A 49-year-old woman with a long-standing history of a seizure disorder presents with fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. The patient reports that the symptoms have gradually worsened over the past month and have not improved. Past medical history is significant for a seizure disorder diagnosed 10 years ago, for which she recently switched medications. She currently takes phenytoin 300 mg orally daily and a multivitamin. Review of systems is significant for decreased appetite, recent constipation, and cold intolerance. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 100/80 mm Hg, the pulse is 60/min, the respiratory rate is 16/min, and the oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is slow to respond but cooperative. Cardiac exam is normal. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Skin is coarse and dry. Mild to moderate hair loss is present over the entire body, and the remaining hair is brittle. Which of the following additional findings would you expect to see in this patient?
Q82
A 45-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of easy bruising and bleeding over the last 6 months. She has also noticed that she has been having fatty, foul smelling stools. Past history is significant for cholecystectomy a year ago to treat a long history of symptomatic gallstones. Based on clinical suspicion a coagulation panel was obtained showing a prothrombin time (PT) of 18 seconds (normal range 9-11 seconds), a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 45 seconds (normal 20-35 seconds), with a normal ristocetin cofactor assay (modern equivalent of bleeding time). Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's bleeding?
Q83
A 59-year-old man presents with intense, sharp pain in his toe for the past hour. He reports similar symptoms in the past and this is his 2nd visit to the emergency department this year with the same complaint. The patient is afebrile and the vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is significant erythema, swelling, warmth, and moderate pain on palpation of the right 1st toe. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. A plain radiograph of the right foot reveals no abnormalities. Joint arthrocentesis of the inflamed toe reveals urate crystals. Laboratory studies show:
Serum glucose (random) 170 mg/dL
Sodium 140 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 100 mEq/L
Uric acid 7.2 mg/dL
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 9 mg/dL
Cholesterol, total 170 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 43 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 73 mg/dL
Triglycerides 135 mg/dL
HDL: high-density lipoprotein; LDL: low-density lipoprotein
Ibuprofen is prescribed for the acute treatment of this patient's symptoms. He is also put on chronic therapy to prevent the recurrence of future attacks. Which of the following drugs is 1st-line for chronic therapy of gout?
Q84
A 57-year-old man presents with episodic left periorbital pain that radiates to the left frontotemporal side of his head for the last 2 weeks. The episodes are severe and are usually present for 1–2 hours before bedtime. During these episodes, he has also noticed lacrimation on the left side and a runny nose. He has tried over-the-counter analgesics with no relief. He currently has a headache. He denies any cough, seizure, nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, or visual disturbances. His past medical history is significant for a myocardial infarction 1 year ago, with residual angina with exertion. The patient has a 10 pack-year history of smoking, but no alcohol or recreational drug use. His vital signs include: blood pressure 155/90 mm Hg, pulse 90/min, and respiratory rate 15/min. Physical examination is significant for a left-sided Horner’s syndrome. Which of the following is the next best step in the acute management of this patient’s most likely condition?
Q85
A 43-year-old female presents to her endocrinologist for a new patient appointment. She initially presented three months ago as a referral for a new diagnosis of type II diabetes mellitus. At that time, her HbA1c was found to be 8.8%, and she was started on metformin. Her metformin was quickly uptitrated to the maximum recommended dose. At the same visit, her body mass index (BMI) was 31 kg/m^2, and the patient was counseled on the importance of diet and exercise for achieving better glycemic control. Today, the patient reports complete adherence to metformin as well as her other home medications of atorvastatin and lisinopril. She also started a daily walking routine and has lost two pounds. Her HbA1c today is 7.6%, and her BMI is stable from her last visit. The patient is discouraged by her slow weight loss, and she would like to lose an additional 5-10 pounds.
Which of the following would be the best choice as a second agent in this patient?
