An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents because of difficulty sleeping. One to two times per week for the past 2 months, she has woken up frightened in the middle of the night, yelling and crying. She has not seemed confused after waking up, and she is consolable and able to fall back asleep in her parents' bed. The following day, she seems more tired than usual at school. She recalls that she had a bad dream and looks for ways to delay bedtime in the evenings. She has met all her developmental milestones to date. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q102
A 24-year-old male medical student presents into the university clinic concerned about his stool. He has admitted to spending a great deal of time looking back down into the toilet bowl after he has had a bowel movement and even more time later thinking about all the ways his stool is abnormal. A stool sample was collected and was reported to be grossly normal. The patient understands the results and even agrees with the physician but is still bothered by his thoughts. Two weeks later, he is still thinking about his stool and makes another appointment with a different physician. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be associated with this patient’s condition?
Q103
A 30-year-old woman presents to her family doctor requesting sleeping pills. She is a graduate student and confesses that she is a “worry-a-holic,” which has been getting worse for the last 6 months as the due date for her final paper is approaching. During this time, she feels more on edge, irritable, and is having difficulty sleeping. She has already tried employing good sleep hygiene practices, including a switch to non-caffeinated coffee. Her past medical history is significant for depression in the past that was managed medically. No current medications. The patient’s family history is significant for her mother who has a panic disorder. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a mildly anxious patient but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most effective treatment for this patient’s condition?
Q104
A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician with her husband because they have been trying to conceive for 15 months with no success. They have been sexually active at least twice a week. The husband sometimes has difficulties maintaining erection during sexual activity. During attempted vaginal penetration, the patient has discomfort and her pelvic floor muscles tighten up. Three years ago, the patient was diagnosed with body dysmorphic disorder. There is no family history of serious illness. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows normal appearing vulva without redness; there is no vaginal discharge. An initial attempt at speculum examination is aborted after the patient's pelvic floor muscles tense up and she experiences discomfort. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q105
A 27-year-old man is brought to a psychiatrist by his mother who is concerned that he has become increasingly distant. When asked, he says that he is no longer going out because he is afraid of going outside by himself. He says that ever since he was a teenager, he was uncomfortable in large crowds and on public transportation. He now works from home and rarely leaves his house except on mandatory business. Which of the following personality disorders is most likely genetically associated with this patient's disorder?
Q106
A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department with anxiety. The patient states that he is very anxious and has not been able to take his home anxiety medications. He is requesting to have his home medications administered. The patient has a past medical history of anxiety and depression. His current medications include clonazepam, amitriptyline, and lorazepam. Notably, the patient has multiple psychiatric providers who currently care for him. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an anxious, sweating, and tremulous young man who becomes more confused during his stay in the emergency department. Which of the following should be given to this patient?
Q107
A 74-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of difficulty sleeping for several years. She says that she has been gradually sleeping less each night over the past 2 years. It takes her 20–25 minutes to fall asleep each night and she wakes up earlier in the morning than she used to. On average, she sleeps 5–6 hours each night. She says that she has also been waking up several times per night and needs about 20 minutes before she is able to fall back to sleep. She feels mildly tired in the afternoon but does not take any naps. Her husband reports that she does not snore. The patient drinks two cups of coffee each morning, but she does not smoke or drink alcohol. She takes a 45 minute walk with her husband and their dog every other day. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 55 kg (121 lb); BMI is 21 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she appears cooperative with a mildly anxious mood and a full range of affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Anxiety US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents because of difficulty sleeping. One to two times per week for the past 2 months, she has woken up frightened in the middle of the night, yelling and crying. She has not seemed confused after waking up, and she is consolable and able to fall back asleep in her parents' bed. The following day, she seems more tired than usual at school. She recalls that she had a bad dream and looks for ways to delay bedtime in the evenings. She has met all her developmental milestones to date. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Normal development
B. Sleep terror disorder
C. Nightmare disorder (Correct Answer)
D. Post-traumatic stress disorder
E. Separation anxiety disorder
Explanation: ***Nightmare disorder***
- The key features supporting **nightmare disorder** are vivid, frightening dreams that lead to waking up, the ability to recall the dream content, being easily consolable, and attempts to avoid bedtime.
