging in the park anymore and has gained 2 kg (4 lbs 7 oz) over the past 2 months. Her appetite is unchanged. She has no history of serious illness. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She has experimented with marijuana but does not use it currently. She appears nervous and does not make eye contact with the physician. Her vitals show a pulse of 85/min, her blood pressure is 125/70 mmHg, and her temperature is 36.8°C. Mental status examination reveals full range of affect. Neurological exam shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?
Q26
A 35-year-old man comes to the Veterans Affairs hospital because of a 2-month history of anxiety. He recently returned from his third deployment to Iraq, where he served as a combat medic. He has had difficulty readjusting to civilian life. He works as a taxi driver but had to take a leave of absence because of difficulties with driving. Last week, he hit a stop sign because he swerved out of the way of a grocery bag that was in the street. He has difficulty sleeping because of nightmares about the deaths of some of the other soldiers in his unit and states, “it's my fault, I could have saved them. Please help me.” Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and a restricted affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in treatment?
Q27
A 33-year-old woman presents with anxiety, poor sleep, and occasional handshaking and sweating for the past 10 months. She says that the best remedy for her symptoms is a “glass of a good cognac” after work. She describes herself as a “moderate drinker”. However, on a more detailed assessment, the patient confesses that she drinks 1–2 drinks per working day and 3–5 drinks on days-off when she is partying. She was once involved in a car accident while being drunk. She works as a financial assistant and describes her job as “demanding”. She is divorced and lives with her 15-year-old daughter. She says that she often hears from her daughter that she should stop drinking. She realizes that the scope of the problem might be larger than she perceives, but she has never tried stopping drinking. She does not feel hopeless, but sometimes she feels guilty because of her behavior. She does not smoke and does not report illicit drugs use. Which of the following medications would be a proper part of the management of this patient?
Q28
A 14-year-old boy is brought in to the clinic by his parents for weird behavior for the past 4 months. The father reports that since the passing of his son's pet rabbit about 5 months ago, his son has been counting during meals. It could take up to 2 hours for him to finish a meal as he would cut up all his food and arrange it in a certain way. After asking the parents to leave the room, you inquire about the reason for these behaviors. He believes that another family member is going to die a “terrible death” if he doesn’t eat his meals in multiples of 5. He understands that this is unreasonable but just can’t bring himself to stop. Which of the following abnormality is this patient's condition most likely associated with?
Q29
A 17-year-old girl comes in to her primary care physician's office for an athletic physical. She is on her school’s varsity swim team. She states she is doing “ok” in her classes. She is worried about her upcoming swim meet. She states, “I feel like I’m the slowest one on the team. Everyone is way more fit than I am.” The patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome and irregular menses, and her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. She takes loratadine, uses nasal spray for her seasonal allergies, and uses ibuprofen for muscle soreness occasionally. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is 19 kg/m^2. On physical examination, the patient has dark circles under her eyes and calluses on the dorsum of her right hand. A beta-hCG is negative. Which of the following is associated with the patient’s most likely condition?
Q30
A 17-year-old high school student comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of insomnia. On school nights, he goes to bed around 11 p.m. but has had persistent problems falling asleep and instead studies at his desk until he feels sleepy around 2 a.m. He does not wake up in the middle of the night. He is worried that he does not get enough sleep. He has significant difficulties waking up on weekdays and has repeatedly been late to school. At school, he experiences daytime sleepiness and drinks 1–2 cups of coffee in the mornings. He tries to avoid daytime naps. On the weekends, he goes to bed around 2 a.m. and sleeps in until 10 a.m., after which he feels rested. He has no history of severe illness and does not take medication. Which of the following most likely explains this patient's sleep disorder?
