A newborn infant with karyotype 46, XY has male internal and external reproductive structures. The lack of a uterus in this infant can be attributed to the actions of which of the following cell types?
Q62
A 45-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of burning pain in both feet and lower legs for 3 months. He reports that the pain is especially severe at night. He has a history of diabetes mellitus for the past 5 years, and he frequently skips his oral antidiabetic medications. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), heart rate is 80/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. His weight is 70 kg (154.3 lb) and height is 165 cm (approx. 5 ft 5 in). The neurologic examination reveals loss of sensations of pain and temperature over the dorsal and ventral sides of the feet and over the distal one-third of both legs. Proprioception is normal; knee jerks and ankle reflexes are also normal. The tone and strength in all muscles are normal. The hemoglobin A1C is 7.8%. Involvement of what type of nerve fibers is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
Q63
A 44-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 45 minutes after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision in which he was the restrained driver. On arrival, he has left hip and left leg pain. His pulse is 135/min, respirations are 28/min, and blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. Examination shows an open left tibial fracture with active bleeding. The left lower extremity appears shortened, flexed, and internally rotated. Femoral and pedal pulses are decreased bilaterally. Massive transfusion protocol is initiated. An x-ray of the pelvis shows an open pelvis fracture and an open left tibial mid-shaft fracture. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,000/mm3
Platelet count <250,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 12 sec
Partial thromboplastin time 30 sec
Serum
Na+ 125 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 18 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
The patient is taken emergently to interventional radiology for exploratory angiography and arterial embolization. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's hyponatremia?
Q64
An investigator is developing a drug for muscle spasms. The drug inactivates muscular contraction by blocking the site where calcium ions bind to regulate actin-myosin interaction. Which of the following is the most likely site of action of this drug?
Q65
A 21-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of fatigue for the past 2 weeks. She reports that it is difficult for her to do strenuous tasks such as lifting heavy boxes at the bar she works at. She denies any precipitating factors, weight changes, nail changes, dry skin, chest pain, abdominal pain, or urinary changes. She is currently trying out a vegetarian diet for weight loss and overall wellness. Besides heavier than usual periods, the patient is otherwise healthy with no significant medical history. A physical examination demonstrates conjunctival pallor. Where in the gastrointestinal system is the most likely mineral that is deficient in the patient absorbed?
Q66
A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of a 2-month history of worsening fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. While he used to be able to walk 4–5 blocks at a time, he now has to pause every 2 blocks. He also reports waking up from having to urinate at least once every night for the past 5 months. Recently, he has started using 2 pillows to avoid waking up coughing with acute shortness of breath at night. He has a history of hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. His medications include daily amlodipine and prazosin, but he reports having trouble adhering to his medication regimen. His pulse is 72/min, blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Physical examination shows 2+ bilateral pitting edema of the lower legs. Auscultation shows an S4 gallop and fine bibasilar rales. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following pathophysiologic changes in this patient?
Q67
A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room with hyperextension of the cervical spine caused by a trampoline injury. After ruling out the possibility of hemorrhagic shock, she is diagnosed with quadriplegia with neurogenic shock. The physical examination is most likely to reveal which of the following constellation of findings?
Q68
A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and fatigue for 1 day. He reports feeling increasingly tired. The medical records show a long history of intravenous drug abuse, and a past hospitalization for infective endocarditis 2 years ago. The echocardiography performed at that time showed vegetations on the tricuspid valve. The patient has not regularly attended his follow-up appointments. The visual inspection of the neck shows distension of the neck veins. What finding would you expect to see on this patient’s jugular venous pulse tracing?
Q69
A 62-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease and osteoarthritis is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of severe, stabbing epigastric pain. For the last 6 months, he has had progressively worsening right knee pain, for which he takes ibuprofen several times a day. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. The lungs are clear to auscultation. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia without ST-segment elevations or depressions. This patient is most likely to have referred pain in which of the following locations?
