A 35-year-old male is picked up by paramedics presenting with respiratory depression, pupillary constriction, and seizures. Within a few minutes, the male dies. On autopsy, fresh tracks marks are seen on both arms. Administration of which of the following medications would have been appropriate for this patient?
Q852
An otherwise healthy 49-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for follow-up for a high HbA1C. 3 months ago, his HbA1c was 8.9% on routine screening. Today, after lifestyle modifications, it is 8.1% and his serum glucose is 270 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best initial therapy for this patient's condition?
Q853
A 43-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital for anticoagulation following a pulmonary embolism. She was found to have a deep venous thrombosis on further workup after a long plane ride coming back from visiting China. She denies any personal history of blood clots in her past, but she says that her mother has also had to be treated for pulmonary embolism in the recent past. Her past medical history is significant for preeclampsia, hypertension, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hypercholesterolemia. She currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and she currently denies any illicit drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 111/min, and respiratory rate 23/min. On physical examination, her pulses are bounding and complexion is pale, but breath sounds remain clear. Oxygen saturation was initially 81% on room air, with a new oxygen requirement of 8 L by face mask. On day 6 of combined heparin and warfarin anticoagulation, her platelet count decreases from 182,000/mcL to 63,000/mcL. Her international normalized ratio (INR) is not yet therapeutic. What is the next best step in therapy?
Q854
A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of intermittent palpitations that occur when he is stressed, exercising, or when he drinks alcohol. Physical examination shows an irregularly irregular pulse. An ECG shows irregular QRS complexes without any discrete P waves. Pharmacotherapy with carvedilol is initiated for his condition. Compared to treatment with propranolol, which of the following adverse effects is most likely?
Q855
A 50-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. She is awake but slow to respond. Her breath smells of alcohol. The emergency medical technician reports that her blood pressure has been dropping despite intravenous fluids. Ultrasound reveals a hypoechoic rim around the spleen, suspicious for a splenic laceration. The patient is brought into the operating room for abdominal exploration and a splenic embolization is performed. Since arriving to the hospital, the patient has received 8 units of packed red blood cells and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma. She is stabilized and admitted for observation. The next morning on rounds, the patient complains of numbness and tingling of her mouth and cramping of her hands. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 110/69 mmHg, and pulse is 93/min. On physical examination, her abdomen is mildly tender without distention. The surgical wound is clean, dry, and intact. Jugular venous pressure is normal. Periodic spasms of the muscles of her bilateral upper and lower extremities can be seen and tapping of the facial nerve elicits twitching of he facial muscles. Which of the following is most likely to improve the patient’s symptoms?
Q856
A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of abdominal pain, a runny nose, and chills for 6 hours. He has also had diarrhea and difficulty sleeping. He appears irritable. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Examination shows cool, damp skin with piloerection. The pupils are 7 mm in diameter and equal in size. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is tender to palpation. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally. Withdrawal from which of the following substances is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q857
A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 40 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. Her first pregnancy and delivery were complicated by iron deficiency anemia and pregnancy-induced hypertension. She has had no routine prenatal care during this pregnancy but was diagnosed with oligohydramnios 4 weeks ago. The remainder of her medical history is not immediately available. A 2400-g (5.4-lb) female newborn is delivered vaginally. Examination of the newborn shows a short, mildly webbed neck and low-set ears. Ocular hypertelorism along with slanted palpebral fissures are noted. A cleft palate and hypoplasia of the nails and distal phalanges are present. There is increased coarse hair on the body and face. Which of the following best explains the clinical findings found in this newborn?
Q858
A 17-year-old female is brought to the emergency room by her parents shortly after a suicide attempt by aspirin overdose. Which of the following acid/base changes will occur FIRST in this patient?
Q859
A 35-year-old woman presents to her physician with a complaint of pain and stiffness in her hands. She says that the pain began 6 weeks ago a few days after she had gotten over a minor upper respiratory infection. She admits that the pain is worse in the morning, and she occasionally notes subjective fever but has not taken her temperature. She also admits that her appetite has mildly decreased, but she denies any change in weight. The pain is partially alleviated by ibuprofen, but she has been unsatisfied with the results. She is concerned about her condition as it makes caring for her two young children very difficult. Temperature is 99.4°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 119/73 mmHg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination demonstrates swelling and tenderness over the wrists and metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. Bilateral radiographs of the hands demonstrate mild periarticular osteopenia around the left fifth metacarpophalangeal joint. Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient's acute symptoms?
