A 36-year-old woman complains of difficulty falling asleep over the past 4 months. On detailed history taking, she says that she drinks her last cup of tea at 8:30 p.m. before retiring at 10:30 p.m. She then watches the time on her cell phone on and off for an hour before falling asleep. In the morning, she is tired and makes mistakes at work. Her husband has not noticed excessive snoring or abnormal breathing during sleep. Medical history is unremarkable. She has smoked 5–7 cigarettes daily for 7 years and denies excess alcohol consumption. Her physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the best initial step in the management of this patient’s condition?
Q2
An 11-year-old girl is brought to her primary care physician by her mother with complaints of constant lower abdominal pain and foul-smelling urine for the past 2 days. The patient has had several previous episodes of simple urinary tract infections in the past. Her vitals signs show mild tachycardia without fever. Physical examination reveals suprapubic tenderness without costovertebral angle tenderness on percussion. Urinalysis reveals positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite. Further questioning reveals that the patient does not use the school toilets and holds her urine all day until she gets home. When pressed further, she gets teary-eyed and starts to cry and complains that other girls will make fun of her if she uses the bathroom and will spread rumors to the teachers and her friends. She reports that though this has never happened in the past it concerns her a great deal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Q3
A 19-year-old male college student is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit with a chief complaint of “thoughts about killing my girlfriend.” The patient explains that throughout the day he becomes suddenly overwhelmed by thoughts about strangling his girlfriend and hears a voice saying “kill her.” He recognizes the voice as his own, though it is very distressing to him. After having such thoughts, he feels anxious and guilty and feels compelled to tell his girlfriend about them in detail, which temporarily relieves his anxiety. He also worries about his girlfriend dying in various ways but believes that he can prevent all of this from happening and “keep her safe” by repeating prayers out loud several times in a row. The patient has no personal history of violence but has a family history of psychotic disorders. He has been on haloperidol and fluoxetine for his symptoms in the past but neither was helpful. In addition to psychotherapy, which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Q4
A 32-year-old woman comes in to see her physician because she has had undiagnosed abdominal pain for the past 3 and a half years. Her pain is not related to meals and does not correspond to a particular time of day, although she does report nausea and bloating. In the past two years she has had two endoscopies, a colonoscopy, and an exploratory laparoscopy - without any results. She is very concerned because her mother has a history of colon cancer. The patient has been unable to work or maintain a social life because she's constantly worrying about her condition. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?
Q5
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with chest pain. She describes the chest pain as severe, 9/10, sharp in character, and diffusely localized to anterior chest wall. She also says she is sweating profusely and feels like “she is about to die”. She has presented to at least 4 different emergency rooms over the past month with similar episodes which resolve after 10–15 minutes with no sequelae or evidence of cardiac pathology. However, she says she is fearful every day of another episode. No significant past medical history. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory findings, including cardiac troponins, are normal. Which of the following is the best pharmacological treatment for long-term management of this patient?
Q6
A 25-year-old female is brought to the physician by her mother who is concerned about her recent behaviors. The mother states that her daughter has been collecting “useless items” in her apartment over the last year. When she tried to persuade her daughter to throw away several years’ worth of old newspapers, her daughter had an angry outburst and refused to speak to her for two weeks. The patient reluctantly admits that she keeps “most things just in case they become useful later on.” She also states that she has felt less interested in seeing friends because she does not want them to come over to her apartment. She has also not been sleeping well, as her bed has become an additional storage space and she must sleep on her futon instead. The patient states that she is sometimes bothered by the messiness of her apartment, but otherwise doesn't think anything is wrong with her behavior. Physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q7
A 52-year-old man visits his primary care provider for a routine check-up. He reports he has always had trouble sleeping, but falling asleep and staying asleep have become more difficult over the past few months. He experiences daytime fatigue and sleepiness but does not have time to nap. He drinks one cup of coffee in the morning and drinks 3 alcoholic beverages nightly. His medical history is positive for essential hypertension for which he takes lisinopril. Vital signs include a temperature of 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure of 132/83 mm Hg, and heart rate of 82/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following best describes the effect of alcohol use at night on the sleep cycle?