Q70
An investigator is studying membranous transport proteins in striated muscle fibers of an experimental animal. An electrode is inserted into the gluteus maximus muscle and a low voltage current is applied. In response to this, calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibers and binds to troponin C, which results in a conformational change of tropomyosin and unblocking of the myosin-binding site. The membranous transport mechanism underlying the release of calcium into the cytosol most resembles which of the following processes?
Cardiovascular US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: A newborn infant with karyotype 46, XY has male internal and external reproductive structures. The lack of a uterus in this infant can be attributed to the actions of which of the following cell types?
A. Granulosa
B. Theca
C. Leydig
D. Reticularis
E. Sertoli (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sertoli***
- **Sertoli cells** in the fetal testis produce **Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)**, which is crucial for the regression of the **Müllerian ducts**.
- The **Müllerian ducts** (also called paramesonephric ducts) would otherwise develop into the uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper vagina in the female fetus. In a male fetus, AMH from Sertoli cells causes these structures to degenerate, leading to the absence of a uterus.
*Granulosa*
- **Granulosa cells** are found in the ovarian follicles of females and are involved in **estrogen synthesis** and support of oocyte development.
- They do not play a role in Müllerian duct regression; in fact, the absence of AMH in female fetuses allows the Müllerian ducts to develop.
*Theca*
- **Theca cells** are also found in the ovarian follicles and are responsible for producing **androgens** (which are then converted to estrogen by granulosa cells).
- Like granulosa cells, theca cells are involved in ovarian function and estrogen production, not in the regression of Müllerian ducts.
*Leydig*
- **Leydig cells** are located in the interstitium of the testes and are responsible for producing **androgens** (primarily testosterone) in response to luteinizing hormone (LH).
- Testosterone from Leydig cells promotes the development of the **Wolffian ducts** (which form male internal reproductive structures like the epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles), but it does not directly cause the regression of the Müllerian ducts.
*Reticularis*
- The **zona reticularis** is the innermost layer of the adrenal cortex and produces **adrenal androgens**.
- While adrenal androgens play a role in puberty and certain endocrine conditions, they are not involved in the differentiation of fetal reproductive tracts or the regression of Müllerian ducts.
Question 62: A 45-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of burning pain in both feet and lower legs for 3 months. He reports that the pain is especially severe at night. He has a history of diabetes mellitus for the past 5 years, and he frequently skips his oral antidiabetic medications. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), heart rate is 80/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. His weight is 70 kg (154.3 lb) and height is 165 cm (approx. 5 ft 5 in). The neurologic examination reveals loss of sensations of pain and temperature over the dorsal and ventral sides of the feet and over the distal one-third of both legs. Proprioception is normal; knee jerks and ankle reflexes are also normal. The tone and strength in all muscles are normal. The hemoglobin A1C is 7.8%. Involvement of what type of nerve fibers is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
A. Aδ & C fibers (Correct Answer)
B. Aα & Aβ fibers
C. Aγ & B fibers
D. Aγ & C fibers
E. Aβ & Aγ fibers
Explanation: ***Aδ & C fibers***
- The patient's symptoms of **burning pain** and loss of **pain and temperature sensations** are characteristic of small fiber neuropathy, which primarily involves **Aδ and C fibers**.
- These are **unmyelinated or thinly myelinated** fibers responsible for transmitting pain (nociception) and thermal sensations, and they are frequently affected in **diabetic neuropathy**.
*Aα & Aβ fibers*
- **Aα fibers** are large, myelinated fibers involved in **proprioception** and motor function; **Aβ fibers** transmit touch and pressure sensations.
- The patient's **normal proprioception** and motor strength indicate that these fibers are largely spared.
*Aγ & B fibers*
- **Aγ fibers** innervate muscle spindles and are involved in **motor control** and stretch reflexes.
- **B fibers** are preganglionic autonomic fibers; neither is directly responsible for pain and temperature sensation.