Q860
A 19-year-old man with a history of generalized tonic-clonic seizures comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He is a known user of intravenous cocaine. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows multiple hyperpigmented lines along the forearms. Oral examination shows marked overgrowth of friable, ulcerated gingival mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's oral examination findings?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 851: A 35-year-old male is picked up by paramedics presenting with respiratory depression, pupillary constriction, and seizures. Within a few minutes, the male dies. On autopsy, fresh tracks marks are seen on both arms. Administration of which of the following medications would have been appropriate for this patient?
A. Methadone
B. Flumazenil
C. Bupropion
D. Naloxone (Correct Answer)
E. Diazepam
Explanation: ***Naloxone***
- The patient's presentation with **respiratory depression**, **pupillary constriction**, and **fresh track marks** is highly indicative of an **opioid overdose**.
- **Naloxone** is a potent **opioid receptor antagonist** that rapidly reverses the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression.
*Methadone*
- **Methadone** is a **long-acting opioid agonist** used for pain management and **opioid dependence treatment**.
- Administering methadone would worsen an opioid overdose by increasing the opioid effect, potentially deepening respiratory depression.
*Flumazenil*
- **Flumazenil** is an **antidote for benzodiazepine overdose**, acting as a competitive antagonist at the GABA-A receptor.
- It would not be effective in reversing an opioid overdose, as the patient's symptoms are not consistent with benzodiazepine intoxication.
*Bupropion*
- **Bupropion** is an **antidepressant** and **smoking cessation aid** that works by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine.
- It has no role in the acute management of opioid overdose and would not address the life-threatening respiratory depression.
*Diazepam*
- **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** that has sedative, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant properties.
- While it could address seizures, it would exacerbate the underlying respiratory depression in an opioid overdose.
Question 852: An otherwise healthy 49-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for follow-up for a high HbA1C. 3 months ago, his HbA1c was 8.9% on routine screening. Today, after lifestyle modifications, it is 8.1% and his serum glucose is 270 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best initial therapy for this patient's condition?
A. Metformin added to a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonist
B. Metformin added to basal insulin
C. Metformin added to an insulin secretagogue
D. Metformin (Correct Answer)
E. Metformin added to a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor
Explanation: ***Metformin***
- **Metformin** is the recommended **first-line pharmacological therapy** for most patients with **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus**, especially those who are overweight or obese.
- It primarily works by **decreasing hepatic glucose production** and increasing insulin sensitivity.
*Metformin added to a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonist*
- While **GLP-1 agonists** are effective, they are typically considered **second-line agents** or added therapy, especially for patients with established **cardiovascular disease** or **chronic kidney disease**, or for more aggressive glycemic control not achieved with metformin alone.
- The patient's current HbA1c, while high, does not immediately warrant dual therapy without an initial trial of metformin monotherapy.
*Metformin added to basal insulin*
- **Basal insulin** is usually reserved for patients with very high HbA1c levels (typically >10%), significant symptoms of hyperglycemia, or failure to achieve glycemic targets with multiple oral agents.
- Starting with **insulin** as initial therapy alongside metformin is generally too aggressive given the patient's current HbA1c of 8.1% after some improvement with lifestyle modifications.
*Metformin added to an insulin secretagogue*
- **Insulin secretagogues** (e.g., sulfonylureas) are usually **second-line agents** and stimulate insulin release from pancreatic beta cells.
- While effective, they carry a **higher risk of hypoglycemia** and weight gain compared to metformin, making them less ideal for initial therapy.
*Metformin added to a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor*
- **DPP-4 inhibitors** are also considered **second-line agents** when metformin alone is insufficient or not tolerated.
- They improve glycemic control with a low risk of hypoglycemia and are weight-neutral, but **metformin monotherapy** remains the preferred initial step.
Question 853: A 43-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital for anticoagulation following a pulmonary embolism. She was found to have a deep venous thrombosis on further workup after a long plane ride coming back from visiting China. She denies any personal history of blood clots in her past, but she says that her mother has also had to be treated for pulmonary embolism in the recent past. Her past medical history is significant for preeclampsia, hypertension, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hypercholesterolemia. She currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and she currently denies any illicit drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 111/min, and respiratory rate 23/min. On physical examination, her pulses are bounding and complexion is pale, but breath sounds remain clear. Oxygen saturation was initially 81% on room air, with a new oxygen requirement of 8 L by face mask. On day 6 of combined heparin and warfarin anticoagulation, her platelet count decreases from 182,000/mcL to 63,000/mcL. Her international normalized ratio (INR) is not yet therapeutic. What is the next best step in therapy?
