A 17-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her friends who were at a party with her and found her unconscious in the bathroom. They admit that alcohol was present at the party. The patient's blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg, pulse is 40/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). On physical examination, she is unresponsive to verbal commands but does respond to noxious stimuli. Her pupils are pinpoint and her mucous membranes are moist. Her heart is bradycardic without murmurs, and her respiratory rate is slowed but clear to auscultation. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Q822
A 32-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for recent onset headaches, weight loss, and restlessness. Her symptoms started yesterday, and since then she has felt sweaty and generally uncomfortable. The patient's past medical history is unremarkable except for a recent viral respiratory infection which resolved on its own. The patient is not currently on any medications. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you see a sweaty and uncomfortable woman who has a rapid pulse. The patient demonstrates no abnormalities on HEENT exam. The patient's laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 195,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
TSH: .03 mIU/L
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
The patient is prescribed propranolol and propylthiouracil. She returns 1 week later complaining of severe fatigue. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 195,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
TSH: 6.0 mIU/L
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q823
A 53-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and obesity presents to you in clinic for a yearly physical. His current medication regimen includes a beta blocker, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor, and a statin. You review his recent lab work and note that despite being on a maximum statin dose, his LDL cholesterol remains elevated. You decide to prescribe another medication to improve his lipid profile. The additional medication prescribed was niacin (nicotinic acid). One month later, you receive a telephone call from your patient; he complains of turning bright red and feeling "scorching hot" every time he takes his medications. You decide to prescribe which of the following medications to alleviate his symptoms:
Q824
A 67-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressive burning pain and intermittent "electrical shocks" in his right chest for 3 months. Over the last 2 weeks, the pain has increased to an extent that he can no longer tolerate clothing on the affected area. Three months ago, he had a rash around his right nipple and axilla that resolved a week later. The patient had a myocardial infarction 2 years ago. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 47 years. Current medications include aspirin, simvastatin, metoprolol, and ramipril. His temperature is 36.9°C (97.9°F), pulse is 92/min, and blood pressure is 150/95 mm Hg. Examination shows increased sensation to light touch over the right chest. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q825
A 13-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her father because of a worsening pruritic rash for 2 days. Five weeks ago, she was diagnosed with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and treatment with lamotrigine was begun. Her immunizations are up-to-date. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F). Physical examination shows facial edema and a partially confluent morbilliform rash over the face, trunk, and extremities. There is swelling of the cervical and inguinal lymph nodes and hepatomegaly. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
Q826
A 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and obesity is transferred from the cardiac catheterization lab to the cardiac critical care unit after sustaining a massive myocardial infarction. He received a bare metal stent and has now stabilized. However, shortly after being transferred, he reports palpitations. EKG reveals ventricular tachycardia. Your attending wishes to start an anti-arrhythmic drug with a high selectivity for ischemic cardiac myocytes. You call the nurse and ask her to begin intravenous:
Q827
A 38-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease presents with a 3-week history of weight gain. The patient also presents with a 1-month history of abdominal pain, cramping, and bloody diarrhea consistent with worsening of her inflammatory bowel disease. Past medical history is significant for Crohn’s disease diagnosed 2 years ago for which she currently takes an oral medication daily and intermittently receives intravenous medication she cannot recall the name of. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 120/90 mm Hg, pulse is 68/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical examination reveals significant truncal weight gain. The patient has excessive facial hair in addition to purplish striae on her abdomen. Which of the following laboratory findings would most likely be found in this patient?
Q828
A 34-year-old business executive presents to her primary care provider because of difficulty falling asleep on her trips. She makes 4–5 business trips from California to China every month. Her typical direct Los Angeles to Hong Kong flight leaves Los Angeles at 12:30 a.m. and reaches Hong Kong at 7:00 p.m. (local time) the next day. She complains of difficulty falling asleep at night and feeling sleepy the next morning. On arriving back in Los Angeles 2–3 days later, she feels extremely weak, has muscle soreness, and abdominal distension, all of which self-resolve in a few days. She is otherwise healthy and does not take any medications. Physical examination is unremarkable. After discussing general sleep hygiene recommendations, which of the following is the best next step for this patient’s condition?
Q829
A 72-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic today. He has New York Heart Association class III heart failure. His current medications include captopril 20 mg, furosemide 40 mg, potassium chloride 10 mg twice daily, rosuvastatin 20 mg, and aspirin 81 mg. He reports that he generally feels well and has not had any recent worsening of his symptoms. His blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg and heart rate is 84/min. Physical examination is unremarkable except for trace pitting edema of the bilateral lower extremities. What other medication should be added to his heart failure regimen?