Q86
Thirty minutes after surgical nasal polyp removal for refractory rhinitis, a 40-year-old man has retrosternal chest tightness and shortness of breath in the post-anesthesia care unit. The surgical course was uncomplicated and the patient was successfully extubated before arrival to the unit. He received 0.5 L of lactated Ringer's solution intraoperatively. The patient was given morphine and ketorolac for postoperative pain. He has a history of obstructive sleep apnea, asthma, hypertension, and sensitivity to aspirin. His daily medications include metoprolol and lisinopril. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen concentration of 97% with support of 100% oxygen via face mask. Bilateral wheezes are heard in both lungs. Breath sounds are decreased. The patient's face appears flushed. ECG shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q87
A 43-year-old man presents with a severe, throbbing, left-sided headache for the last 2 hours. He says that the pain has been progressively worsening and is aggravated by movement. The patient says he has had similar episodes in the past and would take acetaminophen and ‘sleep it off’. He also complains that the light in the room is intolerably bright, and he is starting to feel nauseous. No significant past medical history and no current medications. Vital signs include: pulse 110/min, respiratory rate 15/min, and blood pressure 136/86 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals mild conjunctival injection in the left eye. Intraocular pressure (IOP) is normal. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. The patient is given a medication which relieves his symptoms. During discharge, he wants more of this medication to prevent episodes in future but he is told that the medication is only effective in terminating acute attacks but not for prevention. Which of the following receptors does the drug given to this patient bind to?
Q88
A 22-year-old man presents with a painful right arm. He says the pain started several hours ago after he fell on his right shoulder while playing college football. He says that he felt a stinging sensation running down his right arm when he fell. On physical examination, there is a reduced range of motion of the right arm. Plain radiographs of the right shoulder confirm the presence of a shoulder dislocation. A detailed examination yields no evidence of neurovascular problems, and a decision is made to reduce the shoulder using ketamine. Which of the following side effects will be most likely seen in this patient after administering ketamine?
Q89
A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath for the past 2 hours. He mentions that he had a cough, cold, and fever for the last 3 days and has taken an over-the-counter cold preparation. He is hypertensive and has had coronary artery disease for the last 7 years. His regular medications include aspirin and ramipril. On physical examination, temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 118/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 24/min. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 99%. Pitting edema is present bilaterally over the ankles and pretibial regions, and the peripheral extremities are warm to touch. On auscultation of the lung fields, pulmonary crackles are heard over the lung bases bilaterally. Auscultation of the precordium reveals a third heart sound. On examination of the abdomen, mild tender hepatomegaly is present. The chest radiograph is not suggestive of consolidation. Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for initial management of this patient?
Q90
Twelve hours after undergoing a right hip revision surgery for infected prosthesis, a 74-year-old man has numbness in his fingertips and around the lips. His surgery was complicated by severe blood loss. He underwent a total right hip replacement 2 years ago. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His father had hypoparathyroidism. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. His current medications include metformin and captopril. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 110/72 mm Hg. Examination shows an adducted thumb, flexed metacarpophalangeal joints and wrists, and extended fingers. Tapping the cheeks 2 cm ventral to the ear lobes leads to contraction of the facial muscles. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: A 49-year-old woman with a long-standing history of a seizure disorder presents with fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. The patient reports that the symptoms have gradually worsened over the past month and have not improved. Past medical history is significant for a seizure disorder diagnosed 10 years ago, for which she recently switched medications. She currently takes phenytoin 300 mg orally daily and a multivitamin. Review of systems is significant for decreased appetite, recent constipation, and cold intolerance. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 100/80 mm Hg, the pulse is 60/min, the respiratory rate is 16/min, and the oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is slow to respond but cooperative. Cardiac exam is normal. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Skin is coarse and dry. Mild to moderate hair loss is present over the entire body, and the remaining hair is brittle. Which of the following additional findings would you expect to see in this patient?
A. Spasticity
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Impaired memory (Correct Answer)
D. Decreased vibration sense and proprioception
E. Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation: ***Impaired memory***
- The patient's symptoms of **fatigue**, **weight gain**, **hair loss**, **constipation**, **cold intolerance**, and **slow responsiveness** are characteristic of **hypothyroidism**.