A. Continue heparin and warfarin until INR is therapeutic for 24 hours
B. Discontinue heparin and warfarin (Correct Answer)
C. Continue heparin and warfarin, and administer vitamin K
D. Discontinue heparin; continue warfarin
E. Continue heparin; discontinue warfarin
Explanation: ***Discontinue heparin and warfarin***
- The significant drop in platelet count (from 182,000 to 63,000/mcL) on day 6 of heparin therapy strongly suggests **heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)**, an immune-mediated adverse drug reaction.
- **Immediate management requires:** (1) discontinuation of ALL heparin products, and (2) initiation of an alternative non-heparin anticoagulant such as a direct thrombin inhibitor (argatroban, bivalirudin) or fondaparinux.
- Warfarin must NOT be continued as monotherapy in HIT because it causes transient **hypercoagulability** due to depletion of protein C and S before depleting clotting factors, which can worsen thrombotic complications.
- **Among the options provided**, discontinuing both heparin and warfarin is the correct first step, with the understanding that alternative anticoagulation would be initiated immediately in practice.
*Continue heparin and warfarin until INR is therapeutic for 24 hours*
- Continuing heparin would be dangerous given the suspected **HIT**, as it could lead to further platelet activation, worsening thrombocytopenia, and an increased risk of **paradoxical thrombosis**.
- While achieving therapeutic anticoagulation is important for PE/DVT, the priority is managing the acute, life-threatening complication of HIT.
*Continue heparin and warfarin, and administer vitamin K*
- Administering vitamin K would reverse warfarin effects, which is contraindicated in a patient requiring anticoagulation for PE and DVT unless there is active bleeding or supratherapeutic INR.
- Continuing heparin in the setting of suspected **HIT** is contraindicated and would exacerbate the prothrombotic state.
*Discontinue heparin; continue warfarin*
- While discontinuing heparin is correct in suspected **HIT**, continuing warfarin alone is **dangerous** and contraindicated.
- Warfarin monotherapy in acute HIT causes transient **hypercoagulability** due to rapid depletion of protein C and S (shorter half-lives) before depletion of clotting factors II, IX, and X, leading to increased thrombotic risk including **warfarin-induced venous limb gangrene**.
- An **alternative non-heparin anticoagulant** (direct thrombin inhibitor or fondaparinux) must be initiated before warfarin can be safely restarted.
*Continue heparin; discontinue warfarin*
- Continuing heparin in the presence of a rapid and significant drop in platelet count is **contraindicated** due to the high suspicion of **HIT**.
- Discontinuing warfarin alone would leave the patient exposed to continued HIT complications while still receiving the offending agent (heparin).
Question 854: A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of intermittent palpitations that occur when he is stressed, exercising, or when he drinks alcohol. Physical examination shows an irregularly irregular pulse. An ECG shows irregular QRS complexes without any discrete P waves. Pharmacotherapy with carvedilol is initiated for his condition. Compared to treatment with propranolol, which of the following adverse effects is most likely?
A. Bradycardia
B. Bronchospasm
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypotension (Correct Answer)
E. Hyperglycemia
Explanation: ***Hypotension***
- **Carvedilol** is a non-selective beta-blocker with additional **alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocking activity**, which leads to peripheral vasodilation and a greater potential for **hypotension** compared to propranolol (a pure beta-blocker).
- The **alpha-1 blockade** causes a reduction in peripheral vascular resistance, leading to a more pronounced decrease in blood pressure.
*Bradycardia*
- Both carvedilol and propranolol are beta-blockers and can cause **bradycardia** by reducing heart rate.
- However, the question asks for an adverse effect **more likely** with carvedilol compared to propranolol, and while both can cause bradycardia, carvedilol's additional alpha-blocking activity makes hypotension more distinguishing.
*Bronchospasm*
- Both carvedilol and propranolol are **non-selective beta-blockers** (blocking both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors) and can cause **bronchospasm** by blocking beta-2 receptors in the bronchi.
- Therefore, this adverse effect is common to both and not more likely with carvedilol specifically in comparison to propranolol.
*Hyperkalemia*
- Neither carvedilol nor propranolol is directly associated with causing **hyperkalemia** as a primary adverse effect.
- Beta-blockers can sometimes lead to minor shifts in potassium, but it's not a common or more significant side effect compared to others listed.