Anxiety US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 25-year-old male medical student presents to student health with a chief complaint of picking at his skin. He states that at times he has urges to pick his skin that he struggles to suppress. Typically, he will participate in the act during finals or when he has "too many assignments to do." The patient states that he knows that his behavior is not helping his situation and is causing him harm; however, he has trouble stopping. He will often ruminate over all his responsibilities which make his symptoms even worse. The patient has a past medical history of surgical repair of his ACL two years ago. His current medications include melatonin. On physical exam you note a healthy young man with scars on his arms and face. His neurological exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
A. Fluoxetine (Correct Answer)
B. Dialectical behavioral therapy
C. Interpersonal psychotherapy
D. Clomipramine
E. Supportive psychotherapy
Explanation: ***Fluoxetine***
- This patient's symptoms are consistent with **excoriation (skin-picking) disorder**, characterized by recurrent skin picking resulting in lesions and significant distress or impairment, often triggered by stress.
- **First-line treatment** is typically **cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)** with habit reversal training; however, among the options provided, **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)** like fluoxetine represent the most evidence-based pharmacological approach.
- **SSRIs** are considered when psychotherapy is unavailable or as adjunctive treatment for excoriation disorder and comorbid anxiety/OCD symptoms, though evidence is mixed.
- Fluoxetine is the best option listed for initial management in this clinical scenario.
*Dialectical behavioral therapy*
- **Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT)** is primarily used for **borderline personality disorder** and chronic suicidality, focusing on emotion regulation and distress tolerance.
- While some of its techniques could be broadly helpful, it is not the primary or most effective treatment for excoriation disorder specifically.
- **CBT with habit reversal training** would be preferred over DBT for this condition.
*Interpersonal psychotherapy*
- **Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)** is an evidence-based treatment mainly for **depression** and some eating disorders, focusing on improving interpersonal relationships and social functioning.
- It does not directly target the compulsive behaviors or urge suppression central to excoriation disorder.
*Clomipramine*
- **Clomipramine**, a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), is effective for **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)**, but it has a less favorable side effect profile than SSRIs.
- Due to its side effects and lower tolerability, it is usually reserved for cases resistant to SSRIs, making it not the best initial pharmacologic step.
*Supportive psychotherapy*
- **Supportive psychotherapy** aims to alleviate symptoms, maintain self-esteem, and improve coping skills, offering a general supportive environment.
- While it can be helpful as an adjunct, it lacks the specific behavioral or pharmacological mechanisms needed for effective treatment of excoriation disorder.
Question 22: A 14-year-old girl presents to the pediatrician for behavior issues. The girl has been having difficulty in school as a result. Every time the girl enters her classroom, she feels the urge to touch every wall before heading to her seat. When asked why she does this, she responds, "I'm not really sure. I just can't stop thinking about it until I have touched each wall." The parents have noticed this behavior occasionally at home but were not concerned. The girl is otherwise healthy, has many friends, eats a balanced diet, does not smoke, and is not sexually active. Her temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 117/74 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a healthy young girl. Neurologic exam is unremarkable. There is no observed abnormalities in behavior while the girl is in the office. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management for this patient?
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Lorazepam
C. Risperidone
D. Clomipramine
E. Fluoxetine
Explanation: ***Cognitive behavioral therapy***
- This patient exhibits classic symptoms of **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)**, characterized by intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) performed to alleviate anxiety.
- **Exposure and response prevention (ERP)**, a component of cognitive behavioral therapy, is the first-line psychosocial treatment for OCD and has strong evidence for its efficacy in both children and adults.
*Lorazepam*
- **Lorazepam** is a benzodiazepine used for acute anxiety or panic attacks, providing short-term relief.
- It is not a primary treatment for OCD and does not address the underlying obsessive-compulsive cycle; long-term use can lead to dependence.
*Risperidone*
- **Risperidone** is an atypical antipsychotic, primarily used for conditions like schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or severe behavioral disturbances.
- While sometimes used as an augmentation strategy in refractory OCD, it is not a first-line treatment, especially without prior trials of CBT or SSRIs.
*Clomipramine*
- **Clomipramine** is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) with potent serotonin reuptake inhibition, making it effective for OCD.
- However, due to its less favorable side effect profile compared to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is typically reserved for cases where SSRIs are ineffective.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is an SSRI, a first-line pharmacologic treatment for OCD.