- **Cognitive impairment**, including **impaired memory** and **poor concentration**, is a common neurological manifestation of hypothyroidism due to reduced thyroid hormone levels affecting brain function.
*Spasticity*
- **Spasticity** is typically associated with upper motor neuron lesions and presents as increased muscle tone and hyperreflexia, which are not typical features of hypothyroidism.
- Hypothyroidism is more likely to cause **muscle weakness** and **delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes**, rather than spasticity.
*Hyperreflexia*
- **Hyperreflexia** indicates an exaggerated reflex response, often seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism or upper motor neuron lesions.
- In contrast, **hypothyroidism** is characterized by **hyporeflexia** or **delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes** such as the Achilles reflex.
*Decreased vibration sense and proprioception*
- **Decreased vibration sense** and **proprioception** are hallmark signs of **peripheral neuropathy**, often associated with conditions like **diabetes mellitus** or vitamin B12 deficiency.
- While severe, long-standing hypothyroidism can rarely lead to neuropathy, the more prominent cognitive and systemic symptoms point away from this as an expected primary neurological finding in this presentation.
*Tardive dyskinesia*
- **Tardive dyskinesia** is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary, repetitive body movements, typically associated with long-term use of dopamine receptor-blocking medications, such as antipsychotics.
- This patient's symptoms and medication history (phenytoin for seizures) do not suggest a risk for tardive dyskinesia, and it is not a feature of hypothyroidism.
Question 82: A 45-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of easy bruising and bleeding over the last 6 months. She has also noticed that she has been having fatty, foul smelling stools. Past history is significant for cholecystectomy a year ago to treat a long history of symptomatic gallstones. Based on clinical suspicion a coagulation panel was obtained showing a prothrombin time (PT) of 18 seconds (normal range 9-11 seconds), a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 45 seconds (normal 20-35 seconds), with a normal ristocetin cofactor assay (modern equivalent of bleeding time). Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's bleeding?
A. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)
B. Rat poison ingestion
C. Hemophilia
D. Von Willebrand disease
E. Vitamin K deficiency (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Vitamin K deficiency***
- This patient's symptoms of **easy bruising**, **bleeding**, and **fatty, foul-smelling stools** (steatorrhea) combined with a history of **cholecystectomy** strongly suggest **fat malabsorption**.
- **Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin** essential for the synthesis of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X. Malabsorption leads to its deficiency, prolonging both PT and PTT, which aligns with the lab results (PT 18s, PTT 45s).
*Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)*
- ITP is characterized by **thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count), leading to mucocutaneous bleeding and bruising.
- While ITP causes easy bruising and bleeding, it would present with a **normal PT and PTT**, as these tests measure coagulation factor activity, not platelet count.
*Rat poison ingestion*
- Rat poisons often contain **warfarin**, a **vitamin K antagonist**, which would also lead to prolonged PT and PTT.
- However, there is **no clinical history or other indication** of rat poison ingestion.
*Hemophilia*
- Hemophilia is an **X-linked recessive disorder** primarily affecting males, resulting in a deficiency of factor VIII (Hemophilia A) or factor IX (Hemophilia B).
- Both forms primarily cause a **prolonged PTT with a normal PT**, which does not match the patient's presentation of both prolonged PT and PTT.
*Von Willebrand disease*
- Von Willebrand disease is the **most common inherited bleeding disorder** affecting primary hemostasis (platelet plug formation).
- It would typically cause a **prolonged bleeding time** (or abnormal ristocetin cofactor assay), which is noted as normal in this patient, and often a normal PT and PTT unless Factor VIII levels are severely reduced.