Q830
A 17-year-old man presents to his primary care physician concerned about excessive sleepiness that has persisted his entire life. He notes that he has been having difficulty with his job as a waiter because he often falls asleep suddenly during the day. He also experiences a sensation of dreaming as he goes to sleep even though he still feels awake. He sleeps about 10 hours per day and still feels tired throughout the day. The patient has even reported driving into a tree once as he fell asleep while driving. The patient often stays up late at night working on the computer. Physical exam demonstrates an obese young man who appears tired. His oropharynx demonstrates high palatal ridges and good dental hygiene. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 821: A 17-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her friends who were at a party with her and found her unconscious in the bathroom. They admit that alcohol was present at the party. The patient's blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg, pulse is 40/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). On physical examination, she is unresponsive to verbal commands but does respond to noxious stimuli. Her pupils are pinpoint and her mucous membranes are moist. Her heart is bradycardic without murmurs, and her respiratory rate is slowed but clear to auscultation. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Overdose of cocaine
B. Ethylene glycol ingestion
C. Overdose of heroin (Correct Answer)
D. 3,4-methylenedioxy-methamphetamine (MDMA) ingestion
E. Alcohol poisoning
Explanation: ***Overdose of heroin***
- The patient's presentation with **unresponsiveness**, **pinpoint pupils**, **bradycardia**, and **respiratory depression** is highly characteristic of opioid overdose.
- While alcohol was present, the specific constellation of symptoms points more strongly to an opioid, such as heroin, which is a potent **CNS depressant**.
*Overdose of cocaine*
- Cocaine overdose typically causes **sympathomimetic effects** such as **tachycardia**, **hypertension**, **mydriasis (dilated pupils)**, and agitation, which are absent here.
- The patient's bradycardia, pinpoint pupils, and respiratory depression contradict cocaine intoxication.
*Ethylene glycol ingestion*
- Ethylene glycol poisoning can cause CNS depression but is more commonly associated with **renal failure**, **metabolic acidosis** (with an anion gap), and **calcium oxalate crystalluria**, none of which are suggested by the provided data.
- The immediate clinical picture often includes initial euphoria followed by lethargy, but the combination of pinpoint pupils and severe bradycardia is less specific for ethylene glycol than for opioids.
*3,4-methylenedioxy-methamphetamine (MDMA) ingestion*
- MDMA primarily causes **sympathomimetic effects** including increased heart rate, blood pressure, body temperature, and dilated pupils, along with altered perception and euphoria.
- The patient's **bradycardia** and **pinpoint pupils** are directly opposite to the expected effects of MDMA.
*Alcohol poisoning*
- While alcohol was present and can cause CNS depression, **profound bradycardia** and **pinpoint pupils** are more classic signs of opioid overdose than typical alcohol intoxication.
- Severe alcohol poisoning usually presents with **hypotension**, **hypothermia**, and respiratory depression, but the specific combination of bradycardia and pinpoint pupils strongly points away from alcohol as the sole or primary cause.
Question 822: A 32-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for recent onset headaches, weight loss, and restlessness. Her symptoms started yesterday, and since then she has felt sweaty and generally uncomfortable. The patient's past medical history is unremarkable except for a recent viral respiratory infection which resolved on its own. The patient is not currently on any medications. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you see a sweaty and uncomfortable woman who has a rapid pulse. The patient demonstrates no abnormalities on HEENT exam. The patient's laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 195,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
TSH: .03 mIU/L
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
The patient is prescribed propranolol and propylthiouracil. She returns 1 week later complaining of severe fatigue. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 195,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
TSH: 6.0 mIU/L
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Decrease dose of current medications
B. Discontinue current medications (Correct Answer)
C. Discontinue current medications and add ibuprofen
D. Discontinue medications and add T3
E. Discontinue current medications and add T4
Explanation: ***Discontinue current medications***
- The initial presentation with **low TSH (0.03 mIU/L)** and symptoms of **hyperthyroidism** (headaches, weight loss, restlessness, sweating, rapid pulse) suggests conditions like **thyroiditis** or **Graves' disease**. Given the history of a recent viral respiratory infection, **subacute thyroiditis** is a strong possibility, which is often self-limiting.