- While effective, current guidelines recommend starting with **CBT (specifically ERP)** as the initial treatment for mild to moderate OCD, or combining it with medication for more severe cases.
Question 23: A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent attacks of unprovoked fear, palpitations, and fainting. The attacks are usually triggered by entering a crowded place or public transport, so the patient tries to avoid being in public places alone. Besides this, she complains of difficulties in falling asleep, uncontrolled worry about her job and health, fear to lose the trust of her friends, and poor appetite. She enjoys dancing and has not lost a passion for her hobby, but recently when she participated in a local competition, she had an attack which made her stop her performance until she calmed down and her condition improved. She feels upset due to her condition. She works as a sales manager and describes her work as demanding with multiple deadlines to be met. She recently broke up with her boyfriend. She does not report any chronic medical problems, but she sometimes takes doxylamine to fall asleep. She has a 4-pack-year history of smoking and drinks alcohol occasionally. On presentation, her blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, heart rate is 71/min, respiratory rate is 13/min, and temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F). Her physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following medications can be used for the acute management of the patient’s attacks?
A. Imipramine
B. Clonazepam (Correct Answer)
C. Metoprolol
D. Bupropion
E. Nifedipine
Explanation: ***Clonazepam***
- **Clonazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** that acts rapidly to provide acute relief from severe anxiety symptoms, such as those experienced during a **panic attack**.
- Its fast onset of action and anxiolytic properties make it suitable for interrupting the acute, distressing symptoms of **panic disorder**.
*Imipramine*
- **Imipramine** is a **tricyclic antidepressant** (TCA) and is used for long-term management of panic disorder and depression, but its onset of action is too slow for acute symptom relief.
- TCAs have significant **anticholinergic side effects** and cardiotoxicity, making them less suitable for immediate use in an acute panic attack.
*Metoprolol*
- **Metoprolol** is a **beta-blocker** that can help manage the physical symptoms of anxiety, such as palpitations and tremors, but it does not address the underlying psychological component of panic.
- Beta-blockers are generally not recommended as monotherapy for panic attacks as they do not treat the core anxiety, though they can be useful for performance anxiety.
*Bupropion*
- **Bupropion** is an **atypical antidepressant** primarily used for depression and smoking cessation, but it can sometimes worsen anxiety in patients.
- It works by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine, and its stimulant-like effects are not suitable for acute panic relief.
*Nifedipine*
- **Nifedipine** is a **calcium channel blocker** used to treat hypertension and angina, and it has no direct role in the management of panic attacks.
- While it affects cardiovascular function, it does not alleviate the anxiety and fear component of a panic attack.
Question 24: A 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of palpitations, sweating, and flushing. Since he was promoted to a manager in a large software company 6 months ago, he has had several episodes of these symptoms when he has to give presentations in front of a large group of people. During these episodes, his thoughts start racing and he fears that his face will “turn red” and everyone will laugh at him. He has tried to avoid the presentations but fears that he might lose his job if he continues to do so. He is healthy except for mild-persistent asthma. He frequently smokes marijuana to calm his nerves. He does not drink alcohol. His only medication is an albuterol inhaler. His pulse is 78/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, the patient appears worried and has a flattened affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Buspirone therapy
B. Lorazepam therapy
C. Duloxetine therapy
D. Cognitive behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
E. Olanzapine therapy
Explanation: ***Cognitive behavioral therapy***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **social anxiety disorder (social phobia)**, including anxiety in social situations, fear of judgment, and avoidance behavior, which is a key indication for **CBT**.
- **CBT** is an effective first-line treatment for social anxiety, helping individuals identify and challenge distorted thoughts, and gradually expose themselves to feared social situations.
*Buspirone therapy*
- **Buspirone** is an anxiolytic that can be used for **generalized anxiety disorder**, but it is generally less effective for specific phobias like social anxiety or for acute anxiety attacks.
- Its therapeutic effects can take several weeks to manifest, making it unsuitable for immediate symptom management in highly specific, performance-related anxiety.