*Aγ & C fibers*
- While **C fibers** are involved in pain and temperature, **Aγ fibers** are primarily motor, controlling muscle spindle sensitivity.
- The combination does not accurately represent the sensory deficits observed in this patient.
*Aβ & Aγ fibers*
- **Aβ fibers** are involved in touch and pressure, and **Aγ fibers** are motor.
- The patient's primary complaint is burning pain and loss of temperature sensation, not deficits related to these fiber types.
Question 63: A 44-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 45 minutes after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision in which he was the restrained driver. On arrival, he has left hip and left leg pain. His pulse is 135/min, respirations are 28/min, and blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. Examination shows an open left tibial fracture with active bleeding. The left lower extremity appears shortened, flexed, and internally rotated. Femoral and pedal pulses are decreased bilaterally. Massive transfusion protocol is initiated. An x-ray of the pelvis shows an open pelvis fracture and an open left tibial mid-shaft fracture. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,000/mm3
Platelet count <250,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 12 sec
Partial thromboplastin time 30 sec
Serum
Na+ 125 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 18 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
The patient is taken emergently to interventional radiology for exploratory angiography and arterial embolization. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's hyponatremia?
A. Pathologic aldosterone secretion
B. Physiologic aldosterone secretion
C. Adrenal crisis
D. Pathologic ADH (vasopressin) secretion
E. Physiologic ADH (vasopressin) secretion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Physiologic ADH (vasopressin) secretion***
- The patient has significant **hypovolemia** due to massive bleeding from an open pelvic fracture and an open tibial fracture, leading to **hypotension** (BP 90/40 mmHg) and **tachycardia** (HR 135/min). This severe hypovolemia is a potent non-osmotic stimulus for ADH release.
- **Physiologic ADH secretion** in response to hypovolemia acts to conserve water, but in the context of ongoing fluid resuscitation with hypotonic fluids (like normal saline after initial blood loss), it leads to **dilutional hyponatremia** as water is retained disproportionately to sodium.
*Pathologic aldosterone secretion*
- **Pathologic aldosterone secretion** (e.g., from an adrenal adenoma) causes primary hyperaldosteronism, which typically results in **hypertension**, **hypokalemia**, and **metabolic alkalosis**, none of which are seen in this patient.
- While aldosterone does contribute to sodium reabsorption, its primary role in this acute, hypovolemic state is to defend circulating volume, and pathologic excess would not explain the observed hyponatremia.
*Physiologic aldosterone secretion*
- **Physiologic aldosterone secretion** would be appropriately elevated in response to hypovolemia to promote **sodium and water reabsorption** and **potassium excretion** to maintain circulating volume.
- While aldosterone conserves sodium, it does not directly cause hyponatremia; rather, it would tend to increase serum sodium by retaining it, as long as ADH is not excessively retaining free water.
*Adrenal crisis*
- **Adrenal crisis** (acute adrenal insufficiency) would present with severe hypotension, but it is also characterized by **hyponatremia**, **hyperkalemia**, and often **hypoglycemia** due to cortisol deficiency.
- Although hyponatremia is present, the patient's potassium is normal (4.5 mEq/L), making adrenal crisis less likely given the absence of hyperkalemia.
*Pathologic ADH (vasopressin) secretion*
- **Pathologic ADH secretion** (e.g., Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone secretion - SIADH) typically occurs in **euvolemic or mildly hypervolemic** states, often associated with malignancies, CNS disorders, or certain drugs.
- In SIADH, patients are typically euvolemic (not hypovolemic as seen here), urine osmolality is inappropriately high, and urine sodium is usually elevated (>20 mEq/L), which contradicts the patient's clinical picture of severe hypovolemia.
Question 64: An investigator is developing a drug for muscle spasms. The drug inactivates muscular contraction by blocking the site where calcium ions bind to regulate actin-myosin interaction. Which of the following is the most likely site of action of this drug?