Q8
A 26-year-old man presents to the behavioral health clinic for assistance overcoming his fear of public speaking. He has always hated public speaking. Two weeks ago, he was supposed to present a research project at school but had to leave the podium before the presentation. He recalled that his heart was racing, his palms were sweating, and that he could not breathe. These symptoms resolved on their own after several minutes, but he felt too embarrassed to return to college the next day. This had also happened in high school where, before a presentation, he started sweating and felt palpitations and nausea that also resolved on their own. He is scheduled for another presentation next month and is terrified. He states that this only happens in front of large groups and that he has no problems communicating at small gatherings. Other than his fear of public speaking, he has a normal social life and many friends. He enjoys his classes and a part-time job. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q9
A 7-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because she has been increasingly reluctant to speak at school over the past 4 months. Her teachers complain that she does not answer their questions and it is affecting her academic performance. She was born at 35 weeks' gestation and pregnancy was complicated by preeclampsia. Previous well-child examinations have been normal. Her older brother was diagnosed with a learning disability 4 years ago. She is at 65th percentile for height and weight. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. She follows commands. She avoids answering questions directly and whispers her answers to her mother instead who then mediates between the doctor and her daughter. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q10
A previously healthy 30-year-old woman comes to the physician because of nervousness and difficulty sleeping over the past 4 weeks. She has difficulty falling asleep at night because she cannot stop worrying about her relationship and her future. Three months ago, her new boyfriend moved in with her. Before this relationship, she had been single for 13 years. She reports that her boyfriend does not keep things in order in the way she was used to. Sometimes, he puts his dirty dishes in the kitchen sink instead of putting them in the dishwasher directly. He refuses to add any groceries to the shopping list when they are used up. He has also suggested several times that they have dinner at a restaurant instead of eating at home, which enrages her because she likes to plan each dinner of the week and buy the required groceries beforehand. The patient says that she really loves her boyfriend but that she will never be able to tolerate his “flaws.” Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she is cooperative but appears distressed. Her affect has little intensity or range. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Anxiety US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 36-year-old woman complains of difficulty falling asleep over the past 4 months. On detailed history taking, she says that she drinks her last cup of tea at 8:30 p.m. before retiring at 10:30 p.m. She then watches the time on her cell phone on and off for an hour before falling asleep. In the morning, she is tired and makes mistakes at work. Her husband has not noticed excessive snoring or abnormal breathing during sleep. Medical history is unremarkable. She has smoked 5–7 cigarettes daily for 7 years and denies excess alcohol consumption. Her physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the best initial step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Ropinirole
B. Continuous positive airway pressure
C. Modafinil
D. Paroxetine
E. Proper sleep hygiene (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Proper sleep hygiene***
- The patient's history of difficulty falling asleep, using a cell phone before bed, and tea consumption close to bedtime points towards **poor sleep hygiene** as a primary contributor to her insomnia.
- Addressing these behavioral factors first with **sleep hygiene education** is the most appropriate initial step before considering pharmacologic interventions.
*Ropinirole*
- **Ropinirole** is a dopamine agonist primarily used to treat **Parkinson's disease** and **restless legs syndrome**.
- There are no indications in the patient's presentation, such as an irresistible urge to move the legs, that would suggest restless legs syndrome.
*Continuous positive airway pressure*
- **Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)** is the standard treatment for **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**.
- The patient's husband has not noticed snoring or abnormal breathing during sleep, making OSA less likely as the primary cause of her insomnia.
*Modafinil*
- **Modafinil** is a wakefulness-promoting agent used to treat **narcolepsy** and other disorders characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness.
- The patient's primary complaint is difficulty *falling asleep* (**insomnia**), not excessive daytime sleepiness, and there's no evidence of narcolepsy.
*Paroxetine*
- **Paroxetine** is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat **depression** and **anxiety disorders**, and sometimes insomnia associated with these conditions.
- There is no mention of symptoms of depression or anxiety in the patient's history that would warrant immediate antidepressant use for her sleep difficulties.