- After one week of treatment with **propylthiouracil** (an antithyroid drug) and **propranolol**, the patient's **TSH has risen significantly to 6.0 mIU/L**, indicating a shift from hyperthyroidism towards **hypothyroidism**. This, coupled with severe fatigue, suggests that the initial hyperthyroid phase has resolved (possibly due to thyroiditis resolving or overtreatment) and continued antithyroid medication is now causing hypothyroidism. Therefore, discontinuing the antithyroid medication (propylthiouracil) is the appropriate next step.
*Decrease dose of current medications*
- While a decrease in dose might be considered in some cases of continued hyperthyroidism with mild overtreatment, the **TSH level of 6.0 mIU/L** clearly indicates that the patient is now **hypothyroid**. Simply decreasing the dose of antithyroid medication would likely not fully reverse the hypothyroidism.
- The severe fatigue further points to significant hypothyroidism, meaning the patient needs complete cessation of the suppressive therapy, not just a reduction.
*Discontinue current medications and add ibuprofen*
- Discontinuing the current medications is appropriate given the iatrogenic hypothyroidism. However, adding **ibuprofen** is not indicated solely for fatigue.
- Ibuprofen is an NSAID and would primarily be used for pain or inflammation, neither of which is the primary complaint or underlying issue after the shift to hypothyroidism.
*Discontinue medications and add T3*
- While the patient is now hypothyroid and might eventually need thyroid hormone replacement, adding **T3 (liothyronine)** immediately is not the best first step. **T4 (levothyroxine)** is generally preferred for thyroid replacement due to its longer half-life and more stable blood levels.
- The initial hyperthyroidism was likely transient (e.g., due to subacute thyroiditis), meaning the thyroid gland could recover its function. Discontinuing antithyroid medication and reassessing thyroid function is necessary before initiating replacement therapy.
*Discontinue current medications and add T4*
- Discontinuing the current medications is correct, but immediately adding **T4 (levothyroxine)** may be premature. The rise in TSH suggests the patient is indeed hypothyroid, but it's important to allow the thyroid gland time to recover function after stopping the antithyroid drug, especially if the initial hyperthyroidism was transient (e.g., subacute thyroiditis).
- If symptoms persist and TSH remains elevated after observational period off the medication, then T4 replacement would be considered.
Question 823: A 53-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and obesity presents to you in clinic for a yearly physical. His current medication regimen includes a beta blocker, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor, and a statin. You review his recent lab work and note that despite being on a maximum statin dose, his LDL cholesterol remains elevated. You decide to prescribe another medication to improve his lipid profile. The additional medication prescribed was niacin (nicotinic acid). One month later, you receive a telephone call from your patient; he complains of turning bright red and feeling "scorching hot" every time he takes his medications. You decide to prescribe which of the following medications to alleviate his symptoms:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Coenzyme Q10
D. Aspirin (Correct Answer)
E. Hydroxyzine
Explanation: Aspirin
- **Aspirin** can reduce the **prostaglandin-mediated flushing** associated with niacin by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.
- This symptom is often transient and can be mitigated by taking aspirin 30 minutes before niacin or by gradually increasing the niacin dose.
*Acetaminophen*
- **Acetaminophen** is an analgesic and antipyretic but does not effectively block the **prostaglandin-mediated vasodilation** responsible for niacin flush.
- It would not alleviate the "bright red" and "scorching hot" sensation caused by niacin.
*Diphenhydramine*
- **Diphenhydramine** is an antihistamine primarily used to block histamine receptors, which are not the primary mediators of niacin-induced flushing.
- While it may provide some sedation, it would not directly address the **vasodilatory effects** of niacin.
*Coenzyme Q10*
- **Coenzyme Q10** is sometimes supplemented for **statin-induced myopathy**, but it has no role in preventing or treating niacin-induced flushing [1].
- Its primary function is in cellular energy production, not in modulating prostaglandin pathways [1].
*Hydroxyzine*
- **Hydroxyzine** is an antihistamine with sedative properties, sometimes used for anxiety or pruritus.
- Similar to diphenhydramine, it does not target the **prostaglandin pathway** responsible for niacin flushing and would not be an effective intervention.