*Hyperglycemia*
- **Non-selective beta-blockers** like propranolol can impair the recovery from **hypoglycemia** and mask its symptoms.
- While beta-blockers can have some metabolic effects, **hyperglycemia** is not a generally recognized or more prominent adverse effect of carvedilol compared to propranolol.
Question 855: A 50-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. She is awake but slow to respond. Her breath smells of alcohol. The emergency medical technician reports that her blood pressure has been dropping despite intravenous fluids. Ultrasound reveals a hypoechoic rim around the spleen, suspicious for a splenic laceration. The patient is brought into the operating room for abdominal exploration and a splenic embolization is performed. Since arriving to the hospital, the patient has received 8 units of packed red blood cells and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma. She is stabilized and admitted for observation. The next morning on rounds, the patient complains of numbness and tingling of her mouth and cramping of her hands. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 110/69 mmHg, and pulse is 93/min. On physical examination, her abdomen is mildly tender without distention. The surgical wound is clean, dry, and intact. Jugular venous pressure is normal. Periodic spasms of the muscles of her bilateral upper and lower extremities can be seen and tapping of the facial nerve elicits twitching of he facial muscles. Which of the following is most likely to improve the patient’s symptoms?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Lorazepam
C. Calcium gluconate (Correct Answer)
D. Dextrose
E. Thiamine
Explanation: ***Calcium gluconate***
- The patient's symptoms of perioral numbness, tingling, hand cramping, muscle spasms, and a positive **Chvostek's sign** (tapping of the facial nerve eliciting twitching) are classic signs of **hypocalcemia**.
- Her extensive transfusion history (8 units PRBCs, 2 units FFP) likely led to **citrate toxicity**, as citrate in transfused blood products chelates calcium, causing a transient decrease in **ionized calcium** levels.
*Sodium bicarbonate*
- While a massive transfusion can sometimes lead to transient acidosis, **sodium bicarbonate** would not address the underlying **hypocalcemia** causing the current symptoms.
- Furthermore, **alkalosis** can worsen **hypocalcemia** by increasing protein binding of calcium.
*Lorazepam*
- **Lorazepam** is a benzodiazepine used to treat seizures or severe muscle spasms, but it would only mask the symptoms without addressing the underlying cause of **hypocalcemia**.
- The muscle spasms are a direct result of **neuromuscular excitability** due to low calcium.
*Dextrose*
- **Dextrose** is used to treat hypoglycemia, which is not indicated by the patient's symptoms or clinical context.
- There is no information suggesting the patient has low blood sugar.
*Thiamine*
- **Thiamine** is crucial for preventing Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, especially in patients with chronic alcohol use, but it does not treat **hypocalcemia** or its associated symptoms.
- While the patient's breath smelled of alcohol, her acute symptoms are directly related to electrolyte imbalance.
Question 856: A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of abdominal pain, a runny nose, and chills for 6 hours. He has also had diarrhea and difficulty sleeping. He appears irritable. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Examination shows cool, damp skin with piloerection. The pupils are 7 mm in diameter and equal in size. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is tender to palpation. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally. Withdrawal from which of the following substances is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Barbiturates
B. Phencyclidine
C. Cannabis
D. Heroin (Correct Answer)
E. Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid
Explanation: ***Heroin***
- The patient's symptoms, including **piloerection** (goosebumps), **rhinorrhea** (runny nose), diaphoresis (cool, damp skin), diarrhea, dilated pupils, and hyperactive reflexes, are classic signs of **opioid withdrawal**.
- **Opioid withdrawal** is characterized by an overactivity of the autonomic nervous system and presents with symptoms often described as a severe flu-like illness, along with intense drug cravings.
*Barbiturates*
- **Barbiturate withdrawal** can cause anxiety, tremors, insomnia, and sometimes seizures or delirium, but it typically does not present with the specific features of piloerection or hyperactive bowel sounds seen here.
- The pupils are often constricted or normal, and gastrointestinal symptoms are less prominent compared to opioid withdrawal.
*Phencyclidine*
- **Phencyclidine (PCP) withdrawal** is not a clearly defined or severe syndrome; chronic users typically experience cravings, depression, and memory problems.
- Acute PCP intoxication is characterized by nystagmus, hypertension, tachycardia, and often violent behavior, which are not present in this patient's withdrawal picture.
*Cannabis*
- **Cannabis withdrawal** symptoms are generally mild and include irritability, anxiety, sleep disturbances, decreased appetite, and some physical discomfort, but do not involve the pronounced autonomic hyperactivity, piloerection, or severe gastrointestinal symptoms seen in this patient.