*Lorazepam therapy*
- **Lorazepam**, a **benzodiazepine**, can acutely reduce anxiety symptoms but carries risks of **tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal**, especially with frequent use.
- Its potential for abuse, combined with the patient's marijuana use for nerves, makes it a less appropriate first-line choice for long-term management.
*Duloxetine therapy*
- **Duloxetine**, a **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)**, is a pharmacological option for social anxiety disorder, particularly when CBT alone is insufficient.
- While an antidepressant, it is not considered the initial treatment of choice over CBT, which addresses the underlying cognitive and behavioral patterns.
*Olanzapine therapy*
- **Olanzapine** is an **atypical antipsychotic** primarily used for conditions like **schizophrenia** and **bipolar disorder**.
- It is not indicated for social anxiety disorder as a standalone treatment and carries significant side effects, including metabolic disturbances.
Question 25: A 23-year-old female college senior comes to the physician with a 1-year history of recurrent palpitations accompanied by sweating, facial blushing, and sometimes nausea. The symptoms are worse during class when she is occasionally called out to speak, which causes her to feel embarrassed. She has been skipping class on discussion days because she is concerned that her classmates may notice her symptoms. The patient does not enjoy jogging in the park anymore and has gained 2 kg (4 lbs 7 oz) over the past 2 months. Her appetite is unchanged. She has no history of serious illness. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She has experimented with marijuana but does not use it currently. She appears nervous and does not make eye contact with the physician. Her vitals show a pulse of 85/min, her blood pressure is 125/70 mmHg, and her temperature is 36.8°C. Mental status examination reveals full range of affect. Neurological exam shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?
A. Schizotypal personality disorder
B. Social anxiety disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Normal shyness
E. Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation: ***Social anxiety disorder***
- This patient exhibits characteristic symptoms of **social anxiety disorder**, including significant anxiety in social situations (e.g., public speaking in class), fear of being judged negatively, and resulting avoidance behaviors (skipping class).
- The physical symptoms (palpitations, sweating, blushing, nausea) are typical physiological responses to social performance anxiety, and the 1-year history indicates a chronic pattern.
*Schizotypal personality disorder*
- Characterized by pervasive patterns of social and interpersonal deficits marked by **acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships**, as well as cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentric behavior.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily anxiety-driven in social contexts, not due to thought disorders, magical thinking, or eccentric behaviors common in schizotypal personality disorder.
*Generalized anxiety disorder*
- Involves **excessive, uncontrollable worry** about a variety of events or activities, often not specific to social situations.
- While the patient has anxiety, it is specifically triggered by social performance and evaluation, distinguishing it from the pervasive, non-specific worry of generalized anxiety disorder.
*Normal shyness*
- While the patient is shy, her symptoms are severe enough to cause **significant distress and functional impairment**, such as skipping classes and avoiding activities she once enjoyed (jogging).
- Normal shyness typically does not lead to this level of avoidance or functional compromise, nor does it typically present with such intense physiological symptoms.
*Avoidant personality disorder*
- While both social anxiety disorder and avoidant personality disorder involve social avoidance, the latter is a more pervasive pattern involving a **deep-seated sense of inadequacy, hypersensitivity to negative evaluation**, and a fear of intimacy across many social contexts.
- The symptoms described are more acutely tied to **performance and scrutiny** in social situations rather than a global pattern of avoidant behaviors stemming from a core sense of inadequacy.
Question 26: A 35-year-old man comes to the Veterans Affairs hospital because of a 2-month history of anxiety. He recently returned from his third deployment to Iraq, where he served as a combat medic. He has had difficulty readjusting to civilian life. He works as a taxi driver but had to take a leave of absence because of difficulties with driving. Last week, he hit a stop sign because he swerved out of the way of a grocery bag that was in the street. He has difficulty sleeping because of nightmares about the deaths of some of the other soldiers in his unit and states, “it's my fault, I could have saved them. Please help me.” Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and a restricted affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in treatment?