A. Troponin C (Correct Answer)
B. Myosin-binding site
C. Acetylcholine receptor
D. Ryanodine receptor
E. Myosin head
Explanation: ***Troponin C***
- **Calcium ions** bind to **Troponin C**, initiating a conformational change in the troponin-tropomyosin complex, which exposes the **myosin-binding sites on actin**.
- Blocking this site directly prevents the **calcium-mediated regulation** of muscle contraction, thus inactivating it.
*Myosin-binding site*
- The **myosin-binding site** is located on the **actin filament** and is where the **myosin head** attaches to form cross-bridges.
- While essential for contraction, this site doesn't directly bind calcium ions to initiate the process.
*Acetylcholine receptor*
- The **acetylcholine receptor** is located on the **neuromuscular junction** and mediates the transmission of a nerve impulse to the muscle fiber.
- Blocking this receptor would prevent muscle depolarization, but it's not the direct site where calcium ions regulate actin-myosin interaction.
*Ryanodine receptor*
- The **ryanodine receptor** is located on the **sarcoplasmic reticulum** and controls the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.
- While it's involved in calcium signaling, it doesn't represent the site where calcium binds to *regulate* the actin-myosin interaction itself.
*Myosin head*
- The **myosin head** contains the **ATPase activity** and binds to actin to form cross-bridges, enabling muscle contraction.
- It does not directly bind **calcium ions** to regulate the initiation of contraction; instead, its binding to actin is regulated by the troponin-tropomyosin complex.
Question 65: A 21-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of fatigue for the past 2 weeks. She reports that it is difficult for her to do strenuous tasks such as lifting heavy boxes at the bar she works at. She denies any precipitating factors, weight changes, nail changes, dry skin, chest pain, abdominal pain, or urinary changes. She is currently trying out a vegetarian diet for weight loss and overall wellness. Besides heavier than usual periods, the patient is otherwise healthy with no significant medical history. A physical examination demonstrates conjunctival pallor. Where in the gastrointestinal system is the most likely mineral that is deficient in the patient absorbed?
A. Large intestine
B. Ileum
C. Jejunum
D. Stomach
E. Duodenum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Duodenum***
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, conjunctival pallor, heavy periods, vegetarian diet) are highly suggestive of **iron deficiency anemia**. The **duodenum** is the primary site for the absorption of dietary iron.
- Iron absorption is tightly regulated here to maintain iron homeostasis, and conditions like a vegetarian diet can reduce bioavailable iron, leading to deficiency.
*Large intestine*
- The large intestine is primarily involved in **water and electrolyte absorption** and the formation of stool.
- It does not play a significant role in the absorption of essential minerals like iron.
*Ileum*
- The ileum is the main site for the absorption of **bile salts** and **vitamin B12**.
- While it absorbs some nutrients, it is not the primary site for iron absorption.
*Jejunum*
- The jejunum is the main site for the absorption of most **nutrients**, including carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
- While some iron absorption can occur here, the **duodenum** is the specialized and most significant site for this process.
*Stomach*
- The stomach's main roles include **digestion** of proteins and production of **intrinsic factor** for vitamin B12 absorption.
- While **acidic pH** in the stomach aids in converting ferric iron (Fe3+) to ferrous iron (Fe2+), which is more readily absorbed, direct iron absorption in the stomach lining is minimal.
Question 66: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of a 2-month history of worsening fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. While he used to be able to walk 4–5 blocks at a time, he now has to pause every 2 blocks. He also reports waking up from having to urinate at least once every night for the past 5 months. Recently, he has started using 2 pillows to avoid waking up coughing with acute shortness of breath at night. He has a history of hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. His medications include daily amlodipine and prazosin, but he reports having trouble adhering to his medication regimen. His pulse is 72/min, blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Physical examination shows 2+ bilateral pitting edema of the lower legs. Auscultation shows an S4 gallop and fine bibasilar rales. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following pathophysiologic changes in this patient?