Question 824: A 67-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressive burning pain and intermittent "electrical shocks" in his right chest for 3 months. Over the last 2 weeks, the pain has increased to an extent that he can no longer tolerate clothing on the affected area. Three months ago, he had a rash around his right nipple and axilla that resolved a week later. The patient had a myocardial infarction 2 years ago. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 47 years. Current medications include aspirin, simvastatin, metoprolol, and ramipril. His temperature is 36.9°C (97.9°F), pulse is 92/min, and blood pressure is 150/95 mm Hg. Examination shows increased sensation to light touch over the right chest. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Sublingual nitrates
B. Oral famciclovir
C. Intrathecal glucocorticoids
D. Oral tricyclic antidepressants
E. Oral gabapentin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Oral gabapentin***
- The patient's presentation with a history of a unilateral vesicular rash followed by persistent, burning pain, "electrical shocks," and **allodynia** (increased sensation to light touch) in the same dermatomal distribution is highly characteristic of **postherpetic neuralgia (PHN)**.
- **Gabapentin** (and pregabalin) are first-line medications for neuropathic pain conditions like PHN as they modulate calcium channels in the central nervous system, reducing neurotransmitter release.
*Sublingual nitrates*
- Sublingual nitrates are used for immediate relief of **anginal chest pain**, which is typically described as pressure or heaviness, often radiating to the arm or jaw, and relieved by rest or nitrates.
- The described pain is neuropathic (burning, electrical shocks, allodynia) and does not fit the pattern of angina, despite the patient's history of MI.
*Oral famciclovir*
- **Famciclovir** (and acyclovir, valacyclovir) are antiviral medications used to treat acute **herpes zoster (shingles)** to shorten the duration of the rash and reduce the risk of PHN if given within 72 hours of rash onset.
- The patient's rash resolved 3 months ago, meaning the acute viral phase is over, and antiviral therapy at this stage would not be effective for PHN.
*Intrathecal glucocorticoids*
- **Intrathecal glucocorticoids** are rarely used for PHN and are generally reserved for severe, refractory cases as a last resort due to potential side effects and invasiveness.
- They are not a first-line treatment for PHN, especially before trying oral neuropathic pain medications.
*Oral tricyclic antidepressants*
- **Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)** like amitriptyline are effective for neuropathic pain, including PHN, and are considered first-line agents alongside gabapentinoids.
- However, in elderly patients with a history of cardiac disease (MI, hypertension, on metoprolol and ramipril), TCAs carry a higher risk of **cardiac side effects** (e.g., arrhythmias, orthostatic hypotension) and anticholinergic side effects compared to gabapentin.
Question 825: A 13-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her father because of a worsening pruritic rash for 2 days. Five weeks ago, she was diagnosed with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and treatment with lamotrigine was begun. Her immunizations are up-to-date. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F). Physical examination shows facial edema and a partially confluent morbilliform rash over the face, trunk, and extremities. There is swelling of the cervical and inguinal lymph nodes and hepatomegaly. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Anti-measles IgM antibodies
B. Elevated antistreptolysin-O titer
C. Positive heterophile antibody test
D. Increased absolute eosinophil count (Correct Answer)
E. Fragmented red blood cells
Explanation: ***Increased absolute eosinophil count***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, rash, facial edema, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly) developing 5 weeks after starting **lamotrigine** are highly suggestive of **Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) syndrome**.
- **Eosinophilia** is a hallmark laboratory finding in DRESS syndrome, often accompanied by atypical lymphocytosis and elevated liver enzymes.
*Anti-measles IgM antibodies*
- Measles (rubeola) typically presents with a maculopapular rash developing after a prodrome of cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and **Koplik spots**, which are not described here.
- While measles can cause rash and fever, the onset following medication initiation and the systemic involvement point away from a viral exanthem in an immunized child.
*Elevated antistreptolysin-O titer*
- An elevated **antistreptolysin-O (ASO) titer** is indicative of a recent **Streptococcus pyogenes** infection, often associated with acute rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
- The clinical picture of a drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction with systemic symptoms does not align with a streptococcal infection.
*Positive heterophile antibody test*
- A positive **heterophile antibody test** (Monospot test) is characteristic of **infectious mononucleosis**, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus.
- While mononucleosis can present with fever, lymphadenopathy, and hepatomegaly, the timing linked to new medication and the specific rash pattern are not typical of mononucleosis.
*Fragmented red blood cells*
- **Fragmented red blood cells (schistocytes)** are a sign of **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA)**, seen in conditions such as thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS).
- These conditions involve severe thrombocytopenia and renal involvement, which are not mentioned in the patient's presentation, and do not fit the DRESS syndrome.