- Unlike opioid withdrawal, it does not typically cause significantly dilated pupils or hyperactive bowel sounds.
*Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid*
- **GHB withdrawal** can manifest as anxiety, insomnia, tremors, and severe cases can involve delirium and seizures, similar to alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal.
- It does not typically present with the specific constellation of symptoms like piloerection, rhinorrhea, and severe gastrointestinal distress that are characteristic of opioid withdrawal.
Question 857: A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 40 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. Her first pregnancy and delivery were complicated by iron deficiency anemia and pregnancy-induced hypertension. She has had no routine prenatal care during this pregnancy but was diagnosed with oligohydramnios 4 weeks ago. The remainder of her medical history is not immediately available. A 2400-g (5.4-lb) female newborn is delivered vaginally. Examination of the newborn shows a short, mildly webbed neck and low-set ears. Ocular hypertelorism along with slanted palpebral fissures are noted. A cleft palate and hypoplasia of the nails and distal phalanges are present. There is increased coarse hair on the body and face. Which of the following best explains the clinical findings found in this newborn?
A. Maternal phenytoin therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Fetal X chromosome monosomy
C. Fetal posterior urethral valves
D. Maternal diabetes mellitus
E. Maternal alcohol intake
Explanation: ***Maternal phenytoin therapy***
- The constellation of **craniofacial anomalies** (short, webbed neck, low-set ears, ocular hypertelorism, slanted palpebral fissures, cleft palate), **nail hypoplasia**, and **hirsutism** are characteristic features of **fetal hydantoin syndrome**, caused by **phenytoin exposure** in utero.
- Oligohydramnios can be associated with complications of antiepileptic drug use, such as **renal dysfunction**, further supporting this diagnosis.
*Fetal X chromosome monosomy*
- This condition, also known as **Turner syndrome**, is characterized by a **short webbed neck** and **low-set ears**, but typically presents with **gonadal dysgenesis**, **coarctation of the aorta**, and **lymphedema**, which are not mentioned.
- **Nail hypoplasia** and **hirsutism** are not typical features of Turner syndrome.
*Fetal posterior urethral valves*
- **Posterior urethral valves** cause **urinary tract obstruction** in male fetuses, leading to **oligohydramnios**, **pulmonary hypoplasia**, and characteristic facial features (Potter facies) due to decreased amniotic fluid pressure.
- The patient is female, and the specific facial anomalies and nail/hair findings are not consistent with **Potter sequence** but rather with a teratogenic exposure syndrome.
*Maternal diabetes mellitus*
- **Maternal diabetes** can cause a range of fetal complications, including **macrosomia**, **cardiac defects**, and **caudal regression syndrome**.
- While it can be associated with increased risk of certain birth defects and occasionally oligohydramnios, the specific combination of **craniofacial features**, **nail hypoplasia**, and **hirsutism** seen here is not characteristic of diabetic embryopathy.
*Maternal alcohol intake*
- **Maternal alcohol intake** leads to **fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)**, characterized by **growth restriction**, **facial anomalies** (smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, short palpebral fissures), and **CNS dysfunction**.
- While some facial features might overlap, **nail hypoplasia** and **hirsutism** as described are not typical of FAS.
Question 858: A 17-year-old female is brought to the emergency room by her parents shortly after a suicide attempt by aspirin overdose. Which of the following acid/base changes will occur FIRST in this patient?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Anion gap metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis (Correct Answer)
E. Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation: ***Respiratory alkalosis***
- **Aspirin overdose** initially causes direct stimulation of the **respiratory center in the medulla**, leading to **hyperventilation**.
- This increased rate and depth of breathing blows off CO2, resulting in a primary **respiratory alkalosis**.
*Metabolic alkalosis*
- This is an unlikely primary event in aspirin overdose, which typically causes acidosis.
- While aspirin can cause electrolyte disturbances, a direct metabolic alkalosis as the *first* change is not characteristic.
*Respiratory acidosis*
- Respiratory depression, leading to respiratory acidosis, can occur in *severe* and *late-stage* aspirin overdose due to central nervous system depression.
- However, the initial effect is stimulation of respiration, causing alkalosis.
*Anion gap metabolic acidosis*
- This is a significant acid-base disturbance that *does* occur in aspirin overdose, but it develops *later*.