Question 83: A 59-year-old man presents with intense, sharp pain in his toe for the past hour. He reports similar symptoms in the past and this is his 2nd visit to the emergency department this year with the same complaint. The patient is afebrile and the vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is significant erythema, swelling, warmth, and moderate pain on palpation of the right 1st toe. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. A plain radiograph of the right foot reveals no abnormalities. Joint arthrocentesis of the inflamed toe reveals urate crystals. Laboratory studies show:
Serum glucose (random) 170 mg/dL
Sodium 140 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 100 mEq/L
Uric acid 7.2 mg/dL
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 9 mg/dL
Cholesterol, total 170 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 43 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 73 mg/dL
Triglycerides 135 mg/dL
HDL: high-density lipoprotein; LDL: low-density lipoprotein
Ibuprofen is prescribed for the acute treatment of this patient's symptoms. He is also put on chronic therapy to prevent the recurrence of future attacks. Which of the following drugs is 1st-line for chronic therapy of gout?
A. Methotrexate
B. Indomethacin
C. Probenecid
D. Colchicine
E. Allopurinol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Allopurinol***
- Allopurinol is a **xanthine oxidase inhibitor** that reduces uric acid production, making it the **first-line therapy** for **chronic gout management**.
- It effectively **lowers serum uric acid levels** to prevent recurrent attacks and dissolution of urate crystals.
*Methotrexate*
- Methotrexate is a **disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)** primarily used in conditions like **rheumatoid arthritis** and **psoriasis**.
- It is **not indicated for gout** as it does not target uric acid metabolism.
*Indomethacin*
- Indomethacin is an **NSAID** commonly used for the **acute treatment of gout flares** due to its potent anti-inflammatory effects.
- It is **not suitable for chronic management** or prevention of gout due to potential long-term side effects and lack of effect on uric acid levels.
*Probenecid*
- Probenecid is a **uricosuric agent** that increases renal excretion of uric acid.
- While it lowers uric acid, it is typically considered a **second-line agent** for chronic gout, especially in patients with underexcretion of uric acid, or as an alternative to allopurinol if it cannot be tolerated.
*Colchicine*
- Colchicine is used for both **acute gout flares** and as **prophylaxis** during the initiation of uric acid-lowering therapy to prevent flares.
- It is **not a first-line drug for chronic gout management** as it does not lower uric acid levels; it primarily reduces inflammation.
Question 84: A 57-year-old man presents with episodic left periorbital pain that radiates to the left frontotemporal side of his head for the last 2 weeks. The episodes are severe and are usually present for 1–2 hours before bedtime. During these episodes, he has also noticed lacrimation on the left side and a runny nose. He has tried over-the-counter analgesics with no relief. He currently has a headache. He denies any cough, seizure, nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, or visual disturbances. His past medical history is significant for a myocardial infarction 1 year ago, with residual angina with exertion. The patient has a 10 pack-year history of smoking, but no alcohol or recreational drug use. His vital signs include: blood pressure 155/90 mm Hg, pulse 90/min, and respiratory rate 15/min. Physical examination is significant for a left-sided Horner’s syndrome. Which of the following is the next best step in the acute management of this patient’s most likely condition?
A. Sumatriptan
B. Ibuprofen
C. Ergotamine
D. 100% oxygen (Correct Answer)
E. Verapamil
Explanation: ***100% oxygen***
- The patient's symptoms — **episodic, severe periorbital pain**, **lacrimation**, **runny nose**, occurrence around bedtime, and **Horner's syndrome** — are classic for a **cluster headache**.
- **100% oxygen** via a non-rebreather mask is the **first-line acute treatment** for cluster headaches due to its rapid onset and efficacy in aborting attacks.
*Sumatriptan*
- While **subcutaneous sumatriptan** can be effective for cluster headaches, it is contraindicated in patients with a history of **myocardial infarction** or **coronary artery disease** due to its vasoconstrictive properties.
- The patient's history of MI one year ago makes sumatriptan a risky choice, despite its proven efficacy in abortive treatment.
*Ibuprofen*
- **NSAIDs** like ibuprofen are generally ineffective for the severe, acute pain of **cluster headaches**.
- They lack the rapid onset and potent analgesic effect required for this condition.
