A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue for the past 6 months. During this period, she has had a 5-kg (11-lbs) weight loss. She states that she has no friends. When she is not in school, she spends most of her time in bed. She has no history of serious illness. Her mother has major depressive disorder. She appears pale and thin. She is at 25th percentile for height, 10th percentile for weight, and 20th percentile for BMI; her BMI is 19.0. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 65/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Examination shows dry skin, brittle nails, and calluses on the knuckles. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.3 g/dL
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
Cl- 90 mEq/L
K+ 3.2 mEq/L
HCO3- 30 mEq/L
Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q92
A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents for recurrent abdominal pain. The child has been taken out of class 5 times this past week for abdominal pain that resulted in him being sent home. The mother reports that her son's stools have remained unchanged during this time and are brown in color, without blood, and with normal consistency and scent. She also notes that while at home he seems to be his usual self and does not complain of any symptoms. Of note she presents to you that she has been preparing her son's lunches which consist of couscous, vegetables, fried rice, and chicken. The patient denies difficulty with producing stool and does not complain of any functional pain. The child's vitals and labs including BMP and CBC are unremarkable and within normal limits. An abdominal exam is performed and there is no tenderness upon palpation, and the abdomen is soft and non-distended. After a conversation with the child exploring his symptoms, which of the following is the next step in management for this child?
Q93
A 32-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her neighbors 30 minutes after they found her unconscious in her yard. Her neighbors report that she has been spending more time at home by herself because she recently lost her job. On arrival, she is unable to provide a history. She appears anxious. Her pulse is 76/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 114/72 mm Hg. Examination shows significant weakness of the left upper and lower extremities. She is unable to plantarflex the ankle while supine. She is able to stand on her toes. Her gait is unsteady. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ and symmetric. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. An MRI of the brain and MR angiography show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q94
A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of recurrent thoughts that cause her severe distress. She describes these thoughts as gory images of violent people entering her flat with criminal intent. She has had tremors and palpitations while experiencing these thoughts and must get up twenty to thirty times at night to check that the door and windows have been locked. She says that neither the thoughts nor her actions are consistent with her "normal self". She has a history of generalized anxiety disorder and major depressive disorder. She drinks 1–2 alcoholic beverages weekly and does not smoke or use illicit drugs. She takes no medications. She appears healthy and well nourished. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is calm, alert and oriented to person, place, and time. She describes her mood as ""good.""; her speech is organized, logical, and coherent. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q95
A 9-year-old boy is brought to his physician for behavioral problems in school. The patient’s parents have noted that he often will “shake his hands” abnormally at times and does so on his own without provocation. This has persisted for the past year. Additionally, the child has made loud grunting sounds in school that disturb the other students and the teacher. The patient has a past medical history of asthma and atopic dermatitis, and his current medications include ibuprofen, albuterol, and topical corticosteroids during flares. On physical exam, you note an active young child who is playing with toys in the office. You observe the grunting sounds he makes at this office visit. The child seems mistrustful, does not reply to your questions, and does not look you in the eyes. Which of the following is most likely also found in this patient?
Q96
A 35-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with complaints of discoloration of the skin on her hands and wrists. She says her symptoms started about 6-months ago. Around this time, she recalls moving into her new house with her husband and children. She had to quit her job to relocate and says she is having difficulty maintaining a clean and happy household. She admits to being stressed most of the time. She was previously in good health. No significant past medical history. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals patchy red, scaly skin on both hands. Upon further questioning, the patient admits to having to continuously wash her hands because she has this irrational idea that her hands are dirty. She tries her best to ignore these thoughts but eventually succumbs to wash her hands over and over to ease the anxiety. Which of the following statements is correct concerning this patient’s most likely condition?
Q97
A 35-year-old man with no past medical history presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue. He states that his life has been hectic lately and that everything seems to be falling apart. He is scared that he will lose his job, that his wife will leave him, and that his children will not be able to afford to go to college. His worries are severe enough that they have begun to interfere with his daily activities. His wife is also present and states that he has a very secure job and that they are well off financially. She says that he has always worried about something since she met him years ago. What medication would benefit this patient long term?