Question 2: An 11-year-old girl is brought to her primary care physician by her mother with complaints of constant lower abdominal pain and foul-smelling urine for the past 2 days. The patient has had several previous episodes of simple urinary tract infections in the past. Her vitals signs show mild tachycardia without fever. Physical examination reveals suprapubic tenderness without costovertebral angle tenderness on percussion. Urinalysis reveals positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite. Further questioning reveals that the patient does not use the school toilets and holds her urine all day until she gets home. When pressed further, she gets teary-eyed and starts to cry and complains that other girls will make fun of her if she uses the bathroom and will spread rumors to the teachers and her friends. She reports that though this has never happened in the past it concerns her a great deal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A. Social anxiety disorder, performance only
B. Agoraphobia
C. Panic disorder
D. Specific phobia
E. Social anxiety disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Social anxiety disorder***
- The girl's fear of being judged and talked about for using the school bathroom, despite no prior negative experiences, is a hallmark of **social anxiety disorder**. This anxiety leads to her avoiding a social situation (using public restrooms) and has functional impairment (recurrent UTIs).
- This condition involves significant anxiety about social situations where the individual might be scrutinized or negatively evaluated by others, often leading to avoidance and distress.
*Social anxiety disorder, performance only*
- **Social anxiety disorder, performance only** is characterized by anxiety only in speaking or performing in public.
- The patient's fear extends beyond performance situations to general social judgment related to using a public restroom.
*Agoraphobia*
- **Agoraphobia** involves fear of situations from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing, leading to avoidance of public transportation, open spaces, enclosed places, standing in line, or being outside the home alone.
- The patient's anxiety is specifically linked to social evaluation in a public restroom, not difficulty with escape or perceived helplessness in public spaces generally.
*Panic disorder*
- **Panic disorder** is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks, which are marked by intense fear and physical symptoms like palpitations, sweating, and shortness of breath.
- While the patient experiences anxiety, it is situation-specific (social evaluation) rather than unexpected panic attacks, and she describes crying, not a full-blown panic attack.
*Specific phobia*
- A **specific phobia** is an intense, irrational fear of a particular object or situation (e.g., spiders, heights, flying).
- The patient's fear is not of the bathroom itself, but of the **social judgment** and negative evaluation from peers if she uses it, which points to a social rather than a specific phobia.
Question 3: A 19-year-old male college student is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit with a chief complaint of “thoughts about killing my girlfriend.” The patient explains that throughout the day he becomes suddenly overwhelmed by thoughts about strangling his girlfriend and hears a voice saying “kill her.” He recognizes the voice as his own, though it is very distressing to him. After having such thoughts, he feels anxious and guilty and feels compelled to tell his girlfriend about them in detail, which temporarily relieves his anxiety. He also worries about his girlfriend dying in various ways but believes that he can prevent all of this from happening and “keep her safe” by repeating prayers out loud several times in a row. The patient has no personal history of violence but has a family history of psychotic disorders. He has been on haloperidol and fluoxetine for his symptoms in the past but neither was helpful. In addition to psychotherapy, which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A. Alprazolam
B. Quetiapine
C. Amitriptyline
D. Buspirone
E. Clomipramine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Clomipramine***
- This patient presents with **obsessive thoughts** (about killing his girlfriend, preventing her death) and **compulsive behaviors** (repetition of prayers, confessing thoughts to relieve anxiety). These symptoms are highly suggestive of **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)**.
- **Clomipramine** is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** with potent serotonin reuptake inhibition and is considered the **most effective medication for OCD**, particularly when SSRIs (like fluoxetine, which this patient already failed) are ineffective.
- The patient's previous trial of **fluoxetine (an SSRI) was unsuccessful**, making clomipramine the most appropriate next-line agent for OCD.
*Alprazolam*
- **Alprazolam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for **acute anxiety relief** and panic disorder.
- It is not indicated as a primary treatment for OCD, and its use could lead to dependence without addressing the underlying obsessive-compulsive symptoms.
*Quetiapine*
- **Quetiapine** is an **atypical antipsychotic** effective in treating psychotic disorders (e.g., schizophrenia, bipolar disorder) and as an augmentation for depression.
- While the patient has a family history of psychotic disorders and experiences distressing internal voices, his symptoms are better explained by **OCD with ego-dystonic intrusive thoughts** rather than a primary psychotic disorder. The voice is recognized as his own thoughts, and he has clear compulsive behaviors with anxiety relief from rituals—features characteristic of OCD, not psychosis.
- The failure of **haloperidol** (antipsychotic) further supports that this is OCD, not a psychotic disorder.