- Salicylates uncouple oxidative phosphorylation and impair cellular metabolism, leading to the accumulation of organic acids (e.g., lactic acid), causing a high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
*Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis*
- This type of acidosis is characterized by a preservation of the anion gap and is often associated with conditions like diarrhea or renal tubular acidosis.
- It is not the expected initial or primary acid-base disturbance in aspirin overdose.
Question 859: A 35-year-old woman presents to her physician with a complaint of pain and stiffness in her hands. She says that the pain began 6 weeks ago a few days after she had gotten over a minor upper respiratory infection. She admits that the pain is worse in the morning, and she occasionally notes subjective fever but has not taken her temperature. She also admits that her appetite has mildly decreased, but she denies any change in weight. The pain is partially alleviated by ibuprofen, but she has been unsatisfied with the results. She is concerned about her condition as it makes caring for her two young children very difficult. Temperature is 99.4°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 119/73 mmHg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination demonstrates swelling and tenderness over the wrists and metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. Bilateral radiographs of the hands demonstrate mild periarticular osteopenia around the left fifth metacarpophalangeal joint. Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient's acute symptoms?
A. Etanercept
B. Prednisone (Correct Answer)
C. Reassurance
D. Anakinra
E. Methotrexate
Explanation: **Prednisone**
- Given her **acute, debilitating symptoms** impacting daily life (caring for children), **oral glucocorticoids** like prednisone are appropriate for rapid symptom control while awaiting the effects of disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
- She presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **rheumatoid arthritis**, including bilateral symmetrical polyarthritis, morning stiffness, and constitutional symptoms, making rapid inflammation control crucial.
*Etanercept*
- **Etanercept** is a biologic DMARD, typically reserved for patients who have not adequately responded to conventional DMARDs like methotrexate.
- It is a **TNF-alpha inhibitor** and takes several weeks to exert its full therapeutic effect, making it unsuitable for acute symptom management alone.
*Reassurance*
- Her symptoms are significantly impacting her quality of life and are likely indicative of an **inflammatory arthropathy**, not something that can be resolved with simple reassurance.
- The physical exam and radiographic findings (periarticular osteopenia) further support a **pathological process** requiring intervention.
*Anakinra*
- **Anakinra** is an IL-1 receptor antagonist, primarily used for conditions like still's disease and cryopyrin-associated periodic syndromes, not typically as a first-line agent for acute symptom control in suspected rheumatoid arthritis.
- While it can act relatively quickly, **glucocorticoids are more commonly used** for rapid bridging therapy in this context.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is a cornerstone DMARD for rheumatoid arthritis, but its **onset of action is slow** (weeks to months), making it ineffective for immediate relief of acute, severe symptoms.
- It would likely be initiated concurrently, but it is not the best step for managing her acute pain and stiffness.
Question 860: A 19-year-old man with a history of generalized tonic-clonic seizures comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He is a known user of intravenous cocaine. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows multiple hyperpigmented lines along the forearms. Oral examination shows marked overgrowth of friable, ulcerated gingival mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's oral examination findings?
A. Cyclosporine
B. Lacosamide
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenytoin (Correct Answer)
E. Lamotrigine
Explanation: ***Phenytoin***
- **Phenytoin** is a common cause of **gingival hyperplasia**, presenting with marked overgrowth of friable, ulcerated gingival mucosa due to its effect on fibroblast proliferation and collagen production.
- This medication is frequently used to manage **tonic-clonic seizures**, consistent with the patient's history.
*Cyclosporine*
- While **cyclosporine** can cause **gingival hyperplasia**, it is an **immunosuppressant** primarily used in organ transplantation or autoimmune conditions, which is not indicated in the patient's seizure history.
- The patient's presentation does not suggest any condition for which cyclosporine would be prescribed.
*Lacosamide*
- **Lacosamide** is an anticonvulsant that stabilizes hyperexcitable neuronal membranes, but it is **not typically associated with gingival hyperplasia**.
- Its known side effects are primarily neurological, such as dizziness, headache, and nausea.
*Carbamazepine*
- **Carbamazepine** is an anticonvulsant effective for focal and tonic-clonic seizures, but **gingival hyperplasia is a rare side effect** with this medication.
- More common side effects include dizziness, drowsiness, and bone marrow suppression.
*Lamotrigine*
- **Lamotrigine** is an anticonvulsant used for various seizure types, but **gingival hyperplasia is not a recognized side effect**.
- It is more commonly associated with skin rashes, including severe reactions like **Stevens-Johnson syndrome**.