A. Dialectical behavioral therapy
B. Venlafaxine therapy
C. Cognitive behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
D. Motivational interviewing
E. Prazosin therapy
Explanation: ***Cognitive behavioral therapy***
- **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** is considered a first-line psychological treatment for **Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)**, which the patient's symptoms (deployments, intrusive thoughts, nightmares, avoidance, guilt) strongly suggest.
- CBT helps individuals identify and challenge **maladaptive thought patterns** and behaviors related to the trauma, fostering new coping mechanisms.
*Dialectical behavioral therapy*
- **Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT)** is primarily used for individuals with **Borderline Personality Disorder** or severe emotional dysregulation.
- While it can help with emotional regulation, it is not the **first-line therapy** specifically targeting trauma-related cognitive distortions and avoidance behaviors seen in PTSD.
*Venlafaxine therapy*
- **Venlafaxine**, an SNRI, is an antidepressant that can be effective for PTSD symptoms. However, current guidelines recommend **psychotherapy (like CBT)** as the initial step, especially when feasible.
- While pharmacotherapy can be used, it's typically considered **adjunctive** or for cases where psychotherapy alone is insufficient or not preferred.
*Motivational interviewing*
- **Motivational interviewing** is a patient-centered counseling style used to address ambivalence and enhance a person's **intrinsic motivation** for change.
- It is often utilized in substance abuse treatment or when patients are resistant to treatment, but it is not a primary, standalone treatment for the core symptoms of PTSD.
*Prazosin therapy*
- **Prazosin** is an alpha-1 antagonist used off-label to treat **PTSD-related nightmares** and sleep disturbances.
- While it can be helpful for a specific symptom, it does not address the broader spectrum of PTSD symptoms, such as intrusive thoughts, avoidance, or negative cognitions.
Question 27: A 33-year-old woman presents with anxiety, poor sleep, and occasional handshaking and sweating for the past 10 months. She says that the best remedy for her symptoms is a “glass of a good cognac” after work. She describes herself as a “moderate drinker”. However, on a more detailed assessment, the patient confesses that she drinks 1–2 drinks per working day and 3–5 drinks on days-off when she is partying. She was once involved in a car accident while being drunk. She works as a financial assistant and describes her job as “demanding”. She is divorced and lives with her 15-year-old daughter. She says that she often hears from her daughter that she should stop drinking. She realizes that the scope of the problem might be larger than she perceives, but she has never tried stopping drinking. She does not feel hopeless, but sometimes she feels guilty because of her behavior. She does not smoke and does not report illicit drugs use. Which of the following medications would be a proper part of the management of this patient?
A. Topiramate
B. Naltrexone (Correct Answer)
C. Amitriptyline
D. Gabapentin
E. Disulfiram
Explanation: ***Naltrexone***
- This patient exhibits symptoms consistent with **alcohol use disorder**, including increased tolerance, problematic use despite negative consequences (car accident, daughter's concern), and use to alleviate withdrawal-like symptoms (anxiety, poor sleep, handshaking, sweating). **Naltrexone** helps reduce **craving and pleasurable effects of alcohol** by blocking opioid receptors.
- Given that she has never tried stopping and does not endorse severe withdrawal symptoms requiring inpatient detoxification typically, naltrexone is a suitable first-line pharmacotherapy for **alcohol use disorder** in this context.
*Topiramate*
- While **topiramate** can be used as an off-label treatment for alcohol use disorder, particularly in reducing heavy drinking and cravings, it is generally considered a second-line option.
- Its side effect profile can be more notable (e.g., cognitive slowing, paresthesias) compared to naltrexone, and it's less commonly chosen as an initial monotherapy when other options are available.
*Amitriptyline*
- **Amitriptyline** is a tricyclic antidepressant primarily used for **depression** and some **neuropathic pain** conditions.
- It is not indicated for the treatment of **alcohol use disorder** and could potentially worsen some symptoms or interact with alcohol.
*Gabapentin*
- **Gabapentin** is sometimes used off-label for **alcohol use disorder**, particularly for managing withdrawal symptoms, reducing cravings, and improving sleep.