*Ergotamine*
- **Ergotamine** is a historical treatment for cluster headaches but has largely been replaced by more effective and safer options like oxygen and triptans.
- It also carries contraindications, especially in patients with **cardiovascular disease**, similar to triptans, making it unsuitable for this patient.
*Verapamil*
- **Verapamil** is the **first-line prophylactic treatment** for cluster headaches, not an acute abortive treatment.
- It is used to prevent future attacks, but it will not alleviate the current headache.
Question 85: A 43-year-old female presents to her endocrinologist for a new patient appointment. She initially presented three months ago as a referral for a new diagnosis of type II diabetes mellitus. At that time, her HbA1c was found to be 8.8%, and she was started on metformin. Her metformin was quickly uptitrated to the maximum recommended dose. At the same visit, her body mass index (BMI) was 31 kg/m^2, and the patient was counseled on the importance of diet and exercise for achieving better glycemic control. Today, the patient reports complete adherence to metformin as well as her other home medications of atorvastatin and lisinopril. She also started a daily walking routine and has lost two pounds. Her HbA1c today is 7.6%, and her BMI is stable from her last visit. The patient is discouraged by her slow weight loss, and she would like to lose an additional 5-10 pounds.
Which of the following would be the best choice as a second agent in this patient?
A. Repaglinide
B. Sitagliptin
C. Glipizide
D. Exenatide (Correct Answer)
E. Pioglitazone
Explanation: ***Exenatide***
- **Exenatide** is a **GLP-1 receptor agonist** that promotes **weight loss**, a desired outcome for this patient, in addition to lowering HbA1c.
- It also has a low risk of **hypoglycemia** and offers cardiovascular benefits, making it an excellent choice for this patient with **type 2 diabetes** and **obesity**.
*Repaglinide*
- This **meglitinide** can lead to **weight gain** and carries a higher risk of **hypoglycemia**, which would be counterproductive to the patient's goals.
- It primarily targets post-prandial glucose and is less effective at lowering HbA1c compared to other agents, especially as a second-line therapy.
*Sitagliptin*
- **Sitagliptin**, a **DPP-4 inhibitor**, is generally weight-neutral and has a modest effect on **HbA1c reduction** compared to **GLP-1 agonists**.
- While it's a good add-on with a low risk of **hypoglycemia**, it does not address the patient's desire for further weight loss.
*Glipizide*
- This **sulfonylurea (SU)** medication is known for causing **weight gain** and having a significant risk of **hypoglycemia**.
- These side effects are undesirable for a patient actively trying to lose weight and seeking to avoid hypoglycemic events.
*Pioglitazone*
- **Pioglitazone**, a **thiazolidinedione (TZD)**, is associated with **weight gain** and **fluid retention**, which would hinder the patient's weight loss efforts.
- It also carries risks such as **heart failure exacerbation** and **osteoporosis**, which make it a less favorable option given the patient's current profile.
Question 86: Thirty minutes after surgical nasal polyp removal for refractory rhinitis, a 40-year-old man has retrosternal chest tightness and shortness of breath in the post-anesthesia care unit. The surgical course was uncomplicated and the patient was successfully extubated before arrival to the unit. He received 0.5 L of lactated Ringer's solution intraoperatively. The patient was given morphine and ketorolac for postoperative pain. He has a history of obstructive sleep apnea, asthma, hypertension, and sensitivity to aspirin. His daily medications include metoprolol and lisinopril. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen concentration of 97% with support of 100% oxygen via face mask. Bilateral wheezes are heard in both lungs. Breath sounds are decreased. The patient's face appears flushed. ECG shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Prinzmetal angina
B. Alveolar rupture
C. Bradykinin-induced bronchial irritation
D. Excessive beta-adrenergic blockade
E. Pseudoallergic reaction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pseudoallergic reaction***
- The patient's history of **aspirin sensitivity**, asthma, nasal polyps, and development of bronchospasm and flushing post-operatively strongly suggests a **pseudoallergic reaction**. Conditions like **aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)** involve abnormal arachidonic acid metabolism and mast cell activation, which can be triggered by NSAIDs (like ketorolac) and cause asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps.