A. Increased left ventricular compliance
B. Decreased alveolar surface tension
C. Increased potassium retention
D. Increased tone of efferent renal arterioles (Correct Answer)
E. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Explanation: ***Increased tone of efferent renal arterioles***
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, bilateral pitting edema, S4 gallop, rales, hypertension) are highly suggestive of **heart failure**, primarily left-sided due to his history of **uncontrolled hypertension**.
- In response to decreased cardiac output and renal perfusion in heart failure, the **renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)** is activated. This activation leads to **angiotensin II** production, which constricts **efferent renal arterioles**, increasing the glomerular filtration rate and maintaining renal perfusion pressure to sustain function.
*Increased left ventricular compliance*
- This patient's findings, particularly the **S4 gallop** and history of uncontrolled hypertension, indicate **diastolic dysfunction**, which is characterized by a **stiff, non-compliant left ventricle**.
- The S4 gallop is produced by the atria contracting against a **stiff ventricle**, reflecting reduced ventricular compliance.
*Decreased alveolar surface tension*
- **Decreased alveolar surface tension** (due to surfactant) is a normal physiological state that prevents alveolar collapse and facilitates gas exchange.
- In heart failure, the presence of **bibasilar rales** indicates **pulmonary edema** (fluid accumulation in the alveoli and interstitial spaces), which would *increase* the work of breathing and impair gas exchange, but does not directly relate to decreased surface tension.
*Increased potassium retention*
- Activation of the **renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)** leads to increased **aldosterone** secretion. Aldosterone promotes **sodium reabsorption** and **potassium excretion** in the renal collecting ducts.
- Therefore, chronic RAAS activation in heart failure typically leads to **potassium wasting**, not retention.
*Decreased systemic vascular resistance*
- In heart failure, especially due to chronic hypertension, the body attempts to compensate by activating the **sympathetic nervous system** and **RAAS**, leading to **vasoconstriction** and an *increase* in systemic vascular resistance to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs.
- **Decreased systemic vascular resistance** would typically worsen the low cardiac output state, and is not a compensatory mechanism in this context.
Question 67: A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room with hyperextension of the cervical spine caused by a trampoline injury. After ruling out the possibility of hemorrhagic shock, she is diagnosed with quadriplegia with neurogenic shock. The physical examination is most likely to reveal which of the following constellation of findings?
A. Pulse: 110/min; blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg; respirations: 26/min; normal rectal tone on digital rectal examination (DRE); normal muscle power and sensations in the limbs
B. Pulse: 116/min; blood pressure: 80/40 mm Hg; respirations: 16/min; loss of rectal tone on DRE; reduced muscle power and absence of sensations in the limbs
C. Pulse: 54/min; blood pressure: 88/44 mm Hg; respirations: 26/min; increased rectal tone on DRE; normal muscle power and sensations in the limbs
D. Pulse: 99/min; blood pressure: 188/90 mm Hg; respirations: 33/min; loss of rectal tone on DRE; reduced muscle power and absence of sensations in the limbs
E. Pulse: 56/min; blood pressure: 88/40 mm Hg; respirations: 22/min; loss of rectal tone on DRE; reduced muscle power and absence of sensations in the limbs (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Pulse: 56/min; blood pressure: 88/40 mm Hg; respirations: 22/min; loss of rectal tone on DRE; reduced muscle power and absence of sensations in the limbs**
- **Neurogenic shock** is characterized by **bradycardia** and **hypotension** due to the loss of sympathetic tone below the level of the injury, so a pulse of 56/min and blood pressure of 88/40 mm Hg are consistent findings.
- **Quadriplegia** indicates significant neurological dysfunction with **loss of muscle power and sensation** in all four limbs, and loss of **rectal tone** is a key indicator of spinal cord injury.
*Pulse: 110/min; blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg; respirations: 26/min; normal rectal tone on digital rectal examination (DRE); normal muscle power and sensations in the limbs*
- This option presents **tachycardia** (pulse 110/min), which is inconsistent with the **bradycardia** expected in neurogenic shock.