- Sleep disturbances, daytime fatigue, and negative emotional responses centered around sleep are characteristic of this disorder.
*Normal development*
- While occasional bad dreams are part of normal development, a frequency of one to two times per week over 2 months, leading to daytime tiredness and bedtime avoidance, suggests a **clinical disorder** exceeding typical developmental experiences.
- The distress caused and impact on daily functioning (tiredness at school) differentiate it from normal, transient nightmares.
*Sleep terror disorder*
- **Sleep terrors** typically involve abrupt awakening with intense fear, screaming, and autonomic arousal, but the individual is usually disoriented, inconsolable, and has no recall of the event upon waking or the next day.
- In this case, the child is consolable and *recalls* having a bad dream, distinguishing it from sleep terrors.
*Post-traumatic stress disorder*
- **PTSD** requires exposure to a traumatic event, which is not mentioned in the vignette.
- While nightmares can be a symptom of PTSD, they are usually accompanied by other symptoms like flashbacks, avoidance behavior, negative alterations in cognition/mood, and hypervigilance related to the trauma.
*Separation anxiety disorder*
- **Separation anxiety disorder** is characterized by excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from attachment figures.
- Although the child sleeps in her parents' bed, the primary issue is frightening dreams and difficulty sleeping, not anxiety specifically related to separation from her parents.
Question 102: A 24-year-old male medical student presents into the university clinic concerned about his stool. He has admitted to spending a great deal of time looking back down into the toilet bowl after he has had a bowel movement and even more time later thinking about all the ways his stool is abnormal. A stool sample was collected and was reported to be grossly normal. The patient understands the results and even agrees with the physician but is still bothered by his thoughts. Two weeks later, he is still thinking about his stool and makes another appointment with a different physician. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be associated with this patient’s condition?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (Correct Answer)
C. Body dysmorphic disorder
D. Illness anxiety disorder
E. Major depressive disorder
Explanation: ***Obsessive-compulsive disorder***
- The patient exhibits persistent, intrusive thoughts about his stool ("thinking about all the ways his stool is abnormal," "still thinking about his stool"), which are characteristic *obsessions*.
- His repetitive behaviors of inspecting his stool and seeking reassurance from multiple physicians, despite being told it is normal, align with *compulsions* performed in response to these obsessions.
*Generalized anxiety disorder*
- This involves *excessive worry* about multiple aspects of life, not typically focused on a specific, circumscribed concern like stool appearance, and usually impacts daily functioning more broadly.
- While anxiety is present, the specific *obsessive thought pattern* and *compulsive reassurance-seeking* are not the primary features of GAD.
*Body dysmorphic disorder*
- BDD involves a preoccupation with a perceived defect in one's *physical appearance*, which is distinct from being concerned about a bodily function product like stool.
- The focus is on a part of the body that feels "ugly" or "disfigured," not on the internal state or product of a bodily process.
*Illness anxiety disorder*
- This disorder involves a *preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness*, despite minimal or no somatic symptoms, and is often characterized by health-related anxiety.
- While there is health anxiety, the patient's primary concern is specifically about the *appearance of his stool* rather than the fear of a serious underlying disease.
*Major depressive disorder*
- This is characterized by *persistent sadness, loss of interest/pleasure, and other depressive symptoms* for at least two weeks.
- While depression can involve ruminative thoughts, the specific obsessive-compulsive pattern described, focused on a non-depressive theme, is not typical of MDD as the primary diagnosis.
Question 103: A 30-year-old woman presents to her family doctor requesting sleeping pills. She is a graduate student and confesses that she is a “worry-a-holic,” which has been getting worse for the last 6 months as the due date for her final paper is approaching. During this time, she feels more on edge, irritable, and is having difficulty sleeping. She has already tried employing good sleep hygiene practices, including a switch to non-caffeinated coffee. Her past medical history is significant for depression in the past that was managed medically. No current medications. The patient’s family history is significant for her mother who has a panic disorder. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a mildly anxious patient but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most effective treatment for this patient’s condition?