Question 826: A 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and obesity is transferred from the cardiac catheterization lab to the cardiac critical care unit after sustaining a massive myocardial infarction. He received a bare metal stent and has now stabilized. However, shortly after being transferred, he reports palpitations. EKG reveals ventricular tachycardia. Your attending wishes to start an anti-arrhythmic drug with a high selectivity for ischemic cardiac myocytes. You call the nurse and ask her to begin intravenous:
A. Dofetilide
B. Procainamide
C. Lidocaine (Correct Answer)
D. Flecainide
E. Quinidine
Explanation: ***Lidocaine***
- **Lidocaine** is a Class IB antiarrhythmic that preferentially binds to **ischemic or depolarized cardiac myocytes**, making it highly effective for ventricular arrhythmias post-MI.
- It selectively blocks **sodium channels** in depolarized tissue, stabilizing the membrane and terminating re-entrant pathways.
*Dofetilide*
- **Dofetilide** is a Class III antiarrhythmic that blocks **potassium channels**, prolonging the action potential duration and effective refractory period.
- While effective for atrial fibrillation and flutter, it does not have specific selectivity for ischemic myocytes in the way lidocaine does for ventricular arrhythmias.
*Procainamide*
- **Procainamide** is a Class IA antiarrhythmic that blocks **sodium channels** and also has some potassium channel blocking effects.
- It is effective for both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias but lacks the specific selectivity for ischemic tissue that makes lidocaine preferred in the post-MI setting.
*Flecainide*
- **Flecainide** is a Class IC antiarrhythmic that strongly blocks **sodium channels**, causing a significant reduction in conduction velocity.
- It is **contraindicated in patients with structural heart disease**, including post-MI, due to an increased risk of proarrhythmia.
*Quinidine*
- **Quinidine** is a Class IA antiarrhythmic that blocks both **sodium channels** and **potassium channels**, prolonging action potential duration.
- While used for various arrhythmias, it is generally less preferred for acute ventricular tachycardia post-MI compared to lidocaine due to its broader effects and potential for adverse effects such as **QT prolongation** which increase the risk of **Torsades de Pointes**.
Question 827: A 38-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease presents with a 3-week history of weight gain. The patient also presents with a 1-month history of abdominal pain, cramping, and bloody diarrhea consistent with worsening of her inflammatory bowel disease. Past medical history is significant for Crohn’s disease diagnosed 2 years ago for which she currently takes an oral medication daily and intermittently receives intravenous medication she cannot recall the name of. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 120/90 mm Hg, pulse is 68/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical examination reveals significant truncal weight gain. The patient has excessive facial hair in addition to purplish striae on her abdomen. Which of the following laboratory findings would most likely be found in this patient?
A. Hyperglycemia (Correct Answer)
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Hypokalemia
Explanation: ***Hyperglycemia***
- The patient exhibits **Cushing's syndrome** due to chronic corticosteroid use for Crohn's disease, with classic features including truncal obesity, hirsutism, and purplish striae.
- **Hyperglycemia is the most common and expected metabolic abnormality** with chronic glucocorticoid therapy, occurring in 30-40% of patients.
- Glucocorticoids cause hyperglycemia by **increasing gluconeogenesis**, **promoting glycogenolysis**, and **inducing insulin resistance** in peripheral tissues.
- This is a direct and prominent effect of glucocorticoid excess, making it the most likely laboratory finding in this clinical scenario.
*Hypokalemia*
- While possible with high-dose corticosteroids, hypokalemia is **less common** with modern synthetic glucocorticoids (prednisone, methylprednisolone) which have minimal mineralocorticoid activity.
- Hypokalemia primarily occurs with corticosteroids having significant mineralocorticoid effects (hydrocortisone, cortisone) or at very high doses.
- Compared to hyperglycemia, this is not the "most likely" finding in typical glucocorticoid therapy.
*Hypoglycemia*
- Glucocorticoids cause **hyperglycemia**, not hypoglycemia, due to their counter-regulatory effects on glucose metabolism.
- This is the opposite of what occurs with steroid excess.
*Metabolic acidosis*
- **Metabolic alkalosis**, not acidosis, can occur with Cushing's syndrome due to mineralocorticoid effects promoting hydrogen ion excretion.
- The hypokalemia that may develop is typically accompanied by alkalosis, not acidosis.
*Hyperkalemia*
- Glucocorticoids promote **potassium excretion** through mineralocorticoid receptor activation, making hyperkalemia unlikely.