*Amitriptyline*
- **Amitriptyline** is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** mainly used for depression, neuropathic pain, and insomnia.
- While it has some serotonin reuptake inhibition, it is **not as potent or as specifically indicated for OCD as clomipramine**.
*Buspirone*
- **Buspirone** is an **anxiolytic** used for generalized anxiety disorder.
- It works on serotonin receptors but is not effective for the treatment of OCD.
Question 4: A 32-year-old woman comes in to see her physician because she has had undiagnosed abdominal pain for the past 3 and a half years. Her pain is not related to meals and does not correspond to a particular time of day, although she does report nausea and bloating. In the past two years she has had two endoscopies, a colonoscopy, and an exploratory laparoscopy - without any results. She is very concerned because her mother has a history of colon cancer. The patient has been unable to work or maintain a social life because she's constantly worrying about her condition. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?
A. Functional neurologic symptom disorder
B. Hypochondriasis
C. Body dysmorphic disorder
D. Somatic symptom disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Factitious disorder
Explanation: ***Somatic symptom disorder***
- This condition involves **physical symptoms** without an identifiable medical cause, accompanied by **excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms**. The patient's persistent abdominal pain, nausea, and bloating, despite extensive negative diagnostic workups, align with this.
- The patient's significant **distress and functional impairment** (unable to work or maintain a social life), coupled with constant worry about her condition, are key features.
*Functional neurologic symptom disorder*
- Characterized by **neurological symptoms** (e.g., paralysis, blindness, seizures) that are inconsistent with neurological disease.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily gastrointestinal and pain-related, not neurological.
*Hypochondriasis*
- This term is largely replaced by **illness anxiety disorder** in DSM-5, characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness despite minimal or no somatic symptoms.
- The patient in the vignette has actual physical symptoms (abdominal pain, nausea, bloating), which differentiates it from typical illness anxiety disorder.
*Body dysmorphic disorder*
- Involves a preoccupation with an imagined or slight defect in **physical appearance**.
- The patient's concerns are focused on an internal physical illness, not her appearance.
*Factitious disorder*
- Characterized by the **intentional production or feigning of physical or psychological symptoms** for the purpose of assuming the sick role.
- There is no evidence in the vignette to suggest the patient is intentionally fabricating her symptoms; her distress appears genuine.
Question 5: A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with chest pain. She describes the chest pain as severe, 9/10, sharp in character, and diffusely localized to anterior chest wall. She also says she is sweating profusely and feels like “she is about to die”. She has presented to at least 4 different emergency rooms over the past month with similar episodes which resolve after 10–15 minutes with no sequelae or evidence of cardiac pathology. However, she says she is fearful every day of another episode. No significant past medical history. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory findings, including cardiac troponins, are normal. Which of the following is the best pharmacological treatment for long-term management of this patient?
A. Nortriptyline
B. Phenelzine
C. Clomipramine
D. Benzodiazepine
E. Paroxetine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Paroxetine***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **panic disorder**, characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and persistent worry about future attacks. **SSRIs like paroxetine** are considered first-line pharmacological treatment for long-term management of panic disorder.
- **Paroxetine** helps reduce the frequency and severity of panic attacks by modulating **serotonin levels** in the brain, and its efficacy is well-established for long-term symptom control.
*Nortriptyline*
- Nortriptyline is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)**. While TCAs can be effective for panic disorder, they are generally considered second-line due to a less favorable side-effect profile (e.g., anticholinergic effects, cardiac toxicity in overdose) compared to SSRIs.
- Its use is often limited to cases where SSRIs are ineffective or contraindicated, making it not the best first-line choice for long-term management.
*Phenelzine*
- Phenelzine is a **monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)**. MAOIs are highly effective in treating panic disorder but are typically reserved for **refractory cases** due to significant drug-drug and food-drug interactions (e.g., tyramine crisis, serotonin syndrome) that necessitate strict dietary restrictions.
- Given its complex safety profile, it is not considered a first-line agent, especially when safer and equally effective options like SSRIs are available.
*Clomipramine*
- Clomipramine is another **TCA** with a potent effect on serotonin reuptake. It is effective for panic disorder, but similar to nortriptyline, its use is often limited by its **side-effect profile (e.g., anticholinergic effects, sedation, cardiac risks)**.