A. Buspirone (Correct Answer)
B. Diazepam
C. Desensitization therapy
D. Relaxation training
E. Bupropion
Explanation: ***Buspirone***
- This patient's symptoms of **generalized anxiety** (excessive worry, difficulty sleeping, irritability, on edge for 6 months) without panic attacks or phobias, and a history of depression, make buspirone a suitable choice.
- **Buspirone** is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic that is effective for **generalized anxiety disorder** and has a lower risk of dependence compared to benzodiazepines, making it a good option for chronic use.
*Diazepam*
- **Diazepam** is a benzodiazepine, primarily used for acute anxiety or short-term management due to its **rapid onset of action**.
- Its potential for **dependence and withdrawal symptoms** makes it less ideal for chronic anxiety management, especially in a patient with a predisposition to depression and requesting "sleeping pills".
*Desensitization therapy*
- **Desensitization therapy** (a form of exposure therapy) is primarily used for **phobias** and **post-traumatic stress disorder**, where specific triggers are identified.
- The patient's presentation of generalized, pervasive worry, rather than a fear of specific situations, suggests this would not be the most effective initial treatment.
*Relaxation training*
- While beneficial as an adjunct, **relaxation training** alone is generally not sufficient as the **most effective monotherapy** for generalized anxiety disorder, especially given the severity and duration of the patient's symptoms.
- The patient has already tried **sleep hygiene practices**, indicating that behavioral interventions alone might not be enough to manage her anxiety.
*Bupropion*
- **Bupropion** is an antidepressant primarily used for **major depressive disorder** and **smoking cessation**.
- It is generally **not efficacious for anxiety disorders** and can sometimes exacerbate anxiety due to its stimulating effects.
Question 104: A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician with her husband because they have been trying to conceive for 15 months with no success. They have been sexually active at least twice a week. The husband sometimes has difficulties maintaining erection during sexual activity. During attempted vaginal penetration, the patient has discomfort and her pelvic floor muscles tighten up. Three years ago, the patient was diagnosed with body dysmorphic disorder. There is no family history of serious illness. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows normal appearing vulva without redness; there is no vaginal discharge. An initial attempt at speculum examination is aborted after the patient's pelvic floor muscles tense up and she experiences discomfort. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder (Correct Answer)
B. Endometriosis
C. Painful bladder syndrome
D. Vulvodynia
E. Vulvovaginitis
Explanation: ***Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder***
- This diagnosis is strongly supported by the patient's complaints of **discomfort** and **pelvic floor muscle tightening** during attempted vaginal penetration, leading to an aborted speculum exam.
- The long duration of **infertility** despite regular intercourse and the husband's erectile difficulties also point towards a combined issue affecting sexual function and penetration.
*Endometriosis*
- While endometriosis can cause **dyspareunia** (painful intercourse), it primarily involves **pelvic pain** that is often cyclical and not solely triggered by penetration attempts with associated muscle tightening.
- The absence of other classic symptoms like severe dysmenorrhea or chronic pelvic pain makes this less likely.
*Painful bladder syndrome*
- This condition is characterized by chronic **bladder pain** accompanied by urinary urgency and frequency, which are not mentioned in this patient's presentation.
- The pain is typically localized to the bladder and not primarily experienced as muscle tightening during penetration.
*Vulvodynia*
- Vulvodynia involves chronic **vulvar pain** without an identifiable cause, which can be provoked or unprovoked.
- While it can cause pain during attempted penetration, the strong emphasis on **pelvic floor muscle tightening** and the psychological component (body dysmorphic disorder) aligns more closely with genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder.
*Vulvovaginitis*
- This is an **inflammation of the vulva and vagina**, typically caused by infection or irritation, leading to symptoms like **redness, itching, burning, and discharge**.