- This would contradict the known effects of corticosteroid excess.
Question 828: A 34-year-old business executive presents to her primary care provider because of difficulty falling asleep on her trips. She makes 4–5 business trips from California to China every month. Her typical direct Los Angeles to Hong Kong flight leaves Los Angeles at 12:30 a.m. and reaches Hong Kong at 7:00 p.m. (local time) the next day. She complains of difficulty falling asleep at night and feeling sleepy the next morning. On arriving back in Los Angeles 2–3 days later, she feels extremely weak, has muscle soreness, and abdominal distension, all of which self-resolve in a few days. She is otherwise healthy and does not take any medications. Physical examination is unremarkable. After discussing general sleep hygiene recommendations, which of the following is the best next step for this patient’s condition?
A. Escitalopram
B. Polysomnography
C. Temazepam
D. Zolpidem
E. Melatonin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Melatonin***
- The patient is suffering from **jet lag** due to frequent transcontinental travel across multiple time zones, characterized by **insomnia**, fatigue, and gastrointestinal symptoms. **Melatonin** is effective for jet lag, especially for eastward travel, as it helps to **resynchronize the body's circadian rhythm**.
- The flight pattern (Los Angeles to Hong Kong) involves traveling **eastward across multiple time zones**, which is known to cause more significant jet lag, and melatonin helps to shift sleep patterns earlier to match the destination time.
*Escitalopram*
- **Escitalopram** is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat **depression and anxiety disorders**, which are not the primary issues described.
- While sleep disturbances can be part of depression, the patient's symptoms are clearly linked to **time zone changes and resolve upon return**, indicating jet lag.
*Polysomnography*
- **Polysomnography** is a sleep study used to diagnose sleep disorders like **sleep apnea** or **narcolepsy**.
- The patient's symptoms are directly related to **time zone changes** and **not indicative of a primary sleep disorder** requiring a sleep study.
*Temazepam*
- **Temazepam** is a **benzodiazepine hypnotic** used for short-term treatment of insomnia and can be used for jet lag, but it has potential side effects like **sedation, dependence, and rebound insomnia**.
- Given it is a controlled substance and that there are other safer options, it is not the best first-line choice for this executive, who needs to travel often.
*Zolpidem*
- **Zolpidem** is a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic (**Z-drug**) for short-term insomnia, with a risk of side effects like **daytime sleepiness, dependency, and unusual sleep behaviors**.
- Like temazepam, it's generally **not preferred for chronic or recurrent situational sleep disturbances** like jet lag when other options like melatonin are available.
Question 829: A 72-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic today. He has New York Heart Association class III heart failure. His current medications include captopril 20 mg, furosemide 40 mg, potassium chloride 10 mg twice daily, rosuvastatin 20 mg, and aspirin 81 mg. He reports that he generally feels well and has not had any recent worsening of his symptoms. His blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg and heart rate is 84/min. Physical examination is unremarkable except for trace pitting edema of the bilateral lower extremities. What other medication should be added to his heart failure regimen?
A. Losartan
B. Metoprolol tartrate
C. Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine
D. Metoprolol succinate (Correct Answer)
E. Digoxin
Explanation: ***Metoprolol succinate***
- Current guidelines recommend adding a **beta-blocker** (specifically metoprolol succinate, carvedilol, or bisoprolol) as part of guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) for **NYHA class II-IV heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)**.
- This patient is already on an **ACE inhibitor and diuretic** but is missing a **beta-blocker**, which is a cornerstone of HFrEF therapy.
- Beta-blockers **reduce mortality and morbidity** in HFrEF by counteracting chronic sympathetic activation, improving cardiac remodeling, and reducing heart rate.
- Metoprolol succinate is the **long-acting formulation** preferred for chronic heart failure management.
***Incorrect Option: Losartan***
- The patient is already on an **ACE inhibitor (captopril)**, which acts on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
- Adding an **ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker)** like losartan to an ACE inhibitor is generally not recommended due to increased risk of hyperkalemia, hypotension, and renal dysfunction without significant additional benefit.
- ARBs are typically used as an alternative when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors (e.g., due to cough or angioedema).
***Incorrect Option: Metoprolol tartrate***
- While metoprolol tartrate is a beta-blocker, it is a **short-acting formulation** typically used for acute conditions like hypertension or angina.