Q98
A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with concerns about poor sleep quality. The patient states that he often has trouble falling asleep and that it is negatively affecting his studies. He is nervous that he is going to fail out of graduate school. He states that he recently performed poorly at a lab meeting where he had to present his research. This has been a recurrent issue for the patient any time he has had to present in front of groups. Additionally, the patient is concerned that his girlfriend is going to leave him and feels the relationship is failing. The patient has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome for which he takes fiber supplements. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 117/68 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
Q99
A 42-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of insomnia. He describes 3 months of frequent nighttime awakenings and nightmares. Per chart review, he is a combat veteran and was on a military tour in Afghanistan 4 months ago when a car bomb exploded, injuring him and killing his friend; however, when the physician asks about this, the patient states that he “does not talk about that” and changes the subject. He reports anxiety, irritability and feeling detached from his friends and family, which he believes is harming his relationships. Physical exam reveals an overweight, anxious appearing man with normal vital signs and an exaggerated startle response. Which of the following medications might have helped prevent this patient’s current disorder?
Q100
A 37-year-old woman presents to the general medical clinic with a chief complaint of anxiety. She has been having severe anxiety and fatigue for the past seven months. She has difficulty concentrating and her work has suffered, and she has also developed diarrhea from the stress. She doesn't understand why she feels so anxious and is unable to attribute it to any specific aspect of her life right now. You decide to begin pharmacotherapy. All of the following are suitable mechanisms of drugs that can treat this illness EXCEPT:
Anxiety US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue for the past 6 months. During this period, she has had a 5-kg (11-lbs) weight loss. She states that she has no friends. When she is not in school, she spends most of her time in bed. She has no history of serious illness. Her mother has major depressive disorder. She appears pale and thin. She is at 25th percentile for height, 10th percentile for weight, and 20th percentile for BMI; her BMI is 19.0. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 65/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Examination shows dry skin, brittle nails, and calluses on the knuckles. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.3 g/dL
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
Cl- 90 mEq/L
K+ 3.2 mEq/L
HCO3- 30 mEq/L
Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anemia
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Milk-alkali syndrome
D. Bulimia nervosa
E. Anorexia nervosa (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anorexia nervosa***
- The patient presents with **significant weight loss**, **fatigue**, social withdrawal, and physical signs such as **dry skin**, **brittle nails**, and **bradycardia**, all consistent with anorexia nervosa.
- While not explicitly stated, the **calluses on the knuckles (Russell's sign)** often indicate self-induced vomiting, which is a common compensatory behavior in eating disorders, even those primarily restrictive like anorexia nervosa.
*Anemia*
- While the patient appears pale, her **hemoglobin level of 12.3 g/dL** is within the normal range for a female, ruling out anemia as the primary diagnosis.
- Pallor in this context is more likely due to **poor nutrition** and overall debilitation associated with an eating disorder.
*Major depressive disorder*
- The patient exhibits symptoms like **fatigue**, weight loss, and social withdrawal, which can be seen in major depressive disorder, and her mother has a history of it.
- However, the additional physical findings (dry skin, brittle nails, bradycardia, **calluses on knuckles**) and the specific pattern of **weight loss** points more strongly towards an eating disorder.
*Milk-alkali syndrome*
- This syndrome is characterized by **hypercalcemia** (Ca+2 > 10.5 mg/dL), metabolic alkalosis (increased HCO3-), and often **renal insufficiency**, usually due to excessive intake of calcium and absorbable alkali.
- The patient's **hypocalcemia (Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL)** and slightly elevated HCO3- (30 mEq/L) are inconsistent with milk-alkali syndrome.
*Bulimia nervosa*
- Bulimia nervosa is characterized by **recurrent episodes of binge eating** followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging (self-induced vomiting, laxative abuse). The presence of **Russell's sign** (calluses on knuckles) suggests purging.
- However, patients with bulimia nervosa typically maintain a **normal body weight or are overweight**, unlike this patient who has significant weight loss and a BMI at the 20th percentile, which makes anorexia nervosa with purging subtype more likely.