- The use of **ketorolac**, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can induce severe bronchospasm in patients with **aspirin sensitivity** or AERD due to its effect on the **cyclooxygenase pathway**, leading to increased leukotriene production.
*Prinzmetal angina*
- **Prinzmetal angina** typically presents as episodic chest pain at rest, caused by **coronary artery vasospasm**, and would likely show **ECG changes** during the event, which are absent here.
- While chest tightness is present, the accompanying **shortness of breath, wheezing, and flushing** are not typical features of Prinzmetal angina.
*Alveolar rupture*
- **Alveolar rupture** would likely manifest as a **pneumothorax**, characterized by sudden severe dyspnea and often unilateral absent or decreased breath sounds, which is not fully consistent with the **bilateral wheezing** and decreased breath sounds described.
- While decreased breath sounds can occur, the presence of **bilateral wheezing** and overall clinical picture points away from primary alveolar rupture.
*Bradykinin-induced bronchial irritation*
- **Bradykinin-induced effects**, such as angioedema or cough, can occur with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, but the onset of these symptoms typically doesn't directly follow NSAID administration in this acute manner with severe bronchospasm and flushing.
- Although the patient is on lisinopril, bradykinin-mediated bronchoconstriction alone is less likely to cause this acute, severe constellation of symptoms following NSAID administration in a patient with a history of aspirin sensitivity and asthma.
*Excessive beta-adrenergic blockade*
- While the patient is on **metoprolol**, an excessive beta-adrenergic blockade itself would likely exacerbate asthma symptoms but wouldn't directly cause a sudden, severe reaction leading to flushing and bronchospasm like a pseudoallergic reaction triggered by ketorolac.
- Although beta-blockers can worsen asthma, the acute onset and specific constellation of symptoms, especially with the history of aspirin sensitivity and NSAID use, make **pseudoallergy** a more targeted diagnosis.
Question 87: A 43-year-old man presents with a severe, throbbing, left-sided headache for the last 2 hours. He says that the pain has been progressively worsening and is aggravated by movement. The patient says he has had similar episodes in the past and would take acetaminophen and ‘sleep it off’. He also complains that the light in the room is intolerably bright, and he is starting to feel nauseous. No significant past medical history and no current medications. Vital signs include: pulse 110/min, respiratory rate 15/min, and blood pressure 136/86 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals mild conjunctival injection in the left eye. Intraocular pressure (IOP) is normal. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. The patient is given a medication which relieves his symptoms. During discharge, he wants more of this medication to prevent episodes in future but he is told that the medication is only effective in terminating acute attacks but not for prevention. Which of the following receptors does the drug given to this patient bind to?
A. Muscarinic receptors
B. Angiotensin II receptors
C. β-adrenergic receptors
D. 5-hydroxytryptamine type 2 (5-HT2) receptors
E. 5-hydroxytryptamine type 1 (5-HT1) receptors (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***5-hydroxytryptamine type 1 (5-HT1) receptors***
- The patient's symptoms (unilateral, throbbing headache, phonophobia, photophobia, nausea) are characteristic of a **migraine attack**. The reference to a medication that terminates acute attacks but isn't for prevention points to **triptans**.
- **Triptans** (e.g., sumatriptan) are selective agonists that bind to **5-HT1B** and **5-HT1D receptors**. This binding causes **vasoconstriction of intracranial blood vessels** and inhibition of neuropeptide release, interrupting the migraine pathway.
*Muscarinic receptors*
- **Muscarinic receptors** are part of the **cholinergic system** and are involved in parasympathetic functions.
- Drugs acting on muscarinic receptors (e.g., atropine, pilocarpine) are not used for acute migraine treatment.