- The patient's presentation specifically notes a normal appearing vulva without redness or vaginal discharge, making vulvovaginitis unlikely.
Question 105: A 27-year-old man is brought to a psychiatrist by his mother who is concerned that he has become increasingly distant. When asked, he says that he is no longer going out because he is afraid of going outside by himself. He says that ever since he was a teenager, he was uncomfortable in large crowds and on public transportation. He now works from home and rarely leaves his house except on mandatory business. Which of the following personality disorders is most likely genetically associated with this patient's disorder?
A. Dependent
B. Schizotypal
C. Histrionic
D. Antisocial
E. Paranoid
F. Avoidant (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Avoidant***
- This patient exhibits symptoms consistent with **agoraphobia**, which is an **anxiety disorder** characterized by fear of situations where escape might be difficult or help unavailable, often leading to social isolation.
- **Avoidant Personality Disorder** has the strongest genetic association with anxiety disorders, particularly **social anxiety disorder and agoraphobia**, sharing common genetic vulnerability factors related to fear of negative evaluation and social avoidance.
- Studies demonstrate significant genetic overlap between avoidant personality disorder and anxiety spectrum disorders, making this the most likely genetically associated personality disorder.
*Schizotypal*
- **Schizotypal Personality Disorder** is genetically linked to the **schizophrenia spectrum** (not anxiety disorders), characterized by cognitive-perceptual distortions, eccentric behavior, and social deficits.
- While schizotypal patients may avoid social situations, this is due to odd thinking and discomfort with close relationships, not anxiety about specific situations like crowds or public transportation.
*Dependent*
- **Dependent Personality Disorder** is characterized by an excessive need to be taken care of, leading to **submissive and clinging behavior**, and fears of separation.
- This patient's withdrawal is due to fear of public places, not a reliance on others or fear of abandonment.
*Antisocial*
- **Antisocial Personality Disorder** involves a pervasive pattern of **disregard for and violation of the rights of others**, often presenting as deceitful and impulsive behavior.
- The patient's symptoms are rooted in anxiety and social avoidance rather than a lack of empathy or antisocial behavior.
*Paranoid*
- **Paranoid Personality Disorder** is characterized by a pervasive **distrust and suspiciousness of others**, interpreting their motives as malevolent.
- The patient's withdrawal stems from fear of specific situations (crowds, public transport) rather than paranoid ideation or general suspicion of people's intentions.
*Histrionic*
- **Histrionic Personality Disorder** is marked by **excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior**, often displaying dramatic and superficial interactions.
- The patient's isolation and fear of public spaces are directly opposite to the attention-seeking nature of histrionic traits.
Question 106: A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department with anxiety. The patient states that he is very anxious and has not been able to take his home anxiety medications. He is requesting to have his home medications administered. The patient has a past medical history of anxiety and depression. His current medications include clonazepam, amitriptyline, and lorazepam. Notably, the patient has multiple psychiatric providers who currently care for him. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an anxious, sweating, and tremulous young man who becomes more confused during his stay in the emergency department. Which of the following should be given to this patient?
A. Diazepam (Correct Answer)
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Flumazenil
D. Supportive therapy and monitoring
E. Midazolam
Explanation: ***Diazepam***
- This patient presents with classic **benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome**: anxiety, tremors, sweating, tachycardia, tachypnea, and progressive confusion after being unable to take his home benzodiazepines (clonazepam and lorazepam).
- Benzodiazepine withdrawal is a **medical emergency** that can progress to seizures, delirium, and death if untreated.
- **Diazepam** is the preferred treatment due to its **long half-life**, which provides smooth, sustained benzodiazepine receptor activity and prevents withdrawal progression.
- The autonomic instability (elevated pulse and respiratory rate) and neurological symptoms (tremors, confusion) require immediate benzodiazepine administration, not just supportive care.
*Supportive therapy and monitoring*
- While monitoring is important, **supportive care alone is inadequate** for benzodiazepine withdrawal with autonomic instability and confusion.