Question 92: A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents for recurrent abdominal pain. The child has been taken out of class 5 times this past week for abdominal pain that resulted in him being sent home. The mother reports that her son's stools have remained unchanged during this time and are brown in color, without blood, and with normal consistency and scent. She also notes that while at home he seems to be his usual self and does not complain of any symptoms. Of note she presents to you that she has been preparing her son's lunches which consist of couscous, vegetables, fried rice, and chicken. The patient denies difficulty with producing stool and does not complain of any functional pain. The child's vitals and labs including BMP and CBC are unremarkable and within normal limits. An abdominal exam is performed and there is no tenderness upon palpation, and the abdomen is soft and non-distended. After a conversation with the child exploring his symptoms, which of the following is the next step in management for this child?
A. Begin treatment with ciprofloxacin
B. Perform a stool culture
C. Increase oral hydration and fiber intake
D. Check the stool for fecal red blood cells and leukocytes
E. Refer for psychological evaluation and assessment of school-related factors (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Refer for psychological evaluation and assessment of school-related factors***
- This child presents with **somatic symptoms (abdominal pain) that occur exclusively at school and resolve completely at home**, which is pathognomonic for **separation anxiety disorder** or **school avoidance** with somatization.
- The workup has already ruled out organic causes: **normal physical exam, normal labs (BMP, CBC), normal stool characteristics**, and no red flags for gastrointestinal pathology.
- In a **5-year-old** child with this pattern, the next appropriate step is **psychological evaluation** to assess for anxiety disorders, school-related stressors, or adjustment issues.
- This aligns with the question's topic of **Anxiety** in Psychiatry.
*Perform a stool culture*
- There are **no clinical indicators of infectious gastroenteritis**: the child has normal stool consistency, no blood, no diarrhea, and is **completely asymptomatic at home**.
- If this were **Bacillus cereus** or another foodborne pathogen, symptoms would persist regardless of location and would include diarrhea or vomiting within hours of ingestion.
- The temporal pattern (symptoms only at school) indicates a **psychogenic rather than infectious etiology**.
*Begin treatment with ciprofloxacin*
- Empiric antibiotics are inappropriate without evidence of bacterial infection.
- The child has **no fever, no bloody stools, no diarrhea**, and normal labs, making bacterial gastroenteritis highly unlikely.
- Starting antibiotics would expose the child to unnecessary side effects and contribute to antimicrobial resistance.
*Increase oral hydration and fiber intake*
- This intervention addresses **constipation**, which is not present in this case.
- The child has **normal stool consistency and frequency** with no difficulty passing stool, making this intervention irrelevant.
*Check the stool for fecal red blood cells and leukocytes*
- While these tests can identify inflammatory processes, they are unnecessary given the **normal stool characteristics** and **absence of constitutional symptoms**.
- The clear **temporal association with school attendance** and resolution at home makes an organic gastrointestinal process extremely unlikely.
- Further invasive testing would delay appropriate psychiatric evaluation and potentially reinforce illness behavior.
Question 93: A 32-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her neighbors 30 minutes after they found her unconscious in her yard. Her neighbors report that she has been spending more time at home by herself because she recently lost her job. On arrival, she is unable to provide a history. She appears anxious. Her pulse is 76/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 114/72 mm Hg. Examination shows significant weakness of the left upper and lower extremities. She is unable to plantarflex the ankle while supine. She is able to stand on her toes. Her gait is unsteady. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ and symmetric. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. An MRI of the brain and MR angiography show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Somatic symptom disorder
B. Acute stress disorder
C. Acute hemorrhagic stroke
D. Conversion disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Malingering
Explanation: ***Conversion disorder***
- The patient presents with neurological symptoms (left-sided weakness, unsteady gait) that are **inconsistent with anatomical pathways or known neurological disease** (e.g., inability to plantarflex while supine but able to stand on toes).
- The imaging studies (CT, MRI, MRA) are **normal**, further ruling out organic causes for the neurological deficits, and the recent psychosocial stressor (job loss) is a common trigger.
*Somatic symptom disorder*
- Characterized by one or more **somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life**, accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to those symptoms.
- While there are somatic symptoms here, the presentation is more specifically aligned with neurological deficits, and the lack of excessive health-related thoughts makes conversion disorder a better fit.