- However, for a patient who has never attempted cessation and is not in acute withdrawal, but rather is seeking to reduce problematic drinking, naltrexone is generally preferred as a first-line agent.
*Disulfiram*
- **Disulfiram** works by causing an unpleasant physical reaction (nausea, vomiting, flushing, palpitations) when alcohol is consumed.
- It requires strong patient motivation and adherence, as the patient must avoid all alcohol. Given her current struggle with moderation and no prior attempts at abstinence, beginning with disulfiram, which relies on aversive conditioning, might be challenging and is often reserved for highly motivated patients or those who have failed other treatments.
Question 28: A 14-year-old boy is brought in to the clinic by his parents for weird behavior for the past 4 months. The father reports that since the passing of his son's pet rabbit about 5 months ago, his son has been counting during meals. It could take up to 2 hours for him to finish a meal as he would cut up all his food and arrange it in a certain way. After asking the parents to leave the room, you inquire about the reason for these behaviors. He believes that another family member is going to die a “terrible death” if he doesn’t eat his meals in multiples of 5. He understands that this is unreasonable but just can’t bring himself to stop. Which of the following abnormality is this patient's condition most likely associated with?
A. Atrophy of the hippocampus
B. Atrophy of the frontotemporal lobes
C. Enlargement of the ventricles
D. Decreased level of serotonin (Correct Answer)
E. Increased activity of the caudate
Explanation: ***Decreased level of serotonin***
- Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), characterized by **obsessions (intrusive thoughts)** and **compulsions (repetitive behaviors)**, is strongly linked to dysregulation of the **serotonin system**.
- Medications that **increase serotonin levels**, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), are the first-line pharmacologic treatment for OCD.
*Atrophy of the hippocampus*
- **Hippocampal atrophy** is more commonly associated with conditions like **Alzheimer's disease** and other dementias, affecting memory and learning.
- It is not a primary neurobiological feature of OCD.
*Atrophy of the frontotemporal lobes*
- **Frontotemporal lobe atrophy** is characteristic of **frontotemporal dementia**, leading to changes in personality, behavior, and language.
- This is distinct from the symptom presentation of OCD.
*Enlargement of the ventricles*
- **Ventricular enlargement** is most commonly seen in conditions like **schizophrenia** and **hydrocephalus**, indicating a loss of brain tissue or increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure.
- It is not a typical finding in OCD.
*Increased activity of the caudate*
- While there are neuroimaging studies suggesting **increased caudate nucleus activity** in OCD, this is a distinct phenomenon from decreased serotonin levels.
- **Increased activity in the orbitofrontal cortex, anterior cingulate cortex, and basal ganglia (including the caudate)** are structural and functional abnormalities often observed, but the primary biochemical imbalance widely targeted in treatment is serotonin.
Question 29: A 17-year-old girl comes in to her primary care physician's office for an athletic physical. She is on her school’s varsity swim team. She states she is doing “ok” in her classes. She is worried about her upcoming swim meet. She states, “I feel like I’m the slowest one on the team. Everyone is way more fit than I am.” The patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome and irregular menses, and her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. She takes loratadine, uses nasal spray for her seasonal allergies, and uses ibuprofen for muscle soreness occasionally. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is 19 kg/m^2. On physical examination, the patient has dark circles under her eyes and calluses on the dorsum of her right hand. A beta-hCG is negative. Which of the following is associated with the patient’s most likely condition?
A. Motor tics
B. Metatarsal stress fractures
C. Lanugo
D. Galactorrhea
E. Dental cavities (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dental cavities***
- The patient's presentation, including **body image distortion**, low-normal BMI, irregular menses, dark circles under her eyes, and calluses on the dorsum of the hand (**Russell's sign** from inducing vomiting), strongly suggests **bulimia nervosa**.
- **Frequent self-induced vomiting** exposes teeth to gastric acid (pH ~2), leading to **dental enamel erosion**, particularly on the lingual surfaces of teeth, and significantly increased risk of **dental cavities**.