- **Normal rectal tone**, muscle power, and sensation are directly contradictory to a diagnosis of quadriplegia and spinal cord injury.
*Pulse: 116/min; blood pressure: 80/40 mm Hg; respirations: 16/min; loss of rectal tone on DRE; reduced muscle power and absence of sensations in the limbs*
- The **tachycardia** (pulse 116/min) in this option is not characteristic of **neurogenic shock**, which presents with bradycardia.
- While loss of rectal tone, reduced muscle power, and absence of sensations are consistent with quadriplegia, the vital signs do not fully align with neurogenic shock.
*Pulse: 54/min; blood pressure: 88/44 mm Hg; respirations: 26/min; increased rectal tone on DRE; normal muscle power and sensations in the limbs*
- **Increased rectal tone** and normal muscle power/sensations are inconsistent with **quadriplegia** and spinal cord injury, where loss of function is expected.
- While bradycardia and hypotension are present, these neurological findings contradict the core diagnosis.
*Pulse: 99/min; blood pressure: 188/90 mm Hg; respirations: 33/min; loss of rectal tone on DRE; reduced muscle power and absence of sensations in the limbs*
- This option describes **hypertension** (188/90 mmHg), which is not characteristic of **neurogenic shock**, where **hypotension** is a prominent feature.
- **Tachycardia** (pulse 99/min) is also inconsistent with the bradycardia seen in neurogenic shock.
Question 68: A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and fatigue for 1 day. He reports feeling increasingly tired. The medical records show a long history of intravenous drug abuse, and a past hospitalization for infective endocarditis 2 years ago. The echocardiography performed at that time showed vegetations on the tricuspid valve. The patient has not regularly attended his follow-up appointments. The visual inspection of the neck shows distension of the neck veins. What finding would you expect to see on this patient’s jugular venous pulse tracing?
A. Obliterated x descent
B. Absent a waves
C. Large a waves
D. Decreased c waves
E. Prominent y descent (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Prominent y descent***
- A prominent y descent in the **jugular venous pulse (JVP)** tracing is characteristic of **tricuspid regurgitation**, which is highly probable given the patient's history of **intravenous drug abuse** and previous **infective endocarditis** affecting the tricuspid valve.
- The **y descent** reflects the rapid emptying of the right atrium into the right ventricle during early diastole; in tricuspid regurgitation, the increased right atrial volume due to regurgitant flow leads to a more rapid and pronounced fall in right atrial pressure once the tricuspid valve opens.
*Obliterated x descent*
- An obliterated or absent **x descent** is more typically seen in conditions like **cardiac tamponade** or severe **right ventricular failure**, where there's impaired right atrial filling during ventricular systole.
- While the patient has heart issues, the clinical picture strongly points to tricuspid regurgitation, which would not typically cause an obliterated x descent.
*Absent a waves*
- **Absent a waves** in the JVP tracing most commonly suggest **atrial fibrillation**, where there is no organized atrial contraction.
- The case description does not provide information to suggest atrial fibrillation as the primary issue.
*Large a waves*
- **Large a waves** (cannon a waves) are indicative of conditions where there is increased resistance to right atrial emptying during atrial contraction, such as **tricuspid stenosis**, **pulmonary hypertension**, or certain types of **atrial-ventricular dissociation**.
- While the history of endocarditis could theoretically lead to tricuspid stenosis, tricuspid regurgitation is a more common sequela in IV drug users and better fits the overall clinical picture, and stenosis would not cause a prominent y descent.
*Decreased c waves*
- The **c wave** in the JVP is caused by the bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during early ventricular systole.
- A decreased c wave is not a typical finding in the context of tricuspid regurgitation; rather, a more prominent c-v wave is expected due to the regurgitant flow.
Question 69: A 62-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease and osteoarthritis is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of severe, stabbing epigastric pain. For the last 6 months, he has had progressively worsening right knee pain, for which he takes ibuprofen several times a day. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. The lungs are clear to auscultation. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia without ST-segment elevations or depressions. This patient is most likely to have referred pain in which of the following locations?