- For **chronic heart failure management**, **long-acting beta-blockers** such as metoprolol succinate are preferred due to sustained therapeutic levels, better adherence, and proven mortality benefit in clinical trials.
***Incorrect Option: Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine***
- This combination is primarily indicated for **African American patients with NYHA class III-IV HFrEF** who remain symptomatic despite optimal therapy, or as an alternative in patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors/ARBs.
- While the patient has class III heart failure, he is **not yet on a beta-blocker**, which is a more fundamental component of GDMT and should be added first.
- This combination is typically added as a fourth-line agent.
***Incorrect Option: Digoxin***
- Digoxin is considered for patients with **HFrEF who remain symptomatic** despite optimized therapy with ACE inhibitors/ARBs, beta-blockers, and mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (MRAs).
- It primarily helps **improve symptoms and reduce hospitalizations** but does not reduce mortality.
- Since this patient is not yet on a beta-blocker, adding the beta-blocker takes priority.
Question 830: A 17-year-old man presents to his primary care physician concerned about excessive sleepiness that has persisted his entire life. He notes that he has been having difficulty with his job as a waiter because he often falls asleep suddenly during the day. He also experiences a sensation of dreaming as he goes to sleep even though he still feels awake. He sleeps about 10 hours per day and still feels tired throughout the day. The patient has even reported driving into a tree once as he fell asleep while driving. The patient often stays up late at night working on the computer. Physical exam demonstrates an obese young man who appears tired. His oropharynx demonstrates high palatal ridges and good dental hygiene. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Recommend scheduling regular naps and more time for sleep at night
B. Start a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
C. Begin inhibitor of dopamine reuptake
D. Order sleep study with Multiple Sleep Latency Test (Correct Answer)
E. Continuous positive airway pressure at night
Explanation: ***Order sleep study with Multiple Sleep Latency Test***
- This patient presents with classic symptoms of **narcolepsy**: **excessive daytime sleepiness**, **sudden sleep attacks**, and **hypnagogic hallucinations** (sensation of dreaming while still feeling awake).
- The **Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT)** following overnight **polysomnography** is the **gold standard for diagnosing narcolepsy**. The MSLT measures how quickly the patient falls asleep during daytime nap opportunities and detects **sleep-onset REM periods (SOREMPs)**, which are characteristic of narcolepsy.
- **Diagnosis must precede treatment**: Before initiating pharmacotherapy with controlled substances like modafinil, **definitive diagnosis is required** for both medical/legal standards and insurance approval.
- While the patient has safety concerns (fell asleep driving), the immediate management includes **counseling about driving restrictions** and **ordering diagnostic testing** as the next step.
*Begin inhibitor of dopamine reuptake*
- **Modafinil** or **armodafinil** (dopamine reuptake inhibitors) are first-line treatments for **confirmed narcolepsy** to promote wakefulness and reduce excessive daytime sleepiness.
- However, these medications are **controlled substances** that require a confirmed diagnosis before initiation. Starting treatment without diagnostic confirmation violates standard medical practice and would not be covered by insurance without proper diagnosis codes.
- This would be the appropriate step **after** confirming narcolepsy with sleep study and MSLT.
*Recommend scheduling regular naps and more time for sleep at night*
- While **sleep hygiene** and **scheduled naps** can be adjunctive measures in narcolepsy management, they do not address the underlying pathophysiology and are insufficient as primary management.
- The patient already sleeps 10 hours per day, suggesting that simply increasing sleep time will not resolve the pathological sleepiness.
- This does not provide diagnostic confirmation, which is essential before any treatment plan.
*Start a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor*
- **SSRIs** or **SNRIs** (like venlafaxine) can be used to treat **cataplexy** (sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by emotions) in narcolepsy patients.
- This patient does not describe clear cataplexy symptoms, and the primary complaint is excessive daytime sleepiness and sleep attacks.
- Like dopamine reuptake inhibitors, SSRIs should only be started **after diagnostic confirmation** of narcolepsy.
*Continuous positive airway pressure at night*
- **CPAP** is the primary treatment for **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**, which can cause daytime sleepiness due to fragmented sleep from apneic episodes.
- While this patient is **obese** (a risk factor for OSA) and has **high palatal ridges**, his symptoms of **hypnagogic hallucinations** and **sudden irresistible sleep attacks** are characteristic of **narcolepsy, not OSA**.
- The polysomnography portion of the sleep study will also rule out OSA as a contributing factor, but the primary diagnosis here is narcolepsy.