*Angiotensin II receptors*
- **Angiotensin II receptors** are involved in blood pressure regulation and fluid balance, primarily targeted by **ARBs (Angiotensin Receptor Blockers)** for hypertension and heart failure.
- These drugs do not have a direct role in the acute termination of migraine headaches.
*β-adrenergic receptors*
- **Beta-blockers** (antagonists of β-adrenergic receptors) like propranolol are commonly used for **migraine prophylaxis (prevention)**, not for acute treatment.
- Beta-agonists are not used for migraine management.
*5-hydroxytryptamine type 2 (5-HT2) receptors*
- Antagonists of **5-HT2 receptors** (e.g., cyproheptadine, methysergide) have historically been used for **migraine prophylaxis**, but not for acute termination.
- Agonists of 5-HT2 receptors are generally not indicated for migraine treatment and can even trigger headaches in some cases.
Question 88: A 22-year-old man presents with a painful right arm. He says the pain started several hours ago after he fell on his right shoulder while playing college football. He says that he felt a stinging sensation running down his right arm when he fell. On physical examination, there is a reduced range of motion of the right arm. Plain radiographs of the right shoulder confirm the presence of a shoulder dislocation. A detailed examination yields no evidence of neurovascular problems, and a decision is made to reduce the shoulder using ketamine. Which of the following side effects will be most likely seen in this patient after administering ketamine?
A. Renal failure
B. Increased appetite
C. Diplopia (Correct Answer)
D. Cough
E. Fever
Explanation: ***Diplopia***
- **Ketamine** can cause **ophthalmological side effects** such as **diplopia**, nystagmus, and blurred vision due to its dissociative effects on the central nervous system.
- These visual disturbances are typically transient and resolve as the drug wears off.
*Renal failure*
- **Ketamine** is not known to directly cause acute **renal failure** as a common or immediate side effect.
- While chronic, high-dose ketamine abuse has been linked to **ketamine-induced cystitis** and upper urinary tract damage, this is distinct from acute renal failure.
*Increased appetite*
- **Ketamine** typically causes a transient **reduction in appetite** or no significant change during its acute effects, rather than an increase.
- An increase in appetite is not a recognized immediate side effect of ketamine administration.
*Cough*
- **Ketamine** is generally associated with **bronchodilation** and can be beneficial in patients with reactive airway disease, making **cough** less likely.
- It can, however, increase **salivation and secretions**, which in rare cases might lead to coughing if not managed with anticholinergics.
*Fever*
- **Fever** is not a common or expected immediate side effect of **ketamine** administration.
- While some individuals may experience a mild increase in body temperature with certain anesthetics, frank fever is rare and usually points to an underlying infection or other medical condition.
Question 89: A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath for the past 2 hours. He mentions that he had a cough, cold, and fever for the last 3 days and has taken an over-the-counter cold preparation. He is hypertensive and has had coronary artery disease for the last 7 years. His regular medications include aspirin and ramipril. On physical examination, temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 118/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 24/min. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 99%. Pitting edema is present bilaterally over the ankles and pretibial regions, and the peripheral extremities are warm to touch. On auscultation of the lung fields, pulmonary crackles are heard over the lung bases bilaterally. Auscultation of the precordium reveals a third heart sound. On examination of the abdomen, mild tender hepatomegaly is present. The chest radiograph is not suggestive of consolidation. Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for initial management of this patient?
A. Milrinone
B. Digoxin
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Furosemide (Correct Answer)
E. Dobutamine
Explanation: ***Furosemide***
- The patient exhibits classic signs of **acute decompensated heart failure** with fluid overload, including **shortness of breath**, **peripheral edema**, **pulmonary crackles**, **S3 heart sound**, and **tender hepatomegaly**.
- **Furosemide**, a **loop diuretic**, is the initial drug of choice to rapidly reduce fluid overload by increasing renal excretion of sodium and water, thereby decreasing **preload** and alleviating pulmonary and systemic congestion.