A. Left shoulder
B. Umbilicus
C. Right groin
D. Right scapula (Correct Answer)
E. Left jaw
Explanation: ***Right scapula***
- The patient's presentation with **severe, stabbing epigastric pain** and a history of **NSAID use** (ibuprofen for osteoarthritis) strongly suggests a **perforated peptic ulcer**.
- A perforated peptic ulcer, especially in the duodenum, can cause irritation of the diaphragm, leading to **referred pain** to the **right shoulder** or **scapula** via the phrenic nerve.
*Left shoulder*
- **Left shoulder pain** is more typically associated with conditions affecting the **spleen** (e.g., splenic rupture) or, less commonly, **cardiac ischemia**, which is ruled out by the ECG.
- While referred pain patterns can be variable, a perforating ulcer is less likely to cause isolated left shoulder pain.
*Umbilicus*
- Pain referred to the **umbilical region** often originates from structures in the **midgut**, such as the small intestine or appendix (early appendicitis).
- While a perforated ulcer is an abdominal condition, the characteristic diaphragmatic irritation leading to referred pain is usually felt superiorly.
*Right groin*
- Pain in the **right groin** is commonly associated with conditions affecting the **ureters** (e.g., renal stones), **hip joint**, or **inguinal hernia**.
- It is not a typical site for referred pain from a perforated peptic ulcer.
*Left jaw*
- **Left jaw pain** is a classic symptom of **myocardial ischemia** or **angina**, which has been largely ruled out by the normal ECG in this patient.
- **Referred pain** from a perforated ulcer does not typically manifest in the jaw.
Question 70: An investigator is studying membranous transport proteins in striated muscle fibers of an experimental animal. An electrode is inserted into the gluteus maximus muscle and a low voltage current is applied. In response to this, calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibers and binds to troponin C, which results in a conformational change of tropomyosin and unblocking of the myosin-binding site. The membranous transport mechanism underlying the release of calcium into the cytosol most resembles which of the following processes?
A. Opening of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junction
B. Reabsorption of glucose by renal tubular cells
C. Secretion of doxorubicin from dysplastic colonic cells
D. Uptake of fructose by small intestinal enterocytes (Correct Answer)
E. Removal of calcium from cardiac myocytes
Explanation: **Uptake of fructose by small intestinal enterocytes**
- The release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol in muscle contraction is primarily mediated by **ryanodine receptors**, which are a type of **facilitated diffusion channel**.
- **Fructose uptake** in the small intestine occurs via **GLUT5 transporters**, which also utilize **facilitated diffusion**, moving fructose down its concentration gradient without direct energy expenditure.
*Opening of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junction*
- The opening of **acetylcholine receptors** is a form of **ligand-gated ion channel** activity, specific to the binding of acetylcholine.
- While it involves channel opening, it's initiated by a chemical signal, whereas sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium release is often voltage-gated or mechanically coupled to voltage sensors.
*Reabsorption of glucose by renal tubular cells*
- Glucose reabsorption in renal tubules primarily involves **secondary active transport** via **SGLT transporters**, which co-transport glucose with sodium.
- This process requires energy indirectly, unlike the facilitated diffusion of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
*Secretion of doxorubicin from dysplastic colonic cells*
- The secretion of doxorubicin, an anticancer drug, from cells often involves **ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporters** (e.g., MDR1), which utilize **primary active transport** to pump substances against their concentration gradient using ATP.
- This is an energy-dependent process, distinct from facilitated diffusion.
*Removal of calcium from cardiac myocytes*
- The removal of calcium from cardiac myocytes occurs primarily via the **SERCA pump** (an **ATP-dependent active transporter**) back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the **Na+/Ca2+ exchanger** (a **secondary active transporter**) out of the cell.
- Both mechanisms require energy, either directly or indirectly, to move calcium against its electrochemical gradient.