- While it can be used, particularly in cases of **co-morbid obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)**, SSRIs are generally preferred as first-line due to better tolerability for long-term use in panic disorder.
*Benzodiazepine*
- Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam, alprazolam) are highly effective for the **acute management of panic attacks** due to their rapid onset of action in reducing anxiety symptoms.
- However, they are **not recommended for long-term management** due to the risks of **dependence, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms**, and potential for abuse. Long-term treatment for panic disorder focuses on preventing attacks, for which SSRIs are superior.
Question 6: A 25-year-old female is brought to the physician by her mother who is concerned about her recent behaviors. The mother states that her daughter has been collecting “useless items” in her apartment over the last year. When she tried to persuade her daughter to throw away several years’ worth of old newspapers, her daughter had an angry outburst and refused to speak to her for two weeks. The patient reluctantly admits that she keeps “most things just in case they become useful later on.” She also states that she has felt less interested in seeing friends because she does not want them to come over to her apartment. She has also not been sleeping well, as her bed has become an additional storage space and she must sleep on her futon instead. The patient states that she is sometimes bothered by the messiness of her apartment, but otherwise doesn't think anything is wrong with her behavior. Physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Tricyclic antidepressant for hoarding disorder
B. Intervention by patient’s mother to declutter the home
C. Admission to psychiatric facility
D. High dose SSRI for hoarding disorder
E. Cognitive behavioral therapy for hoarding disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cognitive behavioral therapy for hoarding disorder***
- **Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)**, specifically tailored for hoarding disorder, is considered the **first-line and most effective treatment**. It focuses on addressing the **cognitive distortions** related to saving items and the behavioral patterns of acquiring and not discarding.
- CBT helps patients develop skills to organize, categorize, and discard items, and to cope with the emotional distress associated with decluttering, which is crucial for long-term management.
*High dose SSRI for hoarding disorder*
- While **SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)** can be helpful for comorbid anxiety or depression often present in hoarding disorder, they are generally considered **second-line treatments** for **hoarding disorder itself**, especially when compared to CBT.
- High doses of SSRIs are sometimes used, but the initial approach usually involves a combination with or precedes pharmacological intervention.
*Tricyclic antidepressant for hoarding disorder*
- **Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)** are generally not the first-line pharmacological treatment for hoarding disorder, as **SSRIs are preferred** if medication is deemed necessary.
- TCAs have a **less favorable side effect profile** compared to SSRIs and are typically reserved for cases where SSRIs are ineffective or contraindicated.
*Intervention by patient’s mother to declutter the home*
- While well-intentioned, a direct intervention by the mother to declutter the home without the patient's agreement or participation can be **counterproductive**.
- This approach can lead to **significant distress** for the patient, damage family relationships, and does not address the underlying cognitive and behavioral issues contributing to the hoarding.
*Admission to psychiatric facility*
- **Admission to a psychiatric facility** is typically reserved for individuals who are an **imminent danger to themselves or others**, or who are unable to care for themselves due to severe mental illness.
- While the patient's living situation is messy and impacting her social life and sleep, there is no indication of **acute danger or severe functional impairment** warranting inpatient psychiatric care at this time.
Question 7: A 52-year-old man visits his primary care provider for a routine check-up. He reports he has always had trouble sleeping, but falling asleep and staying asleep have become more difficult over the past few months. He experiences daytime fatigue and sleepiness but does not have time to nap. He drinks one cup of coffee in the morning and drinks 3 alcoholic beverages nightly. His medical history is positive for essential hypertension for which he takes lisinopril. Vital signs include a temperature of 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure of 132/83 mm Hg, and heart rate of 82/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following best describes the effect of alcohol use at night on the sleep cycle?
A. Increases total REM sleep
B. Inhibits stage N1
C. Inhibits REM (Correct Answer)
D. REM (rapid eye movement) rebound
E. Increases stage N1
Explanation: ***Inhibits REM***
- **Alcohol** is a central nervous system depressant that initially induces sleep but significantly **disrupts sleep architecture**, especially **REM sleep**, leading to non-restorative sleep.
- The suppression of **REM sleep** by alcohol can contribute to the patient's reported daytime fatigue, despite seemingly getting enough sleep.