*Milrinone*
- **Milrinone** is a **phosphodiesterase inhibitor** with **inotropic** and **vasodilatory** effects, typically reserved for patients with severe heart failure refractory to standard therapy, particularly those with reduced cardiac output.
- Its use in initial management of acute decompensated heart failure with significant congestion is not preferred over diuretics due to potential for hypotension and arrhythmias.
*Digoxin*
- **Digoxin** is a **positive inotrope** that also slows heart rate, primarily used in chronic heart failure with **reduced ejection fraction** or for rate control in **atrial fibrillation**.
- It does not offer the rapid relief of fluid overload needed in this acute presentation and has a narrow therapeutic index.
*Nitroglycerin*
- **Nitroglycerin** is a **vasodilator** that reduces preload and, at higher doses, afterload, primarily used for acute coronary syndromes and acute heart failure with significant hypertension or severe pulmonary congestion.
- While it helps reduce preload, **furosemide** directly addresses the underlying fluid overload more effectively as a first-line agent, especially given the signs of systemic congestion.
*Dobutamine*
- **Dobutamine** is a **beta-1 agonist** with **positive inotropic** effects, used in acute heart failure when there is evidence of **hypoperfusion** (cardiogenic shock) despite adequate fluid status.
- This patient presents with signs of fluid overload and preserved blood pressure, not hypoperfusion, making dobutamine an inappropriate initial choice.
Question 90: Twelve hours after undergoing a right hip revision surgery for infected prosthesis, a 74-year-old man has numbness in his fingertips and around the lips. His surgery was complicated by severe blood loss. He underwent a total right hip replacement 2 years ago. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His father had hypoparathyroidism. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. His current medications include metformin and captopril. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 110/72 mm Hg. Examination shows an adducted thumb, flexed metacarpophalangeal joints and wrists, and extended fingers. Tapping the cheeks 2 cm ventral to the ear lobes leads to contraction of the facial muscles. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Multiple blood transfusions (Correct Answer)
B. Cerebrovascular event
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Peripheral nerve injury
Explanation: ***Multiple blood transfusions***
- This patient's symptoms, including **perioral numbness**, **fingertip numbness**, and **carpal spasm** (**Trousseau's sign**), along with a positive **Chvostek's sign** (facial muscle contraction upon tapping the facial nerve), are classic signs of **hypocalcemia**.
- In the context of severe blood loss and subsequent **multiple blood transfusions**, the most likely cause of hypocalcemia is **citrate toxicity**. Citrate, an anticoagulant used in stored blood, chelates calcium in the patient's blood, leading to decreased ionized calcium levels.
*Cerebrovascular event*
- While a cerebrovascular event can cause neurological deficits, the patient's symptoms are characteristic of a **diffuse neuromuscular irritability**, rather than focal neurological signs typically seen in stroke.
- The **symmetrical nature** of numbness (fingertips, around lips) and the specific signs of Trousseau's and Chvostek's are not typical presentations of a stroke.
*Hypoparathyroidism*
- Although the patient's father had hypoparathyroidism, this patient has not displayed symptoms until now, after a significant surgical event.
- **Primary hypoparathyroidism** is a chronic condition and would likely have presented earlier in life, or at least not acutely in direct response to a surgery requiring transfusions.
*Vitamin B12 deficiency*
- **Vitamin B12 deficiency** can cause neurological symptoms, including paresthesias and numbness, particularly in the extremities, but typically has a more **gradual onset** and is associated with **megaloblastic anemia** and sometimes **subacute combined degeneration** of the spinal cord.
- It does not explain the acute onset of carpal spasm (Trousseau's sign) or Chvostek's sign, which are specific for hypocalcemia.
*Peripheral nerve injury*
- A **peripheral nerve injury** would typically present with symptoms in the distribution of the affected nerve.
- The **generalized numbness** affecting fingertips and perioral region, along with the specific signs of Trousseau's and Chvostek's, are inconsistent with a single peripheral nerve injury but are rather indicative of a **systemic metabolic derangement**.