- Untreated benzodiazepine withdrawal can rapidly progress to **seizures, severe delirium, and cardiovascular collapse**.
- The objective signs (tachycardia, tremors, sweating, confusion) indicate physiological withdrawal, not simply anxiety or drug-seeking behavior.
- Active treatment with benzodiazepines is the **standard of care** to prevent life-threatening complications.
*Sodium bicarbonate*
- Sodium bicarbonate treats **metabolic acidosis** or specific overdoses (e.g., tricyclic antidepressants, aspirin).
- There is no indication of acidosis or TCA toxicity in this presentation; the patient has withdrawal symptoms, not overdose.
*Flumazenil*
- Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that **reverses benzodiazepine effects** in acute overdose.
- It is **absolutely contraindicated** in patients with chronic benzodiazepine use or dependence, as it can precipitate **severe withdrawal, seizures, and status epilepticus**.
- This patient needs benzodiazepine administration, not reversal.
*Midazolam*
- While midazolam is a benzodiazepine that could treat withdrawal acutely, its **short half-life** makes it less ideal for managing withdrawal syndrome.
- **Diazepam or chlordiazepoxide** (long-acting agents) are preferred for withdrawal management as they provide sustained coverage and smoother tapering.
- Midazolam would require frequent redosing and carries higher risk of rebound withdrawal.
Question 107: A 74-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of difficulty sleeping for several years. She says that she has been gradually sleeping less each night over the past 2 years. It takes her 20–25 minutes to fall asleep each night and she wakes up earlier in the morning than she used to. On average, she sleeps 5–6 hours each night. She says that she has also been waking up several times per night and needs about 20 minutes before she is able to fall back to sleep. She feels mildly tired in the afternoon but does not take any naps. Her husband reports that she does not snore. The patient drinks two cups of coffee each morning, but she does not smoke or drink alcohol. She takes a 45 minute walk with her husband and their dog every other day. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 55 kg (121 lb); BMI is 21 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she appears cooperative with a mildly anxious mood and a full range of affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Sleep restriction (Correct Answer)
B. Bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
C. Paradoxical intention
D. Reassurance
E. Flurazepam
Explanation: ***Sleep restriction***
- The patient's symptoms of difficulty falling asleep, frequent awakenings, and early morning awakening, particularly in an older adult, are classic signs of **insomnia**. Sleep restriction therapy is a behavioral intervention that helps consolidate sleep by initially limiting the time spent in bed to the actual amount of time slept.
- This method aims to increase **sleep drive** and improve **sleep efficiency** by creating mild sleep deprivation, making it easier to fall asleep and stay asleep.
*Bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP)*
- **BiPAP** is a treatment for **sleep apnea**, a condition characterized by snoring, witnessed apneas, and daytime somnolence, none of which are reported by the patient or her husband.
- The patient's husband explicitly states she does not snore, and her BMI is normal, making sleep apnea less likely.
*Paradoxical intention*
- **Paradoxical intention** is a cognitive behavioral therapy technique where an individual is instructed to *try* to stay awake. It is primarily used for **performance anxiety** related to sleep onset and might be considered as part of a broader CBT-I program after initiating core behavioral strategies.
- While it can be helpful for some aspects of insomnia, it is typically not the **first-line behavioral intervention** for general insomnia symptoms as described.
*Reassurance*
- While reassurance can be part of patient education, simply reassuring the patient without offering specific interventions does not address the underlying **insomnia disorder** or provide tools for improvement.
- The patient has been experiencing these symptoms for several years and is seeking active management, indicating that reassurance alone is insufficient.
*Flurazepam*
- **Flurazepam** is a **long-acting benzodiazepine** with a high risk of **daytime sedation**, **cognitive impairment**, and **falls** in elderly patients.
- Due to its long half-life and potential for adverse effects, especially in older adults, it is generally **not recommended as a first-line treatment** for chronic insomnia in this demographic; behavioral therapies are preferred initially.