*Increases total REM sleep*
- This is incorrect; alcohol consumption, particularly chronic or heavy use, is known to **decrease the total amount of REM sleep**.
- While there might be a brief increase in non-REM sleep at the beginning of the night, the overall effect on REM is inhibitory.
*Inhibits stage N1*
- This is incorrect; alcohol typically **shortens sleep latency** (the time it takes to fall asleep) and thus can actually **increase the duration of stage N1** (light sleep) initially or lead to more awakenings back into N1.
- **Alcohol's sedative effects** aid in falling asleep faster, but this is often followed by fragmented sleep.
*REM (rapid eye movement) rebound*
- Though **REM rebound** can occur during withdrawal after chronic alcohol use, it is not the direct effect of alcohol consumption itself on the sleep cycle.
- **REM rebound** is a compensatory phenomenon where the body tries to make up for lost REM sleep, often leading to vivid dreams and nightmares during withdrawal.
*Increases stage N1*
- While alcohol can cause a quicker transition into sleep, it often leads to a **fragmented sleep architecture**, potentially increasing the amount of time spent in lighter sleep stages like N1 due to frequent awakenings and difficulty maintaining deeper sleep.
- However, the most significant and detrimental effect on sleep quality is its **inhibition of REM sleep**.
Question 8: A 26-year-old man presents to the behavioral health clinic for assistance overcoming his fear of public speaking. He has always hated public speaking. Two weeks ago, he was supposed to present a research project at school but had to leave the podium before the presentation. He recalled that his heart was racing, his palms were sweating, and that he could not breathe. These symptoms resolved on their own after several minutes, but he felt too embarrassed to return to college the next day. This had also happened in high school where, before a presentation, he started sweating and felt palpitations and nausea that also resolved on their own. He is scheduled for another presentation next month and is terrified. He states that this only happens in front of large groups and that he has no problems communicating at small gatherings. Other than his fear of public speaking, he has a normal social life and many friends. He enjoys his classes and a part-time job. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Social anxiety disorder, performance only (Correct Answer)
B. Social anxiety disorder, generalized
C. Normal human behavior
D. Panic disorder
E. Panic disorder with agoraphobia
Explanation: ***Social anxiety disorder, performance only***
- The patient exhibits marked fear and anxiety specifically in **social situations involving performance** (public speaking), while having no issues with general social interactions.
- His physical symptoms (**racing heart, sweating, difficulty breathing**) are consistent with anxiety, and his avoidance and distress meet the criteria for social anxiety disorder, but limited to performance situations.
*Social anxiety disorder, generalized*
- This diagnosis would imply fear and anxiety in **a broad range of social situations**, not just performance-related ones.
- The patient explicitly states he has no problems communicating at small gatherings and has a normal social life, ruling out a generalized presentation.
*Normal human behavior*
- While some degree of nervousness before public speaking is common, the patient's symptoms are of **panic-level intensity** (e.g., leaving the podium, inability to breathe) and cause significant distress and functional impairment.
- These severe, recurrent reactions go beyond normal apprehension and indicate a diagnosable condition.
*Panic disorder*
- **Panic disorder** is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks that are not tied to a specific trigger or situation.
- The patient's attacks are consistently triggered by **public speaking** rather than being unexpected, which points away from panic disorder.
*Panic disorder with agoraphobia*
- This diagnosis involves panic attacks coupled with **agoraphobia**, which is fear or avoidance of situations where escape might be difficult or help unavailable during a panic attack (e.g., crowds, open spaces, public transportation).
- The patient's symptoms are clearly linked to public speaking occasions and do not involve broader situational avoidance as seen in agoraphobia.