- This is a **characteristic complication** of bulimia nervosa with purging behavior.
*Motor tics*
- **Motor tics** are involuntary, sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic movements, typically associated with **Tourette's syndrome** or other tic disorders.
- They are **not associated** with eating disorders like bulimia nervosa.
*Metatarsal stress fractures*
- **Stress fractures** can occur in eating disorders but are more characteristic of **anorexia nervosa** with significant weight loss, malnutrition, and resulting **osteopenia/osteoporosis**.
- In **bulimia nervosa**, patients typically maintain **normal or near-normal body weight** (this patient's BMI is 19, which is low-normal), making stress fractures less common compared to anorexia nervosa.
- While this patient is an athlete (which increases stress fracture risk), dental complications from purging are more directly associated with her likely diagnosis.
*Lanugo*
- **Lanugo** (fine, downy body hair) is a compensatory response to hypothermia and loss of subcutaneous fat.
- It is characteristically seen in **anorexia nervosa** with severe weight loss (BMI typically <17 kg/m²).
- In **bulimia nervosa**, patients maintain normal or near-normal weight, so lanugo is **rarely present**.
*Galactorrhea*
- **Galactorrhea** (inappropriate lactation) is typically caused by **hyperprolactinemia**, certain medications (e.g., antipsychotics, metoclopramide), or pituitary disorders.
- It is **not a recognized complication** of bulimia nervosa or other eating disorders.
Question 30: A 17-year-old high school student comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of insomnia. On school nights, he goes to bed around 11 p.m. but has had persistent problems falling asleep and instead studies at his desk until he feels sleepy around 2 a.m. He does not wake up in the middle of the night. He is worried that he does not get enough sleep. He has significant difficulties waking up on weekdays and has repeatedly been late to school. At school, he experiences daytime sleepiness and drinks 1–2 cups of coffee in the mornings. He tries to avoid daytime naps. On the weekends, he goes to bed around 2 a.m. and sleeps in until 10 a.m., after which he feels rested. He has no history of severe illness and does not take medication. Which of the following most likely explains this patient's sleep disorder?
A. Inadequate sleep hygiene
B. Irregular sleep-wake disorder
C. Psychophysiologic insomnia
D. Delayed sleep-wake disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Advanced sleep-wake disorder
Explanation: ***Delayed sleep-wake disorder***
- This patient exhibits a consistent pattern of **delayed sleep onset** and **delayed wake time**, particularly evident on weekends when he can follow his natural circadian rhythm (going to bed at 2 AM and waking at 10 AM).
- The symptoms, including difficulty falling asleep at conventional times, difficulty waking for school, and daytime sleepiness, are classic for **delayed sleep-wake phase disorder**, where an individual's internal clock is misaligned with societal expectations.
*Inadequate sleep hygiene*
- While aspects like studying in bed are **poor sleep hygiene**, the core issue is not simply bad habits but a fundamental misalignment of his **circadian rhythm** as evidenced by his consistent late sleep onset and wake times when allowed.
- The patient's ability to sleep well and feel rested on weekends when he can follow his natural rhythm suggests that hygiene alone isn't the primary cause.
*Irregular sleep-wake disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a **lack of a discernible sleep-wake rhythm**, with sleep periods fragmented and scattered throughout the 24-hour day.
- The patient, however, demonstrates a clear, albeit delayed, sleep schedule; he sleeps in one consolidated block and feels rested when allowed to do so.
*Psychophysiologic insomnia*
- This condition involves heightened arousal and **anxiety surrounding sleep**, leading to difficulty falling asleep at night and often improved sleep in novel environments or away from home.
- While he expresses worry about not getting enough sleep, his sleep issues are primarily due to a shifted circadian phase, not just anxiety about sleep itself, and he sleeps restfully when allowed to follow his delayed rhythm.
*Advanced sleep-wake disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a **habitually early sleep onset** and **early morning awakening**, typically several hours earlier than desired or conventional times.
- The patient, in contrast, consistently struggles to fall asleep until very late hours and desires a later wake time.