*Acute stress disorder*
- Involves the development of **anxiety, dissociative, and other symptoms within one month of exposure to a traumatic event**.
- While job loss is stressful, the primary presentation is neurological symptoms rather than overt anxiety or dissociative phenomena, making it less likely.
*Acute hemorrhagic stroke*
- Would typically present with **sudden onset focal neurological deficits**, but these would be consistent with known neuroanatomy.
- A **CT scan of the head would show abnormalities** (e.g., hemorrhage), which was negative in this patient.
*Malingering*
- Characterized by the **intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms** motivated by external incentives (e.g., avoiding work, financial compensation).
- There is no evidence of external gain or intentional deception in this case; conversion disorder symptoms are not consciously produced.
Question 94: A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of recurrent thoughts that cause her severe distress. She describes these thoughts as gory images of violent people entering her flat with criminal intent. She has had tremors and palpitations while experiencing these thoughts and must get up twenty to thirty times at night to check that the door and windows have been locked. She says that neither the thoughts nor her actions are consistent with her "normal self". She has a history of generalized anxiety disorder and major depressive disorder. She drinks 1–2 alcoholic beverages weekly and does not smoke or use illicit drugs. She takes no medications. She appears healthy and well nourished. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is calm, alert and oriented to person, place, and time. She describes her mood as ""good.""; her speech is organized, logical, and coherent. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Olanzapine
B. Venlafaxine
C. Risperidone
D. Phenelzine
E. Sertraline (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sertraline***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)**, including recurrent, intrusive thoughts (**obsessions**) causing distress and repetitive behaviors (**compulsions**) aimed at reducing anxiety.
- **Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)** like sertraline are the first-line pharmacotherapy for OCD, often requiring higher doses than for depression or anxiety.
*Olanzapine*
- **Olanzapine** is an atypical antipsychotic and is typically used to treat conditions like schizophrenia or bipolar disorder.
- It would not be the initial treatment choice for OCD, though it might be considered as an **adjunct** in cases of severe, treatment-refractory OCD.
*Venlafaxine*
- **Venlafaxine** is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), which can be effective for anxiety and depression.
- While it has some serotonergic activity, **SSRIs are generally preferred as first-line** for OCD due to more robust evidence.
*Risperidone*
- **Risperidone** is an atypical antipsychotic, similar to olanzapine, used for conditions such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.
- It is not a first-line treatment for OCD but may be used as an **augmentation strategy** for patients who do not respond to adequate trials of SSRIs.
*Phenelzine*
- **Phenelzine** is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), an older class of antidepressants with a broad range of side effects and significant dietary restrictions.
- While effective for some mood and anxiety disorders, MAOIs are generally reserved for cases of **treatment-resistant depression** or anxiety due to their challenging side effect profile and drug interactions.
Question 95: A 9-year-old boy is brought to his physician for behavioral problems in school. The patient’s parents have noted that he often will “shake his hands” abnormally at times and does so on his own without provocation. This has persisted for the past year. Additionally, the child has made loud grunting sounds in school that disturb the other students and the teacher. The patient has a past medical history of asthma and atopic dermatitis, and his current medications include ibuprofen, albuterol, and topical corticosteroids during flares. On physical exam, you note an active young child who is playing with toys in the office. You observe the grunting sounds he makes at this office visit. The child seems mistrustful, does not reply to your questions, and does not look you in the eyes. Which of the following is most likely also found in this patient?
A. Intellectual disability
B. Excessive hand washing (Correct Answer)
C. Cough that occurs only at night
D. Auditory hallucinations
E. Poor communication skills
Explanation: ***Excessive hand washing***
* **Tourette syndrome** frequently co-occurs with **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)** in 30-50% of cases, which can manifest as repetitive behaviors such as excessive hand washing, checking rituals, or other compulsions.
* The patient's symptoms of involuntary "shaking his hands" (motor tics) and "loud grunting sounds" (vocal tics) persisting for over a year are diagnostic of **Tourette syndrome**.
* While the vignette doesn't explicitly mention hand washing, the question asks what is **"most likely also found"** — meaning we should screen for the most common associated conditions. **OCD is a classic comorbidity** that clinicians actively look for in Tourette syndrome patients.
*Intellectual disability*
* While individuals with neurodevelopmental disorders can have intellectual disability, it is **not a defining or consistently associated feature of Tourette syndrome**.
* Most children with Tourette syndrome have **normal intelligence**. The information provided does not suggest cognitive impairment; the child is playing with toys appropriately.
*Cough that occurs only at night*
* A nocturnal cough can be a symptom of **asthma**, which the patient has a history of. However, it's a symptom related to his asthma and **not directly linked to Tourette syndrome**.
* This is part of his medical history but does not represent a comorbidity of the primary neuropsychiatric condition being addressed.
*Auditory hallucinations*
* **Auditory hallucinations** are not associated with **Tourette syndrome** or OCD.
* These are more commonly found in psychotic disorders like **schizophrenia** or severe mood disorders, which are not suggested by the patient's presentation.
*Poor communication skills*
* Although the child is described as "mistrustful, does not reply to your questions, and does not look you in the eyes," these behaviors may stem from **anxiety, social discomfort related to his tics, or possible comorbid ADHD** (present in 50-70% of Tourette's cases).
* While some social difficulties are **already evident in the vignette**, the question asks what else is "most likely also found." **OCD is a more specific, screenable comorbidity** that clinicians actively assess for in Tourette syndrome, whereas the communication difficulties described could have multiple etiologies and are already partially manifested.
* If significant communication impairment were the primary concern, we would expect more developmental history and functional impact to be described.
Question 96: A 35-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with complaints of discoloration of the skin on her hands and wrists. She says her symptoms started about 6-months ago. Around this time, she recalls moving into her new house with her husband and children. She had to quit her job to relocate and says she is having difficulty maintaining a clean and happy household. She admits to being stressed most of the time. She was previously in good health. No significant past medical history. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals patchy red, scaly skin on both hands. Upon further questioning, the patient admits to having to continuously wash her hands because she has this irrational idea that her hands are dirty. She tries her best to ignore these thoughts but eventually succumbs to wash her hands over and over to ease the anxiety. Which of the following statements is correct concerning this patient’s most likely condition?
A. Symptoms are ego-dystonic (Correct Answer)
B. The condition is associated with early onset dementia
C. The condition rarely affects daily functioning
D. The condition is readily treatable
E. Patients generally lack insight
Explanation: ***Symptoms are ego-dystonic***
- The patient's statement that she has "this irrational idea that her hands are dirty" and "tries her best to ignore these thoughts but eventually succumbs" indicates that her obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors are **ego-dystonic**, meaning they are inconsistent with her self-perception and desired way of functioning.
- This characteristic is a hallmark of **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)**, where intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors are recognized as irrational or excessive by the individual.
*The condition is associated with early onset dementia*
- **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)** is not associated with early-onset dementia; it primarily involves anxiety-related symptoms and behavioral patterns.
- While significant psychological stress can impact cognitive function, OCD itself does not typically lead to neurodegenerative conditions like dementia.
*The condition rarely affects daily functioning*
- The patient's admission that her symptoms led to "difficulty maintaining a clean and happy household" demonstrates that her condition **significantly impairs her daily functioning**.
- **OCD** is known to cause considerable distress and can severely interfere with social, occupational, and personal activities, often becoming very time-consuming.
*The condition is readily treatable*
- While OCD is treatable with therapies like **cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)**, specifically **exposure and response prevention (ERP)**, and medications such as **SSRIs**, it is generally considered a **chronic condition** that requires ongoing management and is not "readily treatable" in the sense of a quick and easy cure.
- The effectiveness of treatment varies, and many patients experience persistent symptoms, requiring long-term commitment to therapy.
*Patients generally lack insight*
- The patient's statement that she acknowledges her idea that her hands are dirty is "irrational" and that she "tries her best to ignore these thoughts" indicates a **recognition of the irrationality of her obsessions**, which suggests she has a good level of insight.
- Patients with OCD often have significant insight into their symptoms, which distinguishes it from psychotic disorders.
Question 97: A 35-year-old man with no past medical history presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue. He states that his life has been hectic lately and that everything seems to be falling apart. He is scared that he will lose his job, that his wife will leave him, and that his children will not be able to afford to go to college. His worries are severe enough that they have begun to interfere with his daily activities. His wife is also present and states that he has a very secure job and that they are well off financially. She says that he has always worried about something since she met him years ago. What medication would benefit this patient long term?
A. Risperidone
B. Escitalopram (Correct Answer)
C. Lithium
D. No treatment recommended
E. Diazepam
Explanation: ***Escitalopram***
- The patient exhibits symptoms consistent with **Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)**, characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worry about multiple events or activities. **SSRIs like escitalopram** are first-line agents for long-term treatment of GAD.
- The patient's long-standing pattern of worry, despite a secure job and financial stability, and his wife's observation that he "has always worried about something," further support a diagnosis of GAD, for which escitalopram provides effective long-term symptom management.
*Risperidone*
- **Risperidone** is an **antipsychotic medication** primarily used for conditions like schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and agitation.
- It is not indicated as a first-line or long-term treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder and carries a higher risk of side effects compared to SSRIs.
*Lithium*
- **Lithium** is a **mood stabilizer** primarily used in the management of bipolar disorder.
- This patient's symptoms are indicative of an anxiety disorder, not a mood disorder like bipolar disorder, making lithium an inappropriate choice.
*No treatment recommended*
- The patient's worries are severe enough to **interfere with his daily activities**, indicating a significant functional impairment.
- Therefore, treatment is warranted to alleviate symptoms and improve his quality of life.
*Diazepam*
- **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine**, effective for acute anxiety relief due to its rapid onset of action.
- However, it is generally **not recommended for long-term management** due to the risk of dependence, tolerance, and withdrawal symptoms.
Question 98: A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with concerns about poor sleep quality. The patient states that he often has trouble falling asleep and that it is negatively affecting his studies. He is nervous that he is going to fail out of graduate school. He states that he recently performed poorly at a lab meeting where he had to present his research. This has been a recurrent issue for the patient any time he has had to present in front of groups. Additionally, the patient is concerned that his girlfriend is going to leave him and feels the relationship is failing. The patient has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome for which he takes fiber supplements. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 117/68 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
A. Duloxetine
B. Alprazolam during presentations
C. Fluoxetine
D. Cognitive behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
E. Propranolol during presentations
Explanation: ***Cognitive behavioral therapy***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)**, characterized by persistent worry about various life situations (academics, relationships) and difficulty sleeping. **Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)** is considered a first-line treatment for GAD, addressing maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors.
- CBT could also address the patient's specific social anxiety related to presentations, by teaching coping mechanisms and restructuring negative thoughts about social situations.
*Duloxetine*
- **Duloxetine** is a **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)**, which is an appropriate pharmacological treatment for GAD. However, initial management for anxiety disorders, especially in a patient expressing concern about medication side effects or preference for non-pharmacological approaches, often prioritizes psychotherapy like CBT.
- While it could be considered, it is typically not the *best initial step* before exploring non-pharmacological options, given the patient's concerns are not immediately life-threatening and psychotherapeutic options have high efficacy.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** and is a first-line pharmacological treatment for GAD.
- Similar to duloxetine, while an effective medication, it is not always the *best initial step* as many patients prefer to try psychotherapy first, and it doesn't address the underlying maladaptive thought processes in the same way CBT does.
*Alprazolam during presentations*
- **Alprazolam** is a **benzodiazepine** that provides rapid relief of anxiety symptoms. However, it is primarily used for **acute, short-term anxiety**, not as a long-term solution for generalized anxiety or social anxiety.
- Chronic use of benzodiazepines carries risks of **tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal symptoms**, making it unsuitable as an initial management strategy for persistent anxiety.
*Propranolol during presentations*
- **Propranolol** is a **beta-blocker** that can help manage the **physical symptoms of performance anxiety** (e.g., tremors, palpitations) by blocking adrenergic receptors.
- While helpful for specific situations like presentations for social anxiety, it does not address the underlying cognitive distortions or generalized anxiety disorder, and therefore is not the best initial comprehensive management approach.
Question 99: A 42-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of insomnia. He describes 3 months of frequent nighttime awakenings and nightmares. Per chart review, he is a combat veteran and was on a military tour in Afghanistan 4 months ago when a car bomb exploded, injuring him and killing his friend; however, when the physician asks about this, the patient states that he “does not talk about that” and changes the subject. He reports anxiety, irritability and feeling detached from his friends and family, which he believes is harming his relationships. Physical exam reveals an overweight, anxious appearing man with normal vital signs and an exaggerated startle response. Which of the following medications might have helped prevent this patient’s current disorder?
A. Buspirone
B. Zolpidem
C. Sertraline
D. Prazosin
E. Propranolol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Propranolol***
- **Propranolol**, a **non-selective beta-blocker**, administered shortly after a traumatic event, may **reduce the risk** of developing **post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)**.
- It works by blocking the **neurobiological effects of stress hormones** like norepinephrine on memory **consolidation**, potentially mitigating the formation of traumatic memories.
*Buspirone*
- **Buspirone** is an **anxiolytic medication** primarily used for **generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)** but is not effective in preventing or acutely treating PTSD.
- It has a delayed onset of action and is not typically used in situations requiring rapid intervention for trauma.
*Zolpidem*
- **Zolpidem** is a **sedative-hypnotic** primarily used for **insomnia** by affecting GABA receptors.
- It does not address the underlying pathology of PTSD or prevent its development.
*Sertraline*
- **Sertraline**, an **SSRI**, is a first-line treatment for established PTSD symptoms.
- However, it is not typically used as a **preventative measure immediately following a traumatic event** to avert the development of the disorder.
*Prazosin*
- **Prazosin**, an **alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist**, is often used to treat **PTSD-related nightmares** and sleep disturbances.
- While effective for managing specific symptoms of PTSD, it is not considered a primary preventative agent administered immediately post-trauma to inhibit disorder development.
Question 100: A 37-year-old woman presents to the general medical clinic with a chief complaint of anxiety. She has been having severe anxiety and fatigue for the past seven months. She has difficulty concentrating and her work has suffered, and she has also developed diarrhea from the stress. She doesn't understand why she feels so anxious and is unable to attribute it to any specific aspect of her life right now. You decide to begin pharmacotherapy. All of the following are suitable mechanisms of drugs that can treat this illness EXCEPT:
A. A drug that stimulates 5-HT1A receptors
B. A drug that blocks dopamine 2 receptors (Correct Answer)
C. A drug that acts as a GABA agonist
D. A drug that blocks 5-HT reuptake
E. A drug that blocks both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake
Explanation: ***A drug that blocks dopamine 2 receptors***
- This option describes **first-generation antipsychotics**, which primarily block **dopamine D2 receptors**. These are generally used for psychotic disorders (e.g., schizophrenia) and severe agitation, not typically for generalized anxiety disorder as a first-line treatment.
- Blocking D2 receptors can lead to **extrapyramidal symptoms** and is not a common therapeutic target for anxiety, which is more reliably treated by targeting serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA systems.
*A drug that stimulates 5-HT1A receptors*
- This describes **buspirone**, an anxiolytic that is effective for **generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)**.
- **Stimulation of 5-HT1A receptors** helps to modulate serotonin activity and reduce anxiety without significant sedative effects or risk of dependence associated with benzodiazepines.
*A drug that acts as a GABA agonist*
- This describes **benzodiazepines**, which enhance the inhibitory effects of **GABA** in the central nervous system.
- They are effective for acute anxiety relief but carry risks of **sedation**, **tolerance**, and **dependence**, making them suitable mainly for short-term or intermittent use.
*A drug that blocks 5-HT reuptake*
- This describes **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)**, which are considered first-line treatment for various anxiety disorders, including GAD.
- By increasing **serotonin levels** in the synaptic cleft, SSRIs help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety symptoms over time.
*A drug that blocks both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake*
- This describes **serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)**, such as venlafaxine or duloxetine.
- SNRIs are also first-line treatments for GAD, working by increasing both **serotonin** and **norepinephrine** in the brain, offering broad-spectrum anxiolytic and antidepressant effects.