Question 9: A 7-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because she has been increasingly reluctant to speak at school over the past 4 months. Her teachers complain that she does not answer their questions and it is affecting her academic performance. She was born at 35 weeks' gestation and pregnancy was complicated by preeclampsia. Previous well-child examinations have been normal. Her older brother was diagnosed with a learning disability 4 years ago. She is at 65th percentile for height and weight. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. She follows commands. She avoids answering questions directly and whispers her answers to her mother instead who then mediates between the doctor and her daughter. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Selective mutism (Correct Answer)
B. Social anxiety disorder
C. Rett syndrome
D. Autism spectrum disorder
E. Reactive attachment disorder
Explanation: ***Selective mutism***
- The child's reluctance to speak in specific social situations (school) despite being able to speak in others (whispering to her mother), and the impact on academic performance, are classic signs of **selective mutism**
- **Selective mutism** typically involves anxiety and a consistent failure to speak in situations where speaking is expected, despite speaking in other situations
- This diagnosis fits the **DSM-5 criteria**: consistent failure to speak in specific social situations for >1 month, interfering with educational achievement
*Social anxiety disorder*
- While social anxiety can be **comorbid** with selective mutism, the hallmark of this presentation is the **specific refusal to speak** in certain settings, rather than generalized anxiety about social interactions
- A child with generalized social anxiety might interact nervously but would likely attempt to speak, which is not described here
*Rett syndrome*
- **Rett syndrome** is a neurodevelopmental disorder almost exclusively affecting girls, characterized by **normal early development followed by regression** of acquired skills, loss of purposeful hand use, and deceleration of head growth
- The presented symptoms of reluctance to speak in specific settings, without other regressive signs or developmental abnormalities, do not fit the diagnosis of Rett syndrome
*Autism spectrum disorder*
- **Autism spectrum disorder** is characterized by persistent deficits in **social communication and social interaction** across multiple contexts, and **restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior**
- This child's ability to speak to her mother and follow commands suggests intact communication skills in some contexts, making autism less likely than selective mutism for the primary presentation
*Reactive attachment disorder*
- **Reactive attachment disorder** typically arises from patterns of **extremely insufficient care** in early childhood, leading to emotionally withdrawn behavior toward caregivers and limited positive affect
- The child's selective non-speaking in school in this scenario, with normal previous well-child examinations and interaction with her mother, is inconsistent with the characteristic features of reactive attachment disorder
Question 10: A previously healthy 30-year-old woman comes to the physician because of nervousness and difficulty sleeping over the past 4 weeks. She has difficulty falling asleep at night because she cannot stop worrying about her relationship and her future. Three months ago, her new boyfriend moved in with her. Before this relationship, she had been single for 13 years. She reports that her boyfriend does not keep things in order in the way she was used to. Sometimes, he puts his dirty dishes in the kitchen sink instead of putting them in the dishwasher directly. He refuses to add any groceries to the shopping list when they are used up. He has also suggested several times that they have dinner at a restaurant instead of eating at home, which enrages her because she likes to plan each dinner of the week and buy the required groceries beforehand. The patient says that she really loves her boyfriend but that she will never be able to tolerate his “flaws.” Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she is cooperative but appears distressed. Her affect has little intensity or range. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (Correct Answer)
E. Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation: ***Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder***
- This patient displays pervasive patterns of **perfectionism, orderliness, and control**, along with an **inflexibility** that causes significant distress in her relationship.
- Her inability to tolerate deviations from her routines and expectations, even in minor domestic matters, is characteristic of OCPD.
- Importantly, her behaviors are **ego-syntonic** (she views her need for order as reasonable and blames her boyfriend's "flaws"), which is typical of personality disorders.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While she experiences nervousness and difficulty sleeping, these symptoms are attributed to worrying about her relationship rather than the pervasive low mood, anhedonia, and other vegetative symptoms typical of **major depressive disorder**.
- Her distress is specifically tied to her need for control and order, which is not the primary feature of depression.
*Generalized anxiety disorder*
- This diagnosis involves **excessive, uncontrollable worry** about multiple events or activities for at least 6 months, often accompanied by restlessness, fatigue, and muscle tension.
- While she has anxiety, it stems from rigid adherence to rules and routines, which points more specifically to a personality disorder rather than generalized anxiety.
- Duration is also only 4 weeks, not meeting the 6-month criterion for GAD.
*Obsessive-compulsive disorder*
- OCD is characterized by **recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions)** and **repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions)** that the individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession.
- This patient does not report specific obsessions or compulsions; her behaviors are **ego-syntonic** (consistent with her values) rather than **ego-dystonic** (recognized as unreasonable), which would be seen in OCD.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- Patients with schizoid personality disorder typically exhibit a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression.
- This patient is in a relationship and expresses distress about its challenges, indicating a desire for connection